Microsoft MS-300 exam questions, MS-300 dumps easy to prepare for passing exams

Exam MS-300: Deploying Microsoft 365 Teamwork (beta)” Exam MS-300.
The Teamwork administrator is involved with decisions regarding governance and works with other administrators to implement many of the decisions made by governance bodies. The Teamwork administrator collaborates with the Messaging Administrator to configure options and security related to email tasks, the Voice Administrator to integrate voice capabilities in organizations, and the Security Administrator to ensure an end to end security.

Candidates for this exam have a fundamental understanding of integration points with the following apps and services: Office, PowerApps, Flow, Yammer, Microsoft Graph, Stream, Planner, and Project. The administrator understands how to integrate third-party apps and services including line-of-business applications. Candidates also have an understanding of SQL Server management concepts, Azure Active Directory, PowerShell, networking, Windows server administration, Domain Name System (DNS), Active Directory mobile device management, and alternative operating systems

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MS-300 exam:

Candidates for this exam are Teamwork Administrators who are responsible for configuring, deploying and managing Office 365 and Azure workloads that focus on efficient and effective collaboration and adoption. Teamwork Administrators manage apps, services, and supporting infrastructure to meet business requirements. The Teamwork administrator must be able to deploy, manage, migrate, and secure SharePoint (online, on-premises, and hybrid), OneDrive, and Teams. Follow the link to find more information about https://www.lead4pass.com/MS-300.html exam.

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Exam MS-300: Deploying Microsoft 365 Teamwork (beta):https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-ms-300.aspx

Free Microsoft MS-300 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
You are a Microsoft Teams administrator for your company.
The company creates a new Teams app named App1. A developer packages App1 as a ZIP file.
You need to ensure that App1 can be uploaded as a ZIP package to Teams.
Which Apps setting should you turn on?
A. Allow side loading of external apps
B. Allow external in Microsoft Teams
C. Enable default apps
D. Enable new external apps by default
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoftteams/admin-settings

 

QUESTION 2
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription.
The company plans to use Office 365 groups and Microsoft Yammer. However, there might be users who do not have a
corresponding Yammer identity.
You need to verify which users are only Yammer users. The solution must minimize administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Export the users from Yammer. Export the active users from Microsoft 365. Compare the user names.
B. From the Microsoft 365 admin center, view the usage reports.
C. Run the Get-MSOLUser cmdlet and filter the results by License.
D. Run the Get-TeamUser cmdlet and filter the results by GroupId.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
You have an Active Directory user named User1.
You need to ensure that User1 can view usage reports for Microsoft Teams. The solution must limit the ability of user1
to make changes to Microsoft 365 services.
Which role should you assign to User1?
A. Teams Communication Support Specialist
B. Teams Service Administrator
C. Reports reader
D. Message center reader
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You have a distribution list named Finance.
You need to ensure that you can use Finance to create a team in Microsoft Teams.
Solution: From the Microsoft 365 admin center, you modify the distribution list. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
Your company is moving an on-premises Microsoft SharePoint Online.
The on-premises SharePoint deployment uses structural navigation with security trimming. After testing the same
navigation approach in SharePoint Online, the company identifies the following requirements for the SharePoint Online
deployment:
Display an access denied page when users lack permissions to see a given page.
Populate the navigation links based on a predefined company taxonomy.
Display the same set of links to all users.
Which navigation approach should you recommend?
A. structural navigation without security trimming
B. a Custom navigation provider with security trimming
C. managed navigation without security trimming
D. search-driven navigation with security trimming
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 6
What should you configure to meet the licensing requirements for Admin1?
A. Add Admin1 to the App Catalog site owners group of the App Requests list.
B. Assign Admin1 the SharePoint administrators of the App Catalog site
C. Add Admin1 to the site collection administrators of the App Catalog site
D. Add Admin1 as a License Manager of the apps.
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sharepoint/administration/manage-the-app-catalog

 

QUESTION 7
You have a Microsoft 365 tenant.
Guest users report that they cannot access files or Microsoft OneNote from Microsoft Teams. The guest users can
access channels, chats, and conversations.
You need to ensure that the guest users can access the files and OneNote from Teams.
For what should you configure external sharing?
A. Microsoft SharePoint Online
B. Microsoft Yammer
C. Microsoft OneDrive for Business
D. Microsoft Teams
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
SharePoint administrators open several Microsoft support tickets.
You need to view the status of the support tickets.
Solution: From the Microsoft 365 admin center, you select Health, and then you select Message center.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You need to add a user named Admin1 as an administrator of the Microsoft One Drive for Business site of a user
named User1.
What should you do?
A. From the SharPoint admin center, select user profiles, and then select Manage User Profiles.Select User1, and then
select Manage site collection owners.
B. From the SharePoint admin center, select user profiles, and then select Mange User Properties.
C. From the SharePoint admin center, select user profiles, and then select Mange User Permissions.
D. From Setup My Sites, add a secondary administrator.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 10
You need to block the media files to meet the technical requirements. What should you do?
A. From the OneDrive admin center, modify the Compliance settings.
B. From the SharePoint admin center, modify the properties of the OneDrive for Business site collection.
C. From the OneDrive admin center, modify the Sync settings.
D. From the SharePoint admin center, modify the Access control settings.
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/onedrive/block-file-types

 

QUESTION 11
You need to recommend an identity model that meets the technical requirements. Which identity model should you
recommend?
A. Cloud Identity
B. Synchronized Identity
C. Federated identity.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You need to add a user named Admin1 as an administrator of the Microsoft OneDrive for Business site of a user named
User1.
What should you do?
A. Run the Set-SPOSite (site URL) – owner Admin1 command.
B. From the SharePoint admin center, select user profiles, and then select Manage User Permissions.
C. Add Admin1 to the Site owners group.
D. From the SharePoint admin center, select user profiles, and then select Manage User Profiles. Select User1, and
then select Manage site collection owners.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 13
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You need to prevent all users except for a user named User1 from uploading video to Microsoft Stream channels and
creating Stream channels. User1 must be able to create a channel and upload video to the created channel.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Turn on Restrict companywide channel creation and add User1 as an unrestricted user.
B. Turn on Restrict video uploads and add User1 as an unrestricted user.
C. Turn on Restrict companywide channel creation and add the Office 365 group associated to the channel as an
unrestricted user.
D. Add user1 to the Office 365 group associated to the channel.
E. Turn on Restrict video uploads and add the Office 365 group associated to the channel as an unrestricted user.
Correct Answer: AB
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/stream/restrict-companywide-channels https://docs.microsoft.com/en-
us/stream/restrict-uploaders

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Microsoft MS-201 exam questions, MS-201 dumps easy to prepare for passing exams

Exam MS-201: Implementing a Hybrid and Secure Messaging Platform” Exam MS-201. Messaging Administrators are responsible for managing hygiene, messaging infrastructure, hybrid configuration, migration, disaster recovery, high availability, and client access.

Messaging Administrators collaborate with the Security Administrator and Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrator to implement a secure hybrid topology that meets the business needs of a modern organization.

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MS-201 exam: Candidates for this exam are Messaging Administrators who deploy, configure, manage, troubleshoot, and monitor recipients, permissions, mail protection, mail flow, and public folders in both on-premises and cloud enterprise environments. Follow the link to find more information about https://www.lead4pass.com/MS-201.html exam.

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Free Microsoft MS-201 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. You have a universal security group named group1 that
contains three users named Admin1, Admin2, and Admin3.
You plan to make Admin1, Admin2, and Admin3 responsible for managing some of the Exchange objects in the
organization.
You run the following commands.lead4pass ms-201 exam question q1

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-201 exam question q1-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-201 exam question q1-2

References:
https://practical365.com/exchange-server/exchange-server-role-based-access-control-in-action/

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/built-in-management-roles-exchange-2013-help

QUESTION 2
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 hybrid deployment. You run the Get-HybridConfiguration cmdlet and
receive the output shown in the following exhibit.lead4pass ms-201 exam question q2

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-201 exam question q2-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-201 exam question q2-2

References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/federation-and-hybrid/sethybridconfiguration?view=exchange-ps

QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization and a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription. From the Microsoft 365
admin center, you open Data migration as shown in the following exhibit.lead4pass ms-201 exam question q3

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-201 exam question q3-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-201 exam question q3-2

References:
https://www.stellarinfo.com/blog/hybrid-migration-migrate-exchange-mailboxes-office-365/
https://www.kerneldatarecovery.com/blog/migrate-from-exchange-on-premises-to-exchangeonlinein-hybrid-environment/

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this scenario, you will NOT be able to
return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
Your company has a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 hybrid deployment that contains two Mailbox servers named
MBX1 and MBX2.
The company has the departments shown in the following table.lead4pass ms-201 exam question q4

From the on-premises organization, outbound email is sent directly to the internet by using DNS lookups. You are
informed that some sales department users send email messages that are identified as spam.
You need to automatically block the sales department users from repeatedly sending spam. Solution: You modify the
outbound spam filter policy in Exchange Online. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/configure-the-outbound-spampolicy

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
Your company named ADatum Corporation has a Microsoft 365 subscription.
ADatum acquires a company named Contoso, Ltd.
In the subscription, you create a new mailbox for each user at Contoso. You need to provide the Contoso users with a
global address list (GAL) that contains only their email addresses.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:lead4pass ms-201 exam question q5

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-201 exam question q5-1

Explanation/Reference:

lead4pass ms-201 exam question q5-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/address-books/address-lists/create-global-address-list https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/email-addresses-and-address-books/addresslists/address-lists?view=exchserver-2019

QUESTION 6
HOTSPOT
Your company has a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 hybrid deployment. The company has four departments that have
the mailboxes shown in the following table.lead4pass ms-201 exam question q6

The mailboxes are configured as shown in the following table.

lead4pass ms-201 exam question q6-1

You have two administrators named Admin1 and Admin2 that are assigned the permissions shown in the following
table.

lead4pass ms-201 exam question q6-2

For each of the following statement, select yes if the statement is true. otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-201 exam question q6-3

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-201 exam question q6-4

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/discovery-management-exchange-2013-help
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/mailboxes/searchmailbox?view=exchange-ps

QUESTION 7
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. Users access their email by using Microsoft Outlook 2019.
The users report that their address list in Outlook sometimes takes a full day to show new entries. You need to ensure
that
the address list updates within four hours.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Set-MailboxServer
B. Set-OfflineAddressBook
C. New-OfflineAddressBook
D. New-SettingOverride
Correct Answer: D
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/plan-and-deploy/post-installation-tasks/change-oabgenerationschedule?view=exchserver-2019

QUESTION 8
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 hybrid deployment. You plan to enable Hybrid Modern Authentication
(HMA). You run the Get-MapiVirtualDirectory cmdlet and receive the output shown in the following exhibit.lead4pass ms-201 exam question q8

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-201 exam question q8-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-201 exam question q8-2

References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/enterprise/configure-exchange-server-for-hybridmodernauthentication

QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization.
Two Edge Transport servers provide email hygiene.
You configure anti-spam filters to redirect email messages identified as spam to a quarantine mailbox.
You open the quarantine mailbox in Microsoft Outlook 2019 and discover that the from field of all quarantined messages
shows the postmaster address.
You need to ensure that the quarantined messages can be sorted by using the original sender address.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:lead4pass ms-201 exam question q9

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-201 exam question q9-1

Explanation/Reference:

lead4pass ms-201 exam question q9-2

References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/antispam-and-antimalware/antispam-protection/showquarantinedmessage-original-senders?view=exchserver-2019

QUESTION 10
Case Study : Litware,Inc.
Case Study
Overview
Litware, Inc. is food service supplier in Europe.
PhysicalLocations
Litware has a main office in Paris and branch offices in Munich, London, Brussels, Vienna, and Rome.
Each branch office has its own compliance officer.
ExistingEnvironment
The network contains one Active Directory forest named litware.com. The forest contains a single Active Directory
domain. Each office is configured as an Active Directory site. Each branch office is represented organizational unit (OU)
in an
OU named Offices in Active Directory.
Each branch office has a special Administrators group that contains the delegated administrators for that office. Each
Administrators group is named based on its location in a format of RegionalAdmins_Brussels,
RegionalAdmins_Munich,
RegionalAdmins_London, RegionalAdmins_Vienna and RegionalAdmins_Rome.
NetworkInfrastructure
Each office contains two domain controllers from the litware.com domain. All the domain controllers are configured as
DNS servers. All client computers connect only to the DNS servers in their respective office.
All offices have a high-speed connection to the Internet. Each office connects to the Internet by using a VPN appliance.
Each office has the following servers and client computers:
One reverse proxy appliance
One Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 server
One Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server
Computers that run Windows 10 and have Microsoft Office 2019 installed. The office in Brussels contains an Exchange
Server 2016 server that has the Unified Messaging role installed and hosted voicemail configured.
Mailboxes are hosted on all the Exchange servers. Public folders are hosted only on an Exchange server in the main
office. Litware uses a disjoint namespace to access the servers. Each user has an archive mailbox. Archiving is
configured
to use the default settings. Exchange services are published to the internet by using a reverse proxy in each office. A full
backup of Exchange is performed nightly. Incremental backups occur every six hours. All the users in the transport
department connect to network resources by using a connection in the main office.
Requirements
Planned Changes
Litware plans to implement the following changes:
Implement calendar sharing to partner companies.
Implement a solution that prevents malware from being delivered to end users. Use personal archives to eliminate the
need for PST files. Ensure the Brussels office and move all the users in the Brussels office to the main office. All the
mailboxes in the Brussels office will be moved to a server in the main office. Implement a compliance solution to ensure
that items deleted from public folders are retained. If an item in a public folder is modified, the original version of the
item
must be available.
TechnicalRequirements
Litware identifies the following technical requirements:
Minimize administrative effort.
Use the principle of least privilege.
Ensure that junk email is deleted automatically after 14 days. Ensure that sent items and deleted items are deleted
automatically after 30 days. Ensure that users in the customer service department can open multiple mailboxes. Ensure
that
all the former Brussels office users always maintain access to hosted voicemail. Ensure that the staff in the IT
department can manage the email environment without and-user involvement.
Ensure that users cannot recover email messages that are deleted from the Junk Email folder and the Deleted Items.
Ensure that if an email message has a spam confidence level (SCL) of 3 or higher, the message automatically moves to
the Junk Email folder.
Problemstatements
The transport department users report that accessing a public folder named TransportPF is sometimes very slow.
Users in the customer service department report that Microsoft Outlook sometimes hangs when many mailboxes are
open.
You need to recommend a solution to retain the items in the public folders. The solution must support the planned
changes.
What should you recommend?
A. Create an Outlook rule that forwards all the items in each public folder to a compliance mailbox.
B. Place an In-Place Hold on all the mailboxes of the public folders.
C. Increase the frequency of the backups.
D. Modify the public folder permissions.
Correct Answer: B
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/security-and-compliance/in-place-and-litigationholds#placingpublic-folders-on-hold

QUESTION 11
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. You need to ensure that all email is retained for one year,
and then moved to an archive mailbox. What should you use?
A. a default policy tag
B. a data loss prevention (DLP) policy
C. a personal tag
D. a retention policy tag
Correct Answer: D
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/policy-and-compliance/mrm/retention-tags-andretentionpolicies?view=exchserver-2019

QUESTION 12
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization.
You deploy a new mailbox server named EX01.
You need to ensure that EX01 can perform content filtering and sender filtering.
What should you run first?
A. Install-UnifiedCompliancePrequisite
B. Set-transportAgent
C. Install-AntiSpamAgents.ps1
D. Set-MailboxJunkEmailConfiguration
Correct Answer: C
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/antispam-and-antimalware/antispamprotection/antispam-onmailbox-servers?view=exchserver-2019

QUESTION 13
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this scenario, you will NOT be able to return to
it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription.
Several users in the finance department of the company recently accesses unsafe websites by clicking on links in email
messages. Users in the marketing department of the company report that they must be able to access all the links
embedded in email messages. You need to reduce the likelihood of the finance department users accessing unsafe
websites. The solution must affect only the finance department users.
Solution: You create a new safe attachments policy.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/atp-safe-attachments

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Cisco Collaboration Servers and Appliances Role 500-325 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which functionality does Cisco Meeting App provide?
A. adjust call routes and queues
B. change network security and firewall settings
C. enable and disable wireless network settings
D. create, join, and run meetings
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/conferencing/meeting-server/datasheet-c78-737519.html

 

QUESTION 2
In the KVM console, which result occurs if the first default is used and network does not have IPv6 configured?
A. KVM switches to IPv4.
B. KVM prompts the admin to enable IPv6.
C. KVM moves to the next default option listed.
D. KVM fails to launch.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
Which software is an eDelivery, field-uploaded license?
A. Cisco TelePresence Virtualization
B. Cisco UC Virtualization Hypervisor Plus
C. Cisco UC Virtualization Foundation
D. VMware vSphere ESXi
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
Which software is wide open and can run any Cisco or third-party application without limitation?
A. Cisco UC Virtualization Hypervisor Plus
B. VMware vSphere ESXi
C. Cisco TelePresence Virtualization Software
D. Cisco UC Virtualization Foundation
Correct Answer: B
The VMware vSphere ESXi software, however, is wide open, and can run any Cisco or 3rd-party application without
limitation.

 

QUESTION 5
Which setting decides on the memory allocations for each thread executed by the HPC applications?
A. Energy Performance
B. Non-Uniform Memory Access
C. HPC Mode Access
D. CPU Performance
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/servers-unified-computing/ucs-b-series-blade-servers/whitepaper_c11-727827.html

 

QUESTION 6
Which expansion of IOPS is true?
A. Input/Output Occasions per second
B. Input/Output Octets per second
C. In/Out Operations per second
D. In/Out Occasions per second
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
Which option is the maximum capacity of a Cisco BE7000 appliance deployment?
A. 10000
B. 5000
C. 1000
D. no enforced limit
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/unified-communications/business-edition-7000/data-sheet-c78-730649.html

 

QUESTION 8
How much hardware oversubscription is allowed for UC on UCS applications?
A. Some hardware oversubscription is allowed on Business Edition solutions.
B. Hardware oversubscription to double the specifications is allowed
C. Some hardware oversubscription is allowed on Cisco UCS servers.
D. No hardware oversubscription is allowed.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://supportforums.cisco.com/t5/ip-telephony/can-vms-share-the-allocated-vcpus-between-them/td-p/3082246

 

QUESTION 9
Which option lists the five product categories that can be deployed in a UC on UCS solution?
A. UC and Collaboration Edge, conferencing, customer collaboration, system management, and older products
B. UC and Collaboration Edge, conferencing, customer care, system management, and newer products
C. UC and Collaboration Edge, conferencing, customer care, system marketing, and older products
D. UC and Collaboration Edge, conferencing, customer care, system management, and older products
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
Which result occurs after the UC application OVA template has been created in the VMware vSphere ESXi host?
A. Nothing, the installation is complete.
B. Attach the ISO image to the virtual machine.
C. Attach the OVA image to the virtual machine.
D. Attach the logo image to the virtual machine.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 11
Which type of trunking from the public switched telephone network is supported by the Cisco BE4000 appliance?
A. Sonet
B. H.323
C. CAMA
D. BRI
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/unified-communications/business-edition-4000/datasheet-c78-738497.html

 

QUESTION 12
Which additional service beyond the basic three components of Cisco Spark is available in Cisco Spark Hybrid to
simplify the user experience?
A. meeting
B. calendar
C. forwarding
D. transferring
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Which feature of the Cisco BE7000 appliance is supported?
A. VoIP phone system
B. digital key voice system
C. analog phone system
D. PBX phone system
Correct Answer: A

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CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI LX0-104 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Instead of using specific host names or IP addresses, which string can be used in /etc/hosts.allow entries to cover any
remote host no matter of its name or address? (Specify the relevant string only without any additional options or
arguments.)
A. all
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
What is the name of the simple graphical login manager that comes with a vanilla X11 installation? (Specify ONLY the
command without any path or parameters.)
A. xdm
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
What word will complete an if statement in bash such as the following: if [ -x “$file” ]; then echo $file _____ (Please
provide the missing word only)
Correct Answer: fi

 

QUESTION 4
Which of the following crontab entries will execute myscript at 30 minutes past every hour on Sundays?
A. 0 * * * 30 myscript
B. 30 * * * 6 myscript
C. 30 0 * * 0 myscript
D. 30 0-23 * * 0 myscript
E. 0 0-23 * * 30 myscript
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
Which of the following are commonly used Mail Transfer Agent (MTA) applications? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. Postfix
B. Procmail
C. Sendmail
D. Exim
E. SMTPd
Correct Answer: ACD

 

QUESTION 6
Which of the following is a correct entry in the /etc/hosts file?
A. localhost 127.0.0.1 localhost.localdomain localhost 127.0.0.1
B. localhost.localdomain
C. localhost localhost.localdomain 127.0.0.1
D. 127.0.0.1 localhost.localdomain localhost
127.0.0.1 localhost
E. localhost.localdomain
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
Which port is the default server port for the HTTPS protocol? (Specify the port number using digits.)
Correct Answer: 443


QUESTION 8
Which of the following files holds the configuration for journald when running system?
A. /etc/system/journalctl.conf
B. /etc/systemd/journald.conf
C. /etc/system/systemd-journal.conf
D. /etc/systemd/systemd-journalctl.conf
E. /usr/lib/systemd/journalctl.conf
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
After adding a new email alias to the configuration, which command must be run in order to ensure the MTA knows
about it? (Specify the command without any path but including all required parameters.)
A. newaliases -or- sendmail -bi
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 10
What is the purpose of the iconv command?
A. It converts bitmap images from one format to another such as PNG to JPEG.
B. It verifies that the root directory tree complies to all conventions from the Filesystem Hierarchy Standard (FHS).
C. It displays additional meta information from icon files ending in .ico.
D. It changes the mode of an inode in the ext4 file system.
E. It converts files from one character encoding to another.
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 11
What output will the following command produce?
seq 1 5 20
A. 1
B. 1
C. 1
D. 2
E. 5
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 12
What is the purpose of the command mailq?
A. It fetches new emails from a remote server using POP3 or IMAP.
B. It is a multi-user mailing list manager.
C. It is a proprietary tool contained only in the qmail MTA.
D. It queries the mail queue of the local MTA.
E. It is a command-line based tool for reading and writing emails.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
Given the following routing table:lead4pass LX0-104 exam question q13

How would an outgoing packet to the destination 192.168.2.150 be handled?
A. It would be passed to the default router 192.168.178.1 on wlan0.
B. It would be directly transmitted on the device eth0.
C. It would be passed to the default router 255.255.255.0 on eth0.
D. It would be directly transmitted on the device wlan0.
E. It would be passed to the router 192.168.1.1 on eth0.
Correct Answer: E

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CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Please refer to the attached exhibit. Which of the following types of configuration management documentation is
represented?lead4pass n10-007 exam question q1

A. Network security policy
B. Network baseline
C. Logical network diagram
D. Wiring schematic
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
Which of the following MUST be used when securing a VoIP network consisting of private IP addresses?
A. IPS
B. Application layer firewall
C. IDS
D. An unmanaged switch
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
A network technician is configuring user\\’s access to a VPN concentrator and has advised to use a protocol that
supports encryption over UDP. Which of the following protocols has the technician MOST likely configured for client
use?
A. TFTP
B. DTLS
C. DNS
D. SNMP
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
A technician is investigating the cause of a network outage. Which of the following documents should be checked to rule
out configuration issues?
A. Change management records
B. Inventory management
C. Network log files
D. Logical diagrams
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Which of the following default ports would need to be disabled to block TFTP traffic?
A. 20
B. 21
C. 69
D. 123
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
A customer is reporting difficulty connecting some devices after replacing a wireless router with a new wireless
802.11ac router. The SSID, encryption and password are the same as the previous router. A technician goes on-site
and notices the devices that are no longer connecting appear to be several years ago. Which of the following is MOST
likely the problem?
A. the password needs to be re-entered.
B. there is a security type mismatch.
C. there is insufficient antenna power.
D. there is a frequency mismatch.
E. the channel has changed.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
Which of the following are network topologies? (Select TWO).
A. Ethernet
B. Duplex
C. Star
D. Circular
E. Bus
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is indicative of an FTP bounce?
A. Arbitrary IP address
B. Reverse DNS lookups
C. Same Port Number
D. File Transfer Success
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
When Jeff, a technician, is troubleshooting a problem, which of the following is the NEXT step after verifying full system
functionality?
A. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects.
B. Implement the solution.
C. Establish a theory of probable cause.
D. Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
A network technician needs to connect to a remote router to modify the configuration, Which of the following method
should the technician use to connected to the device security? (Select TWO)
A. Telnet
B. VNC
C. SSH
D. RDP
E. HTTPS
F. TFTP
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 11
A technician is installing a new wireless badging system on a hospital network. The requirements of the badging system
are for it to have its own SSID and low power levels. The badging system has to cover 99.9% of the hospital. Which of
the following is the BEST action to take to meet the system requirements?
A. Install additional WAPs
B. Install external antennas
C. Move the WAPs closer to the more populated area
D. Change the antenna types
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
There is suspected virus activity on the network. Which of the following would Lisa, a technician, use to study network
traffic?
A. Protocol analyzer
B. Cable tester
C. Cable certifier
D. Environmental monitor
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
A firewall administrator is implementing a rule that directs HTTP traffic to an internal server listening on a non-standard
socket. Which of the following types of rules is the administrator implementing?
A. NAT
B. PAT
C. STP
D. SNAT
E. ARP
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which Cisco WebEx product can be integrated in a CMR Cloud or CMR Hybrid deployment?
A. Cisco WebEx Training Center
B. Cisco WebEx Meeting Center
C. Cisco WebEx Support Center
D. Cisco WebEx Event Center
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
Which statement is true about APIs and SDKs?
A. SDKs specify how software components should interact
B. APIs consist of a set of SDKs, sample code, technical notes, and debugging facilities.
C. SDKs can be used without APIs.
D. APIs can be used without SDKs.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
Which premise-based conferencing solution supports Skype for Business and WebRTC?
A. TelePresence Server
B. Spark
C. Cisco Meeting Server
D. Cisco WebEx
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Which is a call Control Device in a Cisco Collaboration environment?
A. Cisco Meeting Server
B. Cisco Telepresence Management Suite
C. Cisco Content Server
D. Cisco Expressway
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
What is a function of an-endpoint?
A. To Join 3 or more participants in a meeting
B. To provide an audio and video interface for the user.
C. To schedule calls.
D. To act as a traffic cop for network communication.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
Which ports are used for SIP calling on the Expressway?
A. 5060 and 5061
B. 164 and 323
C. 80 and 443
D. 1719 and 1720
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
What protocol does an Expressway use to send the can setup message in an H.323 call?
A. H.245
B. H.239
C. T.120
D. Q.931
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 8
Which conferencing solution is designed for messaging, meeting, calling and persistent Sharing?
A. Cisco Meeting Server
B. CMR
C. TelePresence Server
D. Spark
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
Which is a Cisco Spark Service Add-ons?
A. Calling
B. Messaging
C. Room Registration
D. Meeting
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
What is a function of a call control solution?
A. To make, monitor and maintain calls
B. To provide an audio and video interface for the user
C. To join 3 or more participants in a meeting.
D. To schedule calls
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
Which is a method used by the Expressway for bandwidth control?
A. Zones
B. Hunt Groups
C. Subzones
D. Regions
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
What is oAuth?
A. A type of authentication used when integrating a Cloud applications with a Premises solution.
B. Allows a user to act on behalf of an application
C. Allows an application to act on behalf of a user
D. A type of authentication used when users sign into Cloud applications, such as Cisco Spark
Correct Answer: B
https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/jabber/11_9/Unified-CM-OAuth-Whitepaper-v17-FINAL.pdf

 

QUESTION 13
Which Cisco WebEx Center has program and campaign management?
A. Cisco WebEx Support Center
B. Cisco WebEx Training Center
C. Cisco WebEx Meeting Center
D. Cisco WebEx Event Center
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Which DTP switch port mode allows the port to create a trunk link if the neighboring port is in trunk mode, dynamic
desirable mode, or desirable auto mode?
A. trunk
B. access
C. dynamic desirable
D. dynamic auto
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 200-125 exam question q2 Assuming that the entire network topology is shown, what is the operational status of the interfaces of R2 as indicated
by the command output is shown?
A. One interface has a problem.
B. Two interfaces have problems.
C. The interfaces are functioning correctly.
D. The operational status of the interfaces cannot be determined from the output shown.
Correct Answer: C
The output shown shows the normal operational status of the router\\’s interfaces. Serial0/0 is down because it has been
disabled using the “shutdown” command.

 

QUESTION 3
You are implementing ElGRP between the main office and branch offices. In Phase 1 you must implement and verify
EIGRP configurations as mentioned in the topology in Phase 2. your colleague is expected to do NAT and ISP
configurations
Identify the issues that you are encountering during Phase 1 EIGRP implementation.
Router R1 connects the main office to the Internet and routers R2 and R3 are internal routers.
Routers Branch 1 and Branch2 connect to router R2 in the main office.
Users from the Branch1 LAN network 10 20 40 0724 are expected to perform testing of the application that is hosted on
the servers in Server farm1 before servers are available for production.
– The GRE tunnel is configured between R3 and Branch1, and traffic between server farm1 and Branch1 LAN network
10 20 40 0/24 is routed through the GRE tunnel using static routes
The link between Branch1 and Branch2 is used as a secondary path in the event of failure of the primary path to mam
office You have console access on R1. R2. R3. Branch1 and Branch2 devices Use only show commands to
troubleshoot the issues Topology: Examine the R1 routing table. None of the internal routes other than locally
connected appear in the routing table Which cause of the issue is true?lead4pass 200-125 exam question q3 lead4pass 200-125 exam question q3-1

A. EIGRP neighbor relationship was not formed due to AS mismatch between routers R1 and R2.
B. EIGRP neighbor relationship was not formed due to K values mismatch between routers R1 and R2.
C. EIGRP packets were blocked by the inbound ACL on R1.
D. The IP address was misconfigured between the R1 and R2 interfaces
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
What are three reasons to collect Netflow data on a company network? (Choose three.)
A. To identify applications causing congestion.
B. To authorize user network access.
C. To report and alert link up / down instances.
D. To diagnose slow network performance, bandwidth hogs, and bandwidth utilization.
E. To detect suboptimal routing in the network.
F. To confirm the appropriate amount of bandwidth that has been allocated to each Class of Service.
Correct Answer: ADF
NetFlow facilitates solutions to many common problems encountered by IT professionals. + Analyze new applications
and their network impact Identify new application network loads such as VoIP or remote site additions.
+
Reduction in peak WAN traffic
Use NetFlow statistics to measure WAN traffic improvement from application-policy changes; understand who is utilizing
the network and the network top talkers. + Troubleshooting and understanding network pain points Diagnose slow network performance, bandwidth hogs, and bandwidth utilization quickly with command line interface or reporting tools.
-> D is correct.
+
Detection of unauthorized WAN traffic
Avoid costly upgrades by identifying the applications causing congestion. -> A is correct.
+
Security and anomaly detection
NetFlow can be used for anomaly detection and worm diagnosis along with applications such as Cisco CS-Mars.
+
Validation of QoS parameters
Confirm that appropriate bandwidth has been allocated to each Class of Service (CoS) and that no CoS is over- or
under-subscribed.-> F is correct.

 

QUESTION 5
Which two statements about the spanning-tree bridge ID are true? (Choose two.)
A. It is composed of a 4-bit bridge priority and a 12-bit system ID extension.
B. The bridge ID is transmitted in the IP header to elect the root bridge.
C. The system ID extension is a value between 1 and 4095.
D. It is composed of an 8-bit bridge priority and a 16-bit system ID extension.
E. The bridge priority must be incremented in blocks of 4096.
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 200-125 exam question q6

A frame on VLAN 1 on switch S1 is sent to switch S2 where the frame is received on VLAN
2. What causes this behavior?
A. trunk mode mismatches
B. allowing only VLAN 2 on the destination
C. native VLAN mismatches
D. VLANs that do not correspond to a unique IP subnet
Correct Answer: C
Untagged frames are encapsulated with the native VLAN. In this case, the native VLANs are different so although S1
will tag it as VLAN 1 it will be received by S2.

 

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 200-125 exam question q7

After HostA pings HostB, which entry will be in the ARP cache of HostA to support this transmission?

lead4pass 200-125 exam question q7-1

A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D
E. Exhibit E
F. Exhibit F
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Host A knows host B is in another network so it will send the pings to its default gateway 192.168.6.1. Host A sends a
broadcast frame asking the MAC address of 192.168.6.1. This information (IP and MAC address of the default gateway)
is saved in its ARP cache for later use.

 

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibitlead4pass 200-125 exam question q8

You are configuring the router to provide Static NAT for the web server. Drag and drop the configuration commands
from left onto the letters that correspond to its position in the configuration on the right.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 200-125 exam question q8-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 200-125 exam question q8-2

Explanation

 

QUESTION 9
Several users on your network have complained of connectivity issues to a specific host. While troubleshooting task can
you perform to eliminate DNS issues as the cause?
A. Connect to the host by its IP address
B. Verity the DHCP settings on the host
C. Verity that a valid route to the host is present in the routing table
D. Connect to the host by its FQDN
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
Which two operational modes are supported on the members of a StackWise switch stack? (Choose two)
A. power-sharing
B. passive
C. active
D. redundant
E. standby
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 11
While troubleshooting a GRE tunnel interface issue, show interface command output displays tunnel status up, but the line protocol is down.
Which reason for this problem is most likely?
A. The route to the tunnel destination address is through the tunnel itself
B. The next hop server is misconfigured
C. The interface has been administratively shut down
D. The tunnel was just reset
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 12
What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
A. the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets
B. the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
C. the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality
D. the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
E. the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 13
Which statement about VLAN operation on Cisco Catalyst switches is true?
A. When a packet is received from an 802.1Q trunk, the VLAN ID can be determined from the source MAC address and
the MAC address table.
B. Unknown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same VLAN.
C. Broadcast and multicast frames are retransmitted to ports that are configured on different VLAN.
D. Ports between switches should be configured in access mode so that VLANs can span across the ports.
Correct Answer: B
Each VLAN resides in its own broadcast domain, so incoming frames with unknown destinations are only transmitted to
ports that reside in the same VLAN as the incoming frame.

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QUESTION 1
Which two are features of IPv6? (Choose two.)
A. anycast
B. broadcast
C. multicast
D. podcast
E. allcast
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 2
Which option is the industry-standard protocol for EtherChannel?
A. Cisco Discovery Protocol
B. PAgp
C. LACP
D. DTP
Correct Answer: C
http://www.omnisecu.com/cisco-certified-network-associate-ccna/etherchannel-pagp-and-lacp-modes.php

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. The company uses EIGRP as the routing protocol.
What path will packets take from a host on 192.168.10.192/26 network to a host on the LAN attached to router R1?lead4pass 200-105 exam question q3

A. The path of the packets will be R3 to R2 to R1
B. The path of the packets will be R3 to R1 to R2
C. The path of the packets will be both R3 to R2 to R1 and R3 to R1
D. The path of the packets will be R3 to R1
Correct Answer: D
EIGRP Questions Looking at the output display above, the LAN attached to router R1 belongs to 192.168.20.64/26
subnet and learned this network via 192.168.20.9 which will be an IP address in 192.168.20.8/30 sub-network. This
means that packets destined for192.168.20.64 will be routed from R3 to R1.
Reference: http://www.9tut.net/icnd2/eigrp-questions http://www.orbitco-ccna-pastquestions.com/CCNA—EIGRP-Common-Question.php

 

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)lead4pass 200-105 exam question q4

A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Switch2 trunk ports must be
configured using the same encapsulation type.
Correct Answer: DF
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk815/technologies_configuration_eample09186a00800 949fd.shtml

 

QUESTION 5
Hotspot Questionlead4pass 200-105 exam question q5

After the network has converged, what type of messaging, if any, occurs between R3 and R4?
A. No messages are exchanged.
B. Hellos are sent every 10 seconds.
C. The full database from each router is sent every 30 seconds.
D. The routing table from each router is sent every 60 seconds.
Correct Answer: B
HELLO, messages are used to maintain adjacent neighbors so even when the network is converged, hellos are still
exchanged. On broadcast and point-to-point links, the default is 10 seconds, on NBMA the default is 30 seconds.

 

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
Which of these correctly describes the results of the port security violation of an unknown packet?lead4pass 200-105 exam question q6

A. port enabled; unknown packets dropped; no SNMP or Syslog messages
B. port enabled; unknown packets dropped; SNMP or Syslog messages
C. port disabled; no SNMP or Syslog messages
D. port disabled; SNMP or Syslog messages
Correct Answer: D
Configuring Port Security
http://packetlife.net/blog/2010/may/3/port-security/
We can view the default port security configuration with show port-security:

lead4pass 200-105 exam question q6-1

http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=1722561 Switchport Security Violations The second piece of
switch port port-security that must be understood is a security violation including what it is what causes it and what the
different violation modes that exist. A switch port violation occurs in one of two situations: When the maximum number of
secure MAC addresses have been reached (by default, the maximum number of secure MAC addresses per switch port is
limited to 1) An address learned or configured on one secure interface is seen on another secure interface in the same
VLAN The action that the device takes when one of these violations occurs can be configured: Protect–This mode
permits traffic from known MAC addresses to continue to be forwarded while dropping traffic from unknown MAC
addresses when over the allowed MAC address limit. When configured with this mode, no notification action is taken
when traffic is dropped. Restrict–This mode permits traffic from known MAC addresses to continue to be forwarded
while dropping traffic from unknown MAC addresses when over the allowed MAC address limit. When configured with
this mode, a syslog message is logged, a Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) trap is sent, and a violation counter is incremented when traffic is dropped. Shutdown–This mode is the default violation mode; when in this mode,
the switch will automatically force the switch port into an error-disabled (err-disable) state when a violation occurs. While
in this state, the switch port forwards no traffic. The switch port can be brought out of this error-disabled state by issuing
the errdisable recovery cause CLI command or by disabling and re-enabling the switch port. Shutdown VLAN–This
mode mimics the behavior of the shutdown mode but limits the error-disabled state the specific violating VLAN.

 

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. How should Switch1 and Switch2 be connected in order to allow full communication between all of
the hosts?lead4pass 200-105 exam question q7 lead4pass 200-105 exam question q7-1

A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D
E. Exhibit E
F. Exhibit F
Correct Answer: F

 

QUESTION 8
Which two benefits of implementing a full mesh wan topology are true? (Choose two)
A. redundancy
B. reduced jitter
C. increased latency
D. improved scalability
E. reliability
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting a switch, you executed the show interface port-channel 1 EtherChannel
command and it returned this output. Which information is provided by the Load value?lead4pass 200-105 exam question q9

A. the percentage of use of the link
B. the preference of the link
C. the session count of the link
D. the number source-destination pairs on the link
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
Which function does traffic shaping perform?
A. it buffers traffic without queuing it
B. it queues traffic without buffering it
C. it drops packets to control the output rate
D. it buffers and queues excess packets
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 11
What is the result of issuing the frame-relay map IP 192.168.1.2 202 broadcast command?
A. defines the destination IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202
B. defines the source IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202
C. defines the DLCI on which packets from the 192.168.1.2 IP address are received
D. defines the DLCI that is used for all packets that are sent to the 192.168.1.2 IP address
Correct Answer: D
frame-relay map IP 192.168.1.2 202 command statically defines a mapping between a network layer address and a
DLCI. The broadcast option allows multicast and broadcast packets to flow across the link. The command frame-relay
map IP
192.168.1.2 202 broadcast means to map the distal IP 192.168.1.2 202 to the local DLCI. When the “broadcast”
the keyword is included, it turns Frame Relay network as a broadcast network, which can forward broadcasts.
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/wan/command/reference/wan_f2.html#wp1012264lead4pass 200-105 exam question q11

 

 

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. A technician is testing connection problems in the internetwork. What is the problem indicated by
the output from HostA?lead4pass 200-105 exam question q12

A. The routing on Router2 is not functioning properly.
B. An access list is applied to an interface of Router3.
C. The Fa0/24 interface of Switch1 is down.
D. The gateway address of HostA is incorrect or not configured.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
Which two commands debug a PPPoE connection that has failed to establish? (Choose two.)
A. Debug PPP compression
B. Debug PPP negotiation
C. Debug dialer events
D. Debug PPP cbcp
E. Debug dialer packet
Correct Answer: BE

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Latest effective Microsoft MCSE-Microsoft System Center 70-703 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch) that contains a collection named
Restricted. Restricted contains only client computers that run Windows 10.
You need to ensure that only trusted executable files can run on the computers in the Restricted collection.
What should you do?
A. Deploy custom Client Device Settings.
B. Create a Windows Defender Application Control (WDAC) policy.
C. Modify the Default Client Settings.
D. Create a device compliancy policy.
Correct Answer: B
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/protect/deploy-use/use-device-guard-with-configuration-manager


QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your company has client computers that run either the 32-bit version of Windows 8 or the 64-bit version of Windows 10.
You need to install a line-of-business application to the computers. The 64-bit version of the application must be
installed on the Windows 10 computers.
Solution: Create one application that has two deployment types. Configure a requirement for each deployment type.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/canitpro/2013/06/02/step-by-step-managing-multiple-versions-of-the-same-
application-via-system-center-configuration-manager/


QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
You configure hybrid mobile device management (MDM).
You have a support technician named User1.
Your company purchases 300 Apple iPhones.
You need to ensure that User1 can enroll the iPhones.
Solution: From a web browser, you request an Enrollment Agent certificate from a certification authority (CA).
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/mdm/deploy-use/enroll-devices-with-device-enrollment-manager


QUESTION 4
You install the System Center Configuration Manager client on a computer.
When you check the Configuration Manager console, the computer does not appear in the console. Other computers
appear in the console.
You need to review the Configuration Manager logs for the computer.
What should you use?
A. the cmtrace.exe command
B. the Configuration Manager console
C. the statview.exe command
D. the Event Viewer console
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/plan-design/hierarchy/log-files


QUESTION 5
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
Your company has a main office and a branch office. The branch office has five users. Some users use laptops and
some users use desktop computers.
All the servers for the company are located in the main office. The branch office connects to the main office by using a
VPN over a DSL connection to the main office.
You need to minimize the bandwidth used to deploy updates to branch office clients over the VPN connection.
The solution must minimize costs.
What should you configure in the branch office?
A. a distribution point
B. a software update point
C. a secondary site server
D. a cloud-based distribution point
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/plan-design/hierarchy/design-a-hierarchy-of-sites


QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch). You deploy the first primary site
server to your organization. Discovery is not configured. You need to deploy the Configuration Manager client to five
client computers in a workgroup. Solution: You deploy the client by using a Group Policy software installation. Does this
meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your company has client computers that run either the 32-bit version of Windows 8 or the 64-bit version of Windows 10.
You need to install a line-of-business application to the computers. The 64-bit version of the application must be
installed on the Windows 10 computers.
Solution: Create one application that has one deployment type. Configure two requirements for the deployment type.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/canitpro/2013/06/02/step-by-step-managing-multiple-versions-of-the-same-
application-via-system-center-configuration-manager/


QUESTION 8
You upgrade a Configuration Manager site by using Updates and Servicing. You do not upgrade the Configuration
Manager client.
You need to pilot the upgrade of the Configuration Manager client on 10 percent of the computers.
What should you do?
A. Create a collection that contains the pilot clients. From the Hierarchy Settings Properties, configure the Client
Upgrade settings. Modify the setting for the production client.
B. Create a collection that contains the pilot clients. From the Hierarchy Settings Properties, configure the Client
Upgrade settings. Modify the setting for the pre-production client.
C. In the Site Maintenance settings, modify the Clear Install Flag maintenance task. From the Hierarchy Settings
Properties, configure the Client Upgrade settings. Modify the settings for the production client.
D. Create an Active Directory security group that contains the pilot clients. In the Site Maintenance
E. settings, modify the Update Application Available Targeting maintenance task.
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/clients/manage/upgrade/test-client-upgrades


QUESTION 9
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is
repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is
exactly the same in each question in this series.
Start of repeated scenario.
You work for a company named ADatum Corporation.
The ADatum network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com.
You have a partner company named Contoso, Ltd. The Contoso network contains an Active Directory domain named
adatum.com.
All the client computers at both companies run Windows 10.
Each company has a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
ADatum has sales and IT departments. ADatum has a collection for each department.
Contoso has research, marketing, and human resources (HR) departments. Contoso has a collection for each
department.
ADatum purchases Contoso.
You configure on-premises mobile device management (MDM) in adatum.com. You enroll the client computers in the IT
department into on-premises MDM.
You configure hybrid MDM in contoso.com.
End of repeated scenario.
You need to ensure that when the users at Contoso enroll into MDM, they accept the usage policy of Contoso.
What should you do?
A. From Microsoft Intune in the Microsoft Azure portal, click Device compliance and configure the Compliance policy
settings.
B. From the Configuration Manager console, open the Assets and Compliance workspace and configure the terms and
conditions.
C. From Microsoft Intune in the Microsoft Azure portal, click Device enrollment and configure the terms and conditions.
D. From the Configuration manager console, open the Assets and Compliance workspace and configure a compliance
policy.
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/mdm/deploy-use/terms-and-conditions


QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your company has client computers that run either the 32-bit version of Windows 8 or the 64-bit version of Windows 10.
You need to install a line-of-business application to the computers. The 64-bit version of the application must be
installed on the Windows 10 computers.
Solution: Create two applications that each has one deployment type. Configure a requirement for each deployment
type.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/canitpro/2013/06/02/step-by-step-managing-multiple-versions-of-the-same-
application-via-system-center-configuration-manager/


QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
You configure a cloud management gateway for Configuration Manager.
You have a client computer that is currently on the corporate network.
You need to force the computer to get the location of the cloud management gateway immediately.
Solution: You restart the Network Location Awareness service.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch) that you use to manage devices on
the corporate network.
You need to ensure that you can deploy software to Configuration Manager clients on the Internet.
What should you deploy?
A. a cloud-based distribution point in Microsoft Azure and the Microsoft Operations Management Suite (OMS)
connector
B. a management point and a service connection point in a perimeter network.
C. a cloud-based distribution point and a cloud management gateway in Microsoft Azure
D. a cloud-based distribution point in Microsoft Azure and a Microsoft Intune subscription
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/clients/manage/cmg/plan-cloud-management-gateway


QUESTION 13
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
You add the cloud management gateway connector point to the deployment Which site system role can be configured to
receive the traffic from the cloud management gateway?
A. Software update point
B. Asset Intelligence synchronization point
C. Service connection point
D. Distribution point
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 14
You have a device collection named Collection1.
Currently, you use an automated deployment rule (ADR) to deploy updates as quickly as possible to Collection1.
You need to ensure that the updates are installed during a predefined period of time. The solution must affect the
updates only.
What should you do?
A. From the Membership Rules tab of Collection1, schedule an incremental update of the collection.
B. From the Maintenance Windows tab of Collection1, create a new schedule that applies to all deployments.
C. From the Membership Rules tab of Collection1, schedule a full update of the collection.
D. From the Maintenance Windows tab of Collection1, create a new schedule that applies to software updates only.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh508762.aspx


QUESTION 15
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You deploy the first primary site server to your organization. Discovery is not configured.
You need to deploy the Configuration Manager client to five client computers in a workgroup.
Solution: You deploy the client by using a software deployment.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/clients/deploy/deploy-clients-to-windows-computers


QUESTION 16
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
You currently deploy all Windows updates by using Configuration Manager.
You pilot the deployment of Click-to-Run for Office 365 and discover that clients are downloading updates for Office 365
from the Internet.
You need to manage the updates for Click-to-Run for Office 365.
What should you do?
A. Create an automatic deployment rule (ADR) for software updates.
B. From Default Client Settings, click Software Updates and set Enable installation of Express installation files on clients
to Yes.
C. Create a deployment package for software updates.
D. From Default Client Settings, click Software Updates and set Enable management of the Office 365 Client Agent to
Yes.
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/servers/deploy/configure/deploy-and-manage-content


QUESTION 17
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
You need to ensure that the CIO of your company automatically receives the Antimalware overall status and history
report by email every week.
What should you do first?
A. Configure the SMTP Settings in Microsoft SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS).
B. Create a subscription in Configuration Manager.
C. Configure the execution account for Microsoft SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS).
D. Configure the Subscription Schedule in Configuration Manager.
Correct Answer: B
https://github.com/MicrosoftDocs/SCCMdocs/blob/master/sccm/core/servers/manage/operations-and-maintenance-for-
reporting.md


QUESTION 18
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch) that you use to manage devices on
the corporate network. You need to ensure that you can deploy software to Configuration Manager clients on the
Internet.
What should you deploy?
A. a management point on a perimeter network and a cloud management gateway in Microsoft Azure
B. a cloud-based distribution point in Microsoft Azure and the Microsoft Operations Management Suite (OMS)
connector
C. a distribution point and a management point on a perimeter network
D. a cloud management gateway and the Microsoft Azure Service for Cloud Management in Microsoft Azure
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/clients/manage/cmg/plan-cloud-management-gateway


QUESTION 19
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named adatum.com. All client computers run Windows 10.
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch) that contains a primary site named
S01. S01 contains the servers shown in the following table.lead4pass 70-703 exam question q19You plan to use Configuration Manager to deploy software updates.
You create a software update group named UpdateGroup1.
You need to ensure that you can deploy express installation files to the client computers.
What should you configure?
A. the Software update point Properties of Server1
B. the Distribution point Properties of Server2
C. the Software Update Point Component Properties of S01
D. the Service connection point Properties of Server3
Correct Answer: A
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/sum/deploy-use/manage-express-installation-files-for-windows-10-updates


QUESTION 20
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is
repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is
exactly the same in each question in this series.
Start of repeated scenario.
You work for a company named ADatum Corporation.
The ADatum network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com.
You have a partner company named Contoso, Ltd. The Contoso network contains an Active Directory domain named
adatum.com.
All the client computers at both companies run Windows 10.
Each company has a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
ADatum has sales and IT departments. ADatum has a collection for each department.
Contoso has research, marketing, and human resources (HR) departments. Contoso has a collection for each
department.
ADatum purchases Contoso.
You configure on-premises mobile device management (MDM) in adatum.com. You enroll the client computers in the IT
department into on-premises MDM.
You configure hybrid MDM in contoso.com.
End of repeated scenario.
You need to enroll the computers of the managers into MDM.
What are two possible ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Instruct the managers to run the Add-Computer cmdlet.
B. Distribute a provisioning package to the managers. Instruct the managers to run the provisioning package.
C. Instruct the managers to use the Settings app to connect to a work or school account.
D. Instruct the managers to modify the network ID from the System settings.
Correct Answer: BC
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/client-management/mdm/bulk-enrollment-using-windows-provisioning-tool
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/mdm/deploy-use/user-enroll-devices-on-premises-mdm


QUESTION 21
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
You configure hybrid mobile device management (MDM).
You have a support technician named User1.
Your company purchases 300 Apple iPhones.
You need to ensure that User1 can enroll the iPhones.
Solution: From the Microsoft Intune Subscription Properties, you add User1 as a Device Enrollment Manager.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/mdm/deploy-use/enroll-devices-with-device-enrollment-manager


QUESTION 22
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
Your company opens a new office. All the client computers in the new office use IPv6 addresses only. The IPv6 address
of one of the computers is 2001:3823:2c50:6a39:e976:b0eb:93f7:fb41.
You need to configure an IPv6 boundary in Configuration Manager for the new office.
What should you use to configure the boundary?
A. 2001:3823:2c50:6a39
B. ::93f7:fb41
C. 2001:3823::
D. e976:b0eb:93f7:fb41
Correct Answer: A
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/servers/deploy/configure/boundaries https://networklessons.com/ipv6/how-
to-find-ipv6-prefix/


QUESTION 23
You use System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch) to manage client computers that run Windows 7. You
have a Microsoft Application Visualization {App-V) package named Appl.
You need to deploy App1 to the computers by using Configuration Manager and ensure that the App1 runs.
What should you do first?
A. Install the App-V Sequencer on a reference computer.
B. From the Configuration Manager console, create an App-V virtual environment.
C. Deploy the App-V client to the computers.
D. Configure the Enable App-V Client setting by using a Group Policy object (GPO).
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 24
You deploy System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch) to manage desktop computers.
On the reporting services point, you discover that the following reports are missing:
Application Deployment – Historical
List of Malware Detected – Historical
General Software Inventory – Historical
General Hardware Inventory – Historical
Infrastructure Health Overview – Historical
Software Distribution Summary – Historical
Endpoint Protection and Software Update Compliance – Historical
You need to ensure that you can generate reports for long-term historical data.
What should you do first?
A. Create report subscriptions.
B. Install Microsoft SQL Server Report Builder.
C. Modify the properties of the reporting services point.
D. Add a Data Warehouse service point.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/servers/manage/data-warehouse


QUESTION 25
You configure a task sequence in System Center Configuration Manager.
You need to ensure that the support department can see the progress of the task sequence only.
What should you do?
A. Assign the db_datareader role to the users in the support department.
B. Create a monitoring query based on a task sequence.
C. Create a status message query.
D. Create a monitoring query that is limited to a collection.
Correct Answer: C
http://www.scconfigmgr.com/2014/02/27/monitor-osd-with-status-message-queries-in-configmgr-2012/


QUESTION 26
Your company has a main office and a branch office. The branch office connects to the main office by using a VPN over
DSL connection.
The branch office contains 500 client computers that run Windows 8.1. All the computers are on the same subnet.
You plan to upgrade the operating system on the computers by using Configuration Manager. During the upgrade
process, you will maintain the user state and the files.
You need to recommend a solution to reduce the amount of WAN traffic during the operating system deployments.
Which two components should you include in the recommendation? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. a state migration point
B. a distribution point
C. a management point
D. a cloud-based distribution point
E. a cloud management gateway
F. a fallback status point
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 27
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch). You use Configuration Manager to
deploy Windows 10.
You discover that newly deployed images of Windows 10 are missing several Windows 10 updates.
When you attempt to deploy the updates by using the Schedule Updates Wizard, the process fails, and you receive the
following error message: “Failed to apply one or more updates.”
Which log file should you view to get additional information about the failure?
A. ScanAgent.log
B. UpdatesHandler.log
C. OfflineServicingMgr.log
D. UpdatesDeployment.log
E. WUAHandler.log
Correct Answer: C
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh427342.aspx


QUESTION 28
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You deploy the first primary site server to your organization. Discovery is not configured.
You need to deploy the Configuration Manager client to five client computers in a workgroup.
Solution: You configure client push installations.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/clients/deploy/deploy-clients-to-windows-computers


QUESTION 29
You deploy the System Center Configuration Manager client to all domain-joined computers that run Windows.
From Resource Explorer, you view the hardware and software inventory information of the computers.
When you run the Hardware 07A ?USB Devices by Manufacturer report, the report does not produce any results.
What should you do to ensure that the report contains results?
A. Enable Asset Intelligence hardware inventory reporting classes.
B. Enable software metering on the clients.
C. Configure the Summarize Installed Software Data maintenance task.
D. Configure an Asset Intelligence synchronization point.
Correct Answer: A
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/clients/manage/asset-intelligence/introduction-to-asset-intelligence
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/clients/manage/asset-intelligence/configuring-asset-intelligence


QUESTION 30
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is
repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is
exactly the same in each question in this series.
Start of repeated scenario.
You work for a company named ADatum Corporation.
The ADatum network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com.
You have a partner company named Contoso, Ltd. The Contoso network contains an Active Directory domain named
adatum.com.
All the client computers at both companies run Windows 10.
Each company has a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
ADatum has sales and IT departments. ADatum has a collection for each department.
Contoso has research, marketing, and human resources (HR) departments. Contoso has a collection for each
department.
ADatum purchases Contoso.
You configure on-premises mobile device management (MDM) in adatum.com. You enroll the client computers in the IT
department into on-premises MDM.
You configure hybrid MDM in contoso.com.
End of repeated scenario.
You need to enroll the client computers in the sales department into MDM.
What should you do on the sales department computers?
A. Install the Configuration Manager client.
B. Run the Add-Computer cmdlet.
C. Use the Settings app to connect the computers to a work or school account.
D. Install the Microsoft Intune software client.
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/mdm/deploy-use/user-enroll-devices-on-premises-mdm

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Latest effective Cisco Business Architecture Analyst 810-440 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1

During a business lead engagement, which role of the aspiring Cisco Business Architect is true? 

A. to be more business focused 

B. dedicated to running proof of value 

C. to be more technology focused 

D. to promote the business lead approach with other line of business 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 2

Which element delivers a long-term plan for how the business will achieve its target state and goals? 

A. Business priority 

B. Business outcome 

C. Business strategy 

D. Business requirement 

E. Business solution 

Correct Answer: C 

 

QUESTION 3

Which option is the main benefit of the Internet of Everything? 

A. makes better use of legacy investments 

B. brings improvements to businesses and people 

C. discrete focus on top industries health and finance 

D. compensates for errors in business process design 

Correct Answer: B 

 

QUESTION 4

Which two functions of the technology specialists in a Cisco Business Architecture engagement are true? (Choose

two.) 

A. Support the engagement that is led by the business architect. 

B. Owen the customer relationship. 

C. Define business capabilities. 

D. Focus on specific technical solutions 

Correct Answer: AD 

The Technology Specialists are focused on technology and in some situations they are needed to support the

engagement that the Cisco Business Architect leads. Outside of those engagements, the Technology Specialists may

be the people that are technically involved with the business stakeholders. The Technology Specialists must be aware

of the Cisco Business Architect skills and when and how they are applied. Being aware of the skills allows the

Technology Specialists to understand their role in the context of a business-led approach. In the case where the Cisco

Business Architect is responsible for the account the Technology Specialists will have a different role. 

 

QUESTION 5lead4pass 810-440 exam question q5Which description of the rote of the account manager is true?
A. The account manager is responsible for technology selection to sell into the account.
B. The account manager leads a business-led approach selecting the right technology to sell.
C. The account manager leads the customer engagement throughout the business-led approach.
D. The account manager is directly responsible for the customer relationship.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 6
Which are two characteristics of laissez-faire leadership styles? (Choose two.)
A. The leader has minimal involvement.
B. A trained and qualified team member leads efforts.
C. The leader provides rewards and incentives.
D. It involves a high level of communication
E. It is intended for team members who require close supervision.
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 7
Which two options have a positive impact on costs from the direct benefits provided by Cloud services and solutions?
(Choose two) A. Enabling rapid growth to new markets and geographies
B. Managing technology obsolescence
C. Managing technology innovation
D. Saving OpEx shifting to predicable CapEx
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 8
Which activity s performed by the Cisco business architect?
A. Develop low-level designs.
B. Determine the required business capabilities
C. Create a product build of materials
D. Provide product-specific technical support
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
Which benefit does the customer receive from a Cisco Business Architecture engagement?
A. It provides Cisco specific technology solutions.
B. It provides in-depth post-sales support.
C. It provides product updates proactively.
D. It provides help to solve business challenges.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 10
Which two options comprise information you need to achieve a successful outcome-based sales? (Choose two.)
A. How stakeholders receive information and what information they want to receive.
B. What information is communicated to stakeholders in a timely fashion.
C. The stakeholder influencers, decision makers,and participating individuals throughout the process.
D. The degree of affinity stakeholders have related to risk.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 11
Who is responsible for leading a business architecture engagement with the customer?
A. Sales leadership
B. Services team
C. Account team (account manager, engineer)
D. Business architect
E. Technology specialists
Correct Answer: D
There are many variations in the teams that engage with customers. These teams are composed on individuals from
team leadership, the account team, and services team. In the context of business architecture, the Cisco Business
Architect is the primary role that focuses on engaging with the customer from a business perspective. Individuals who
are aspiring to become a Cisco Business Architect are also considered in these roles.
Aspiring Cisco Business Architects will be more technology- than business-focused. Each role has various levels of
responsibilities and different levels of engagement throughout the business-led approach. For example, the level of
active engagement for Account Manager is part of their role when working with the Cisco Business Architect. The
Account Manager will participate in many of the activities during a business-led approach. Their level of involvement will
vary while working with the Cisco Business Architect. Take into consideration that the roles may differ depending on the
organization. For example, the Services Team may be part of the Account Team.lead4pass 810-440 exam question q11Roles throughout the business architecture approach:
The Cisco Business Architect leads the customer engagement throughout the business-led approach. They determine
when and where during the engagement to use available resources. The Cisco Business Architect can rely on the
Account Manager, Specialist System Engineers, and other roles to provide varying levels of support during the
engagement. The Cisco Business Architect can act as a mentor during the engagement to help the aspiring Cisco
Business Architect acquire further knowledge, skills, and experience.
The Account Manager is directly responsible for the customer relationship. They can benefit from many aspects of the
skills that are required for Cisco Business Architect. The System Engineer can be considered as the apprentice
architect. While there is much they need to aware of, they must be careful of how they apply their knowledge. In some
situations, the Cisco Business Architect is responsible for the account. This situation is manifested mainly in the Cisco
Customer Solution Architect (CSA) role. This situation is similar to the System Engineer, who has the awareness of the
Cisco Business Architect skills. Knowing when and how they are applied allows the Account Manager to understand
their role in the context of a business-led approach.
The Technology Specialists are focused on technology and in some situations they are needed to support the
engagement that the Cisco Business Architect leads. Outside of those engagements, the Technology Specialists may
be the people that are technically involved with the business stakeholders. The Technology Specialists must be aware
of the Cisco Business Architect skills and when and how they are applied. Being aware of the skills allows the
Technology Specialists to understand their role in the context of a business-led approach. In the case where the Cisco
Business Architect is responsible for the account the Technology Specialists will have a different role.
These roles do not depict System Engineering leadership, Sales Leadership, or Services. System Engineering
Leadership requires awareness, understanding of the maturity levels, engagement type, and the ability to support the
roles throughout the business-led approach.


QUESTION 12
Which two options are benefits of Cisco\\’s overall portfolio with respect to the set of buyers? (Choose two.)
A. increased business performance
B. enhanced accountability
C. real-time business intelligence
D. higher service availability
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 13
Which two benefits of using a Cisco Business Architecture methodology are true?
A. It determines the low-level design for network infrastructure.
B. It provides project management of a complex technology deployment
C. It enhances the way Cisco does business with its customers
D. It supports the client IT department to define the technology architecture.
E. It drives larger and more profitable results for customers, Cisco and partners.
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 14
Which two skill pillars are part of Cisco Business Architecture?
A. Advanced consulting
B. Digitization
C. Business acumen
D. Strategic finance
E. Global solutions
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 15
Which activity occurs in the loyalty phase of the customer relationship lifecycle?
A. Gain credibility with the customer to establish tem as an advocate.
B. Understand the customer and their critical needs.
C. Continue to effectively develop your relationship with the customer.
D. Establish yourself as a trusted advisor.
Correct Answer: D
The five stages are generic in nature. However, they generally apply to managing customer relationships.
Reach: Establish credibility with the prospective customer. The credibility is established for both yourself and by
extension your organization as a valued business partner.
Acquisition: Establish your status as a valued business partner. This is done by understand the customer and their
critical business needs.
Develop: Continue to effectively increase the maturity of your relationship with the customer. This is accomplished by
continually gaining a more thorough understanding of critical business needs.
Retention: Demonstrate repeated value to the customer. This is accomplished by providing opportunities to measure
progress against stated targets to demonstrate success.
Loyalty: Establish yourself as a trusted advisor and the customer as an advocate. This can be accomplished by
adopting a consultative-led approach with a focus on the solving complex business challenges for the customer.


QUESTION 16
Which two benefits are provided by the Cisco Business architecture approach?
A. It provides high degree of interaction with business leaders and stakeholders.
B. It enhances post-sales technical support capabilities.
C. It allows customers to achieve measurable business value
D. It allows the sale of technology-specific products and software.
E. It enables the discussion of data center technologies with the customer
Correct Answer: AC
Benefits of a Business Architecture Approach
A business architecture approach is centered on creating value for the customer and their business. The Cisco
Business Architect must effectively engage with the customer to gain an understanding of their business. This
engagement requires credibility and rapport with business leaders and relevant stakeholders. The Cisco Business
Architect works with the customer to co-operatively identify and create the business capabilities and solutions. This
activity helps the customer realize their desired business state. Adopting a business architecture approach requires a
behavioral change in the way the Cisco Business Architect engages with the customer.
The benefits of adopting the business architecture approach addresses what is in it for the customer and what is in it for
the Cisco Business Architect. The organization that the Cisco Business Architect is associated with also realizes
benefits from a business architecture approach.lead4pass 810-440 exam question q16What is in it for the customer?
Ensures that business capabilities and business solutions are aligned with business priorities and long-term business
strategy
Captures and realizes business value from defined business outcomes Perceives Cisco as a strategic partner for
solving business challenges What is in it for the Cisco Business Architect? Builds credibility and rapport for the Cisco
Business Architect and Cisco Establishes a long-term relationship with the customer as a trusted advisor Ensures Cisco
relevancy to business capabilities and business solutions What is in it for the business that the Business Architect is
associated with? Preferred partner and vendor status Longer-term customer engagement and relationship Competitive
advantage Cross-selling and upselling opportunities


QUESTION 17
Which component of a business strategy must be measurable?
A. environment
B. vision
C. goals
D. mission
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 18
Which tool is sued to gain and leverage knowledge of a business?
A. Cisco commerce workspace
B. Business model canvas
C. solution maturity index
D. Total cost of ownership
Correct Answer: B
The BMC consists of nine building blocks for creating a business model. Initially, the Cisco Business Architect uses the
BMC to create an unrefined view of the business. Creating an unrefined view of the business entails defining the
business model from the perspective of the Cisco Business Architect. A refined business model is created by using the
additional input and knowledge that is provided by interacting with the customer. There is a recommended order for
working through the building blocks. The right side of the BMC is “Emotional” and the left side is “Logical.”
It is extremely important to understand that the value of the BMC as tool allows a Cisco Business Architect to gain and
leverage their knowledge of the business. The results of the BMC are used by the Cisco Business Architect to
understand the business and generally not intended to be shared with stakeholders.
A business may also have more than one business model.


QUESTION 19
You are a systems engineer and are trying to build credibility and rapport with senior leadership within your customer.
Which method is the best way to demonstrate these qualities?
A. Understand the current state of their network infrastructure so that you can advise them how the latest technology
developments will be incorporated into a refresh of the infrastructure.
B. Understand what business drivers are impacting their market space.
C. Understand the current state of their network infrastructure so that you can describe a plan to refresh the
infrastructure.
D. Provide the customer with the latest technology developments so that they understand how you can help them.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 20
Which two resources can be used to determine the characteristics of a customer\\’s persona?
A. Industry peers
B. Social media
C. Past employers
D. Human resources
E. Annual reports
Correct Answer: BE
You can construct personas from publicly available information such as LinkedIn, annual reports, and social media.
Additional marketing material may also be available from which you can derive information about personas.


QUESTION 21
Which benefit of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library is true?
A. predicable and consistent processes
B. increased transparency of accountability and informed delegation of authority
C. obtain ISO 9001 compliance
D. value creation through monitoring, measuring, evaluation, and feedback
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 22
You are a systems engineer engaging with your customer\\’s Enterprise Architecture team. Which type of discussions
best describes what you should expect From an Enterprise Architecture practice?
A. discussions related to the organization of a system that is composed of products and its benefits, where they are
used in the network, and how to evolve the current state to the future state
B. discussions related to transforming the current state to a future state using products and their benefits to describe a
business outcome
C. discussions related to the organization of a system that is composed of its components, their relationships to each
other, and the principles that govern its design and evolution
D. discussion related to the improvement of business processes
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 23
Which value does a customer realize from the Cisco Business Architecture approach?
A. Capture and realize business value from product feature demonstrations.
B. Ensures Cisco relevancy to business capabilities and business solutions.
C. Capture and realize business value from defined business outcomes.
D. Ensures that the customer is up to date with all the latest product capabilities-
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 24
Which two standards are examples of an architectural framework?
A. ITIL
B. TOGAF
C. ISO 9001
D. Zachman
E. ISO2701
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 25
Which two options are characteristics of autocratic leadership styles? (Choose two.)
A. It is intended for team members who require close supervision.
B. The leader and team members set goals.
C. The leader motivates team members through visibility.
D. The leader makes unilateral decisions.
E. The leader has minimal involvement.
Correct Answer: ADlead4pass 810-440 exam question q25

 

QUESTION 26
Which description of the channel building block in the business model canvas is true?
A. key activities that support the value proposition
B. value that the business delivers to its customers
C. how the business reaches its customers
D. for whom is the business creating value
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 27
Which tool is leveraged by Cisco business architects for describing, visualizing, assessing, and changing business
models?
A. business model visualization.
B. business model framework
C. business model agenda
D. business model canvas
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 28
Which value does Cisco Business Architecture provide to the account team?
A. Establish preferred partner and vendor status.
B. Provide product updates proactively.
C. Increase post-sales support opportunities.
D. Focus on discussing technical solutions
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 29
Which phase of the Cisco Business Architecture aligns to the Business Architecture domain of the open group
architecture framework?
A. Customer commit
B. Deploy and measure
C. Research and analyze
D. Develop and verify
E. Customer knowledge
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 30
Which purpose of the Cisco Business Architecture maturity levels is true?
A. It is used to determine the technology adoption in a customer environment.
B. It is used to determine the customer financial maturity for investment.
C. It is used to determine customer readiness for engagement.
D. It is used to determine Cisco readiness against the competition.
Correct Answer: C
Maturity Levels: The Business and Cisco
In the context of Cisco Business Architecture, there are four business maturity levels that determine the level of
engagement between Cisco, the Cisco Business Architect, and the customer. The four maturity levels are Technology
Specific, Technology Architecture, Business Solutions, and Business Transformation. Businesses have different
maturity levels and each maturity level has a specific type of engagement. Some companies are focused on buying
products, while some are in transition, or others are operating with a business-first approach. Therefore, it is important
to understand the maturity of the customer as it pertains to a business-led mentality. Maturity levels are used to
determine where a customer is in the business-led approach.lead4pass 810-440 exam question q30Maturity levels are used to determine the maturity of both the customer and Cisco teams. The maturity levels help
gauge if, when, and how to engage with a business-led approach. They also help to determine if Cisco should continue
with the traditional technology-led approach.
Maturity levels determine how the customers see Cisco in this context and if the customer and Cisco are aligned.
Understanding the maturity level helps to determine the required resources, support, and the maturity level of the
relationship between Cisco and the customer. Maturity levels help to determine the degree of Cisco relevancy for
providing the appropriate level of support for the customer. Maturity levels also help to determine if Cisco should be
engaged.
Cisco Business Architects operate at the Business Solutions and Business Transformation maturity levels. However, an
effective business-led approach should drive business transformation at the Business Transformation maturity level.
Account System Engineers typically operate in the levels of Technology Specific and Technology Architecture maturity
levels. Specialists typically operate at the Technology Specific maturity level.

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