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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP Service Provider
Exam Name: Deploying Cisco Service Provider Network Routing (SPROUTE)
Exam Code: 642-883
Total Questions: 174 Q&As
642-883 dumps
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Cisco CCNP Service Provider 642-883 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
In comparing IS-IS with OSPF, a Level-1-2 IS-IS router is similar to which kind of OSPF router?
A. ASBR on a normal OSPF area
B. ASBR on NSSA
C. ABR on totally stubby OSPF area
D. ABR on stubby OSPF area
E. ABR on a normal OSPF area
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Refer to the topology diagram in the exhibit.
642-883 dumps
Which IS-IS feature could be implemented so that the return path for the packets from router Y in area 49.00AA to router X in area 49.00BB will use the more optimal path?
A. Enable route leaking to pass Level 2 information into the Level 1 routers.
B. Change the area 49.00AA type from a stub area to a regular area.
C. Change the IS-IS administrative distance on router Y in area 49.00AA.
D. Change the IS-IS metric type from narrow to wide on all IS-IS routers.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
642-883 dumps
Which two configuration options can be used to optimize the IS-IS network scenario? (Choose two.)
A. Change the R1 and R2 IS type to Level 2.
B. Change the R1 and R2 IS type to Level 1.
C. Change the gi0/0 interface IS-IS circuit type on R1 and R2 to Level 2 only.
D. Change the gi0/1 interface IS-IS circuit type on R1and R2 to Level 1.
E. Change the IS type for all the routers to Level-1-2.
F. Change the IS-IS network type for all the routers to point-to-point.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
The Cisco IOS XE Software summary-address router IS-IS configuration command can be used to send a summarized route into which IS-IS hierarchy?
A. Level 1 only
B. Level 2 only
C. Level-1-2 only
D. Level 1 or Level 2 or Level-1-2
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Refer to the Cisco IOS XE IS-IS configuration exhibit.
642-883 dumps
What are two problems with the configuration that are causing the IPv4, or the IPv6, or the IPv4 and IPv6 IS-IS operations to fail? (Choose two.)
A. The configuration is missing the interface gi0/0 and interface gi0/0 commands under router isis 1.
B. The configuration is missing the address-family ipv4 unicast and address-family ipv6 unicast commands under router isis 1.
C. IPv6 unicast routing has not been enabled globally on the Cisco IOS XE router.
D. The gi0/0 and gi0/1 interfaces are not participating in the router isis 1 routing instance.
E. Multitopology IS-IS must be enabled to support both IPv4 and IPv6.
F. Another router isis instance must be enabled to support IPv6.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 6
In which network environment is IS-IS adjacency check important?
A. in a multitopology environment where there are different instances of IS-IS running on the same router
B. in an IPv4/IPv6 environment and running single-topology IS-IS
C. when a level L1/L2 IS-IS router is neighboring with a Level 1 only or Level 2 only router
D. when IS-IS neighbors are in an NBMA environment like over Frame Relay
E. when IS-IS neighbors are in a broadcast environment like an Ethernet LAN
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Refer to the IS-IS configuration exhibit.
642-883 dumps
This is the typical IS-IS configuration of the routers in an AS using IS-IS as the IGP. This AS is in the transition phase of integrating IPv6 into the network. 642-883 dumps During this transition phase, some of the routers within the AS might be running IPv4 only, some might be running IPv6 only, and others might be running both IPv4 and IPv6. To avoid any black holes for the IPv6 traffic, which configuration change can be made?
A. Disable IS-IS adjacency checks.
B. Enable IPv6 adjacency over IPv4 IS-IS peering.
C. Enable multi-topology IS-IS.
D. Disable the IPv4 unicast address-family.
E. Enable IS-IS wide metric to support the single-topology mode.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
When implementing OSPF, which type of networks require DR/BDR election?
A. point-to-point networks
B. mutli-access broadcast networks
C. non-broadcast multi-access networks (Hub and Spoke Frame Relay) using point-to-multipoint OSPF network type
D. All networks type
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
The S bit in the MPLS header is used for what purpose?
A. To indicate the bottom level in the label stack
B. To indicate if LDP is sync to the IGP
C. To indicate if LDP is sync to the IGP
D. To indicate the status of the LSP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What are two purposes of the BGP scan-time command? (Choose two.)
A. to tune the BGP process which walks the BGP table and confirms the reachability of next hops
B. to allow faster detection of downed BGP peers
C. to improve BGP convergence time
D. to tune the BGP update interval
E. to decrease the effects of unstable routes by increasing the route suppression time
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 11
When using the show bgp ipv6 unicast summary command to verify the IPv6 BGP session status with the IPv6 BGP peers, you noticed the “St/PfxRcd” status for one of the IPv6 BGP peers is in the “Active” state. What does the “Active” state indicate?
A. The IPv6 BGP session has been established with the IPv6 BGP peer.
B. The router is in the process of sending BGP routing updates to the IPv6 BGP peer.
C. The router is in the process of establishing the IPv6 BGP session with the IPv6 BGP peer.
D. The router is exchanging BGP notification messages with its IPv6 BGP peer.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which three BGP configuration groupings are supported on Cisco IOS XR Software? (Choose three.)
A. peer-group
B. af-group
C. bgp-group
D. session-group
E. neighbor-group
F. as-group
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 13
Which AS path access list is used by a multihomed customer to only announce their own address space to their service providers to prevent the multihomed customer from becoming a transit AS?
A. ip as-path access-list permit.*
B. ip as-path access-list permit^$
C. ip as-path access-list permit _$
D. ip as-path access-list permit _^
E. ip as-path access-list permit local-asip as-path access-list deny *
F. ip as-path access-list deny.*ip as-path access-list permit *
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
What is recursive lookup in BGP and how does it work?
A. The router looks up the EBGP route and the EBGP next hop to reach a destination in the remote AS.
Then the router looks up the route to reach the EBGP next hop using the IBGP.
B. The router looks up the IBGP route and the IBGP next hop to reach a destination in the remote AS.
Then the router looks up the route to reach the IBGP next hop using the EBGP.
C. The router looks up the BGP route and the BGP next hop to reach a destination in the remote AS.
Then the router looks up the route to reach the BGP next hop using the IGP.
D. The router looks up the route and the next hop to reach a destination in the remote AS using the IGP. Then the router looks up the route to reach the next hop using BGP.
E. The router perform three routing lookups to determine the route to reach a destination in the remote AS. The first lookup is done using EBGP, the second lookup is done using IBGP, and the third lookup is done using the IGP.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which reserved AS number or range of numbers is used for backward compatibility between old BGP peers using 16-bit AS number and new BGP peers using 32-bit AS number?
A. AS 65001 to 65535
B. AS 65512 to 65535
C. AS 12345
D. AS 23456
E. AS 64001
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Which BGP attribute is a set of generic tags that can be used to signal various routing policies between BGP routers?
A. AS path
B. MED
C. weight
D. communities
E. route tags
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which of the following is a characteristic of dual-multihomed connectivity between an enterprise network and the service provider network or networks? 642-883 dumps
A. An enterprise network that is connected to two or more different service providers with two or more links per service provider and using BGP to exchange routing updates with the service providers.
B. Each service provider announces a default route on each of the links that connect to the customer with a different metric.
C. An enterprise network announces a default route to each service provider.
D. Load balancing can be achieved using the maximum-paths command.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
What are two ways to advertise networks into BGP? (Choose two.)
A. using the neighbor router BGP command
B. using a route policy in Cisco IOS XR Software or using a route map in Cisco IOS Software or Cisco IOS XE Software
C. using route redistribution into BGP
D. using the network router BGP command
E. enabling an interface to run BGP using the interface router BGP command
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 19
Refer to the network diagram in the exhibit.
642-883 dumps
Assuming the IBGP session within AS 64500 was established using the loopback 0 interface between the two routers, by default, what will be the next hop of the routes from AS 64501 when the routes appear on the router running IBGP only in AS 64500?
A. 192.168.101.11
B. 192.168.101.10
C. 10.1.1.1
D. 10.0.1.1
E. 10.1.10.1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
When configuring BGP on Cisco IOS XR Software, which address-family is enabled by default?
A. IPv4 unicast
B. IPv6 unicast
C. VPNv4
D. IPv4 unicast and IPv6 unicast
E. IPv4 unicast and IPv6 unicast and VPNv4
F. No address-family is enabled by default.
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 21
An engineer is using configuration blocks to build policy-based routing. All other traffic must not be affected and the policy must be applied to GigabitEthernet1/0. Which block correctly implements traffic that is destined for 10.10.10.0/24 using a next hop of 192.168.55.1?
A. access-list 110 permit ip any 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.255 route-map PBR permit 10
match ip address 110
set next-hop 192.168.55.1
interface GigabitEthernet1/0
ip policy route-map PBR
B. access-list 110 permit ip any 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.255 route-map PBR permit 10
match ip address 110
set next-hop 192.168.55.1
route-map PBR permit 20
interface GigabitEthernet1/0
ip policy route-map PBR
C. access-list 110 permit ip any 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.0 route-map PBR permit 10
match ip address 110
set next-hop 192.168.55.1
interface GigabitEthernet1/0
ip policy route-map PBR
D. access-list 110 permit ip any 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.0 route-map PBR permit 10
match ip address 110
set next-hop 192.168.55.1
route-map PBR permit 20
interface GigabitEthernet1/0
ip policy route-map PBR
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
An engineer is working on routers within AS 100. Which regular expression can be used in an AS path access list to match locally originated routes from AS 100?
A. ^100$
B. ^$
C. _100$
D. ^[0-9]*$
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Which option is a mechanism that can be implemented between two eBGP peers to communicate the routes each peer needs from the other?
A. ORF
B. ACL
C. prefix list
D. route map
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
A Cisco IOS XR router is a member in OSPF 1 and EIGRP 100 domains, and needs to redistribute OSPF learned routes into EIGRP. Which configuration achieves this goal?
A. router eigrp 100
address-family ipv4
redistribute ospf 1
B. router eigrp 100
redistribute ospf 1 route-policy OS_INTO_EIG
route-policy OS_INTO_EIG set eigrp-metric 100 10 255 1 155
C. router eigrp 100
address-family ipv4
redistribute ospf 1 route-policy OS_INTO_EIG
route-policy OS_INTO_EIG set eigrp-metric 100 10 255 1 155
D. router eigrp 100
default-metric 100 1 255 1 1500
redistribute ospf 1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
Which value must be configured when redistributing OSPFv2 into RIP?
A. metric
B. bandwidth
C. delay
D. MTU
E. reliability
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which option can a network specialist use to configure connected route redistribution inside VRF “TEST” on Cisco IOS XR and allow only the prefix 10.10.10.0/24?
A. route-policy ALLOW-CONN
if destination in PERMIT_PREFIX then
pass
else
drop
end-policy
prefix-set PERMIT_PREFIX
10.10.10.0/24
end-set
router bgp 65000
vrf TEST
rd 65000:10000
address-family ipv4 unicast
redistribute connected route-policy ALLOW-CONN
B. route-policy ALLOW-CONN
if source in PERMIT_PREFIX then
pass
else
drop
end-policy
prefix-set PERMIT_PREFIX
10.10.10.0/24
end-set
router bgp 65000
vrf TEST
rd 65000:10000
address-family ipv4 unicast
redistribute connected route-policy ALLOW-CONN
C. route-policy ALLOW-CONN
if protocol is connected and source in PERMIT_PREFIX then pass
else
drop
end-policy
prefix-set PERMIT_PREFIX
10.10.10.0/24
end-set
router bgp 65000
vrf TEST
rd 65000:10000
address-family ipv4 unicast
redistribute connected route-policy ALLOW-CONN”
D. route-policy ALLOW-CONN
if route-type is local and destination in PERMIT_PREFIX then pass
else
drop
end-policy
prefix-set PERMIT_PREFIX
10.10.10.0/24
end-set
router bgp 65000
vrf TEST
rd 65000:10000
address-family ipv4 unicast
redistribute connected route-policy ALLOW-CONN
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
A static default route has been inserted into the configuration of a Cisco IOS XE router. Which option redistributes the route into the local OSPF process?
A. router ospf 1
redistribute static subnets
B. router ospf 1
redistribute static
C. router ospf 1
redistribute static subnets
default-information originate always
D. router ospf 1
network 0.0.0.0 area 0
redistribute static subnets
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit.
642-883 dumps
Routers B and C in transit AS 200 are the exit points toward AS 100 and AS 300. Router B is running Cisco IOS XR and Router C IOS XE. Internally, AS 200 runs OPSF only for internal routing. 642-883 dumps Which two methods can an engineer use to ensure proper reachability between AS 100 and AS 300 for the needed routes? (Choose two.)
A. Router B:
router ospf 200
redistribute bgp 200 tag 20
router bgp 200
address-family ipv4 unicast
redistribute ospf 200 metric-type 2
B. Router B:
router ospf 200
redistribute bgp 200
router bgp 200
address-family ipv4 unicast
redistribute ospf 200
C. Router C:
router ospf 200
redistribute bgp 200 metric-type 1 subnets tag 200 router bgp 200
address-family ipv4
redistribute ospf 200
D. Router C:
router ospf 200
redistribute bgp 200 metric-type 1 subnets tag 200 router bgp 200
address-family ipv4
redistribute ospf 200 match external 2
E. Router C:
router ospf 200
redistribute bgp 200 metric-type 1 subnets tag 200 router bgp 200
address-family ipv4
redistribute ospf 200 route-map match-tag match external route-map match-tag deny 10 match tag 200
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 29
Which two methods implement high availability in OSPF on Cisco IOS XR? (Choose two.)
A. NSF
B. NSR
C. BFD
D. fast hellos
E. sham-links
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 30
Nonstop Forwarding works with the Stateful Switchover feature in Cisco IOS and IOS XR software. Which three restrictions for OSPF are true? (Choose three.)
A. OSPF NSF for virtual links is not supported.
B. OSPF NSF for virtual links is supported.
C. OSPF NSF for sham links is not supported.
D. OSPF NSF for sham links is supported.
E. OSPF NSF supports NSF/SSO for IPv6 traffic only.
F. OSPF NSF supports NSF/SSO for IPv4 traffic only.
Correct Answer: ACF

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP Wireless
Exam Name: Implementing Advanced Cisco Unified Wireless Security (IAUWS) v2.0
Exam Code: 642-737
Total Questions: 207 Q&As
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Cisco CCNP Wireless 642-737 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
A lobby ambassador is creating guest access accounts. At which two locations can the accounts be stored? (Choose two.)
A. NAC guest server
B. Active directory
C. WLAN controller
D. WCS
E. ACS
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
An engineer is configuring a Cisco AnyConnect client. What module is selected to allow for reporting and diagnostics?
A. NAM
B. Posture
C. Telemetry
D. VPN
E. DART
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 3
MFP is enabled globally on a WLAN with default settings on a single controller wireless network. Older client devices are disconnected from the network during a deauthentication attack. What is the cause of this issue?
A. The client devices do not support CCXv5.
B. The client devices do not support WPA.
C. The NTP server is not configured on the controller.
D. The MFP on the WLAN is set to optional.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What does the eping mobility_peer_IP_address command do?
A. It tests EoIP connectivity via port 97 though the management interface.
B. It tests EoIP connectivity via port 97 though the AP manager interface.
C. It tests UDP connectivity via port 16666 through the management interface.
D. It tests UDP connectivity via port 16666 through the AP manager interface.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
When a supplicant and AAA server are configured to use PEAP, which mechanism is used by the client to authenticate the AAA server in Phase One?
A. PMK
B. shared secret keys
C. digital certificate
D. PAC
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
An engineer needs to block SSH traffic going to the WLC, which does not originate on the management interface. Where should the ACL be applied to accomplish this with the least configuration?
A. CPU
B. Management interface
C. WLAN interfaces
D. SSID
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
An engineer is troubleshooting a FlexConnect authentication to a local RADIUS server. 642-737 dumps What debug command can discover the issue on the controller?
A. debug lwapp reap
B. debug dot11 mgmtmsg
C. debug hreapaaa
D. debug lwapp reap mgmt
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
An engineer is configuring NAC on a Wireless LAN Controller. What two CLI commands are required to create NAC out-of-band integration for SSID Cisco? (Choose two.)
A. config interface quarantine vlan Cisco 10
B. config interface quarantine vlan Cisco 0
C. config wlan nac enable Cisco
D. config guest-lan nac enable Cisco
E. config wlan apgroup nac wlan Cisco
F. config wlan apgroup nac guest-lan Cisco
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
The Cisco WLC v7.0 is configured for external 802.1X and EAP by using the WPA2 association of wireless clients when using the Cisco Secure ACS v4.2. Which two items are required in the Cisco Secure ACS network configuration to enable correct AAA? (Choose two.)
A. AP IP address
B. WLC virtual IP address
C. WLC management IP address
D. WLC AP management IP address
E. hostname matching the WLC case-sensitive name
F. authentication using RADIUS
G. authentication using TACACS+
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 10
An engineer has narrowed down an authentication issue to the client laptop. What three items should be verified for EAP-TLS authentication? (Choose three.)
A. The user account is the same in the certificate.
B. The Subject Key Identifier is configured correctly.
C. The client certificate is formatted as X.509 version 3.
D. Validate server certificate is disabled.
E. The supplicant is configured correctly.
F. The client certificate has a valid expiration date.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 11
An engineer is going to enable EAP on a new WLAN and is ensuring he has the necessary components. What component uses EAP and 802.1x to pass user authentication to the authenticator?
A. AP
B. Controller
C. Supplicant
D. AAA Server
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.
642-737 dumps
Why is the client failing to authenticate with the AAA server?
A. excessive number of authentication attempts for username
B. incorrect read/write credentials for username
C. incorrect IP address being sent by client
D. incorrect authentication for username
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
A Cisco WLC v7.0 has been only initially configured through the console setup CLI wizard. A new AP has just finished association with the controller. What is the default mode of remote access to the AP?
A. HTTPS
B. HTTP
C. SSH
D. Telnet
E. access is disabled
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 14
Which two firewall protocol port(s) need open access for secure management access to an anchor WLC for guest access? (Choose two.)
A. TCP 22
B. TCP 23
C. TCP 80
D. TCP 8080
E. TCP 443
F. UDP 123
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 15
Which option verifies that a wireless client has authenticated to a WLAN when performing NAC using the Cisco NAC Appliance Manager and Server?
A. Cisco CAM OOB Management > Devices > Discovered Clients
B. Cisco CAS OOB Management > Devices > Discovered Clients
C. Cisco CAM Monitor > View Online Users
D. Cisco CAS Monitor > View Online Users
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which two fast roaming algorithms will allow a WLAN client to roam to a new AP and re- establish a new session key without a full reauthentication of the WLAN client? (Choose two.)
A. PMK
B. PTK
C. MIC
D. GTK
E. CKM
F. PKC
Correct Answer: EF

QUESTION 17
Customer wants to configure Wireless client authentication using digtial certificates with PKI. What happens after the signer encrypts the hash with the private key of the signer during the certification signature process?
A. The verifier obtains the public key of the signer.
B. The encrypted hash is appended to the document as the signature.
C. The verifier decrypts the signature of the signer using the public key.
D. The verifier makes a hash of the received document and compares it to the decrypted signature hash.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
What is the default authentication protocol that is used for web authentication?
A. MD5-CHAP
B. CHAP
C. PAP
D. LEAP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which option verifies that a wireless client has associated but is not yet authenticated to a WLAN when performing NAC using the Cisco NAC Appliance Manager and Server?
A. Cisco CAM OOB Management > Devices > Discovered Clients
B. Cisco CAS OOB Management > Devices > Discovered Clients
C. Cisco CAM Monitor > View Online Users
D. Cisco CAS Monitor > View Online Users
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Configuring the Cisco Secure ACS with a self-signed certificate supports which requirement?
A. when no user certificate is required
B. when a CA-signed certificate is required for the user
C. when a self-signed certificate Class 4 is required for the user
D. when a self-signed certificate Class 0 is required for the user
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Which type of attack is characterized by an evil twin?
A. DoS
B. man in the middle
C. jamming
D. eavesdropping
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Employees adjust their wireless laptop for work at the office and when away from the office. What are the two most likely security issues for an employee laptop when connected at the corporate WLAN? 642-737 dumps (Choose two.)
A. loading a freeware customer contact application
B. configuring a static IP address
C. updating the driver
D. adding a coffee shop wireless HotSpot
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 23
Which protocol port(s) need open access when deploying NAC appliances to communicate with the Cisco WLC v7.0 to move an authenticated user from the quarantine VLAN to the access VLAN?
A. UDP 16666
B. UDP 514
C. UDP 5246 and 5247
D. UDP 161 and 162
E. TCP 443
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which two considerations must a network engineer have when planning for voice over wireless roaming? (Choose two.)
A. Roaming with only 802.1x authentication requires full reauthentication.
B. Full reauthentication introduces gaps in a voice conversation.
C. Roaming occurs when e phone has seen at least four APs.
D. Roaming occurs when the phone has reached -80 dBs or below.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 25
An engineer would like to use an EAP supplicant that uses PKI to authenticate the WLAN network and client, as well as a client certificate. What EAP method can be used?
A. PEAPv1
B. PEAPv0
C. EAP-FAST
D. EAP-TLS
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
642-737 dumps
A client reports being unable to log into the wireless network, which uses PEAPv2. Which two issues appear in the output? (Choose two.)
A. There is a problem with the client supplicant.
B. The AP has the incorrect RADIUS server address.
C. The AP has lost IP connectivity to the authentication server.
D. The EAP client timeout value should be increased.
E. The authentication server is misconfigured on the controller.
F. The authentication server is misconfigured in the WLAN.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 27
Which option correctly lists the EAP protocol(s) that can be configured on an autonomous AP for local authentication?
A. MAC
B. LEAP and EAP-FAST
C. MAC, LEAP, and EAP-FAST
D. MAC, EAP-FAST, EAP-PEAP, and EAP-TLS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which three actions can be configured for EAP authentication on a Cisco 1200 Series AP? (Choose three.)
A. Specify the shared secret and ports.
B. Set the EAP Authentication type Priority 1 field to the server IP address under Default Server Priorities.
C. Set the EAP Authentication type Priority 5 field to the server IP address under Default Server Priorities.
D. Enter the IP address of the authentication server in the Server field.
E. Enter the IP address of the management IP address of the Cisco WLC.
F. Specify EAP account on server and ports.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 29
When using the Microsoft WLAN AutoConfig feature, which 802.1X authentication method is not supported natively by Windows 7?
A. EAP-TLS
B. EAP-FAST
C. PEAP with MS-CHAPv2
D. PEAP with GTC
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
Which device provides IDS and IPS protection in a Cisco Unified Wireless Network against wireless clients with viruses and worms?
A. Cisco NAC Guest Server
B. Cisco Secure Access Control System
C. Cisco WLC
D. Cisco WCS
E. Cisco NAC Appliance Manager
F. Cisco NAC Appliance Server
G. Cisco IPS Appliance
Correct Answer: G

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[2018 New Version] New Cisco CCNP Wireless 642-732 Dumps Exam Practice Youtube Demo Free Shared (Q1-Q30)

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP Wireless
Exam Name: Conducting Cisco Unified Wireless Site Survey (CUWSS) v2.0
Exam Code: 642-732
Total Questions: 193 Q&As
642-732 dumps
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Cisco CCNP Wireless 642-732 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
What are the most appropriate channels for an 802.11a/n VoWLAN survey and deployment in the FCC domain?
A. 4 channels of UNII-1
B. 8 channels of UNII-1, and UNII-2
C. 8 channels of UNII-1, and UNII-3
D. 15 channels of UNII-2, and UNII-2 extended
E. 23 channels of UNII-1, UNII-2, UNII-2 extended, and UNII-3
F. 24 channels of UNII-1, UNII-2, UNII-2 extended, UNII-3, and ISM
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You have a multinational customer that would like you to perform a wireless site survey for a new manufacturing facility in Singapore. They have had a local vendor install a point-to- point wireless bridge link between two buildings 1 km apart.
The ground between the buildings is flat but because facilities are in the mountains, dense fog is an issue. There are no line of sight issues between the buildings. The link is experiencing errors and throughput issues. Currently the two radios are set to operate at 2.4 GHz and the transmit power is set to 7 dBm with 7 dBm antennas. What do you need to take into consideration when performing the site survey for this link?
A. Change the radio power to 17 dBm.
B. Change the radio power to 20 dBm and replace with a 16 dBm antenna.
C. Change the radio power to 29 dBm.
D. Change the radio power to 13 dBm.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which hop count is Cisco’s maximum recommended for a client in a wireless Mesh network?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which two statements best describe the Fresnel zone related to an outdoor RF point-to- point link? (Choose two.)
A. blocks no more than 20 percent
B. blocks no more than 40 percent
C. blocks no more than 60 percent
D. comprises a single zone to keep clear
E. comprises multiple zones of which the first inside zone is the most important to keep clear
F. comprises multiple zones of which the outside zone is the most important to keep clear
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 5
Given an AP that can transmit at 100 mW and the client at 40 mW, which power setting should be used for a site survey?
A. 10 mW
B. 20 mW
C. 40 mW
D. 60 mW
E. 80 mW
F. 100 mW
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
When ordering the software licenses for a Cisco WLAN project, what are the minimum software packages required if the location requires 390 lightweight APs, 100 of which will be used for location services, and a Cisco 3310 MSE?
A. One 500 AP single server license package for the WCS and one 3000 device license for the MSE.
B. One 1000 AP single server license package for the WCS and one 500 device license for the MSE.
C. One 1000 AP single server license package for the WCS and one 3000 device license for the MSE.
D. One 500 AP single server license package for the WCS and one 1000 device license for the MSE.
E. One 1000 AP single server license package for the WCS and one 2000 device license for the MSE.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which two statements best describe the Fresnel zone related to an outdoor RF point-to- point link? (Choose two.)
A. single elliptical area surrounding an RF line of sight
B. multiple elliptical areas surrounding an RF line of sight
C. extends vertically
D. extends horizontally
E. extends three-dimensionally
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 8
An engineer is conducting a site calibration using Cisco WCS. The current network has 802.11a, 802.11b, 802.11g, and 802.11n devices. How many times should the calibration be done?
A. once for each band
B. once for each protocol
C. once per deployment
D. once using each data collection type
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
An engineer is performing a data collection to validate wireless coverage. At what two locations should a linear point collection be performed? 642-732 dumps (Choose two.)
A. office cubicles
B. private offices
C. auditorium
D. warehouse
E. conference rooms
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 10
What three pieces of information should be included in an installation report? (Choose three.)
A. software versions of each AP
B. configuration files for each WLC
C. switch connection for each MAP
D. license file for each RAP
E. radio status for each AP
F. mobility group name for each WLC
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 11
A company has requested an indoor wireless survey in a multi-tenant building for 2.4GHz data and 5GHz voice services. Data clients will require three spatial streams and 4×4 MIMO technology. What is the Cisco recommended Access Point for performing this survey?
A. 600
B. 1600
C. 2600
D. 3600
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. During a post Mesh deployment survey, an engineer notices frame collisions occurring when MAP-1 and MAP-3 talk to RAP-2. Which type of issue is the engineer observing?
642-732 dumps
A. hidden node
B. exposed node
C. co-channel interference
D. CSMA-CA
E. backhaul latency
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You have a customer that is renovating a historic building for a new headquarters. The building was once an old manufacturing plant. It is constructed of brick with heavy timber beams. What type of RF issues do you expect to see while performing the site survey?
A. The RF signal will be reflected by the brick walls.
B. The RF signal will be absorbed by the brick walls and wooden beams and floors.
C. The RF signal will be diffused by the brick walls and wooden beams and floors.
D. The brick walls and wooden beams and floors will cause the RF signal to be diffracted.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
An engineer notes that some areas of a floor fail when using the Location Readiness Tool in Cisco WCS. What criteria must be met for a point to be considered location ready?
A. one AP in each quadrant, with three less than 70 feet away
B. one AP in three quadrants, with two less than 70 feet away
C. one AP in each quadrant, with two less than 70 feet away
D. one AP in three quadrants, with one less than 70 feet away
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
You have a customer that operates a large open pit coal mine in the western United States. They need to deploy a wireless point-to-point bridge link across the mine. The distance of the link is 1.5 miles. Which three things do you need to consider prior to performing the site survey for this bridge link? (Choose three.)
A. What specific EPA training will be required prior to entering the customer site?
B. Is a specific Mine Safety and Health Administration training course and certificate required prior to entering the customer site?
C. What specific FCC training will be required prior to entering the customer site?
D. Will any specialized equipment or clothing will be required to perform the site survey?
E. Will customer escorts be needed during the site survey?
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 16
What are the best practice minimum and recommended signal level values for a Location Services Survey?
A. minimum: -65dBm; recommended: 60 dBm
B. minimum: -70dBm; recommended: -68 dBm
C. minimum: -75dBm; recommended: -72dBm
D. minimum: -80dBm; recommended: -78dBm
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which three post-installation checks should an engineer perform after a new wireless installation? (Choose three.)
A. Check for co-channel interference.
B. Check for adequate signal levels as surveyed.
C. Conduct a passive survey of 802.11a and 802.11b.
D. Conduct a passive and active survey of each media type in use.
E. Verify that the minimum data rate is 24 Mbps.
F. Verify that the cell overlap is 20%.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.
642-732 dumps
A company requires a multi-point bridge solution with Cisco 1400 series bridges. The central bridge (B1) is set to 10 dBm, the manufacturing remote bridge (B2) is set to 20 dBm, the inventory remote bridge (B3) is set to 20 dBm, and the shop remote bridge (B4) is set to 10 dBm. Which option is the maximum allowed power setting for all four bridges?
A. B1=12dBmB2=12dBmB3=12dBmB4=12dBm
B. B1=12dBmB2=24dBmB3=24dBmB4=24dBm
C. B1=24dBmB2=12dBmB3=12dBmB4=12dBm
D. B1=24dBmB2=24dBmB3=24dBmB4=24dBm
E. B1=20dBmB2=20dBmB3=20dBmB4=20dBm
F. B1=10dBmB2=24dBmB3=24dBmB4=24dBm
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
In performing a post-deployment audit, you are concerned by significant changes in measured RSSI and SNR values taken on a wireless client in one location. How do you explain the differences in these values?
A. The differences in the RSSI and SNR values are a result of signal diffusion in the environment.
B. The differences in the RSSI and SNR values are a result of multipath in the environment.
C. The differences in the RSSI and SNR values are a result of signal absorption in the environment.
D. The differences in the RSSI and SNR values are a result of signal diffraction in the environment.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Which tool can best provide throughput verification?
A. WLC > Monitor > Clients > LinkTest
B. WaveDeploy
C. InSSIDer
D. Xirrus Wi-Fi Inspector
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
An engineer is surveying a customer site for additional wireless coverage. What two menus will an engineer navigate to in order to determine the maximum number of supported APs? (Choose two.)
A. Monitor – Summary
B. Controller – Inventory
C. Management – Summary
D. Wireless – Access Points
E. Monitor – Access Points
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 22
Which two details are specified in the Executive Summary section of the Site Survey Report? (Choose two.)
A. proposed location for each AP
B. customer and site surveyor contact details
C. total number of APs
D. expressed requirements set by customer
E. coverage map
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 23
Which two options describes the vertical RF coverage pattern of an antenna? (Choose two.)
A. View from the side
B. View from above
C. Azimuth
D. H-plane
E. E-plane
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 24
How many location points are needed to validate both 802.11b/g and 802.11a in the Cisco WCS Calibration?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200
E. 300
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 25
What document must be kept current when a customer is conducting network maintenance? 642-732 dumps
A. installation report
B. survey report
C. readiness report
D. technical report
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
642-732 dumps
After performing a Layer 1 survey using Cisco Spectrum Expert, what is the result indicated by the visual screen?
A. Normal 802.11g activity
B. Microwave oven interference
C. Video camera interference
D. Bluetooth device interference
E. RF jammer
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.
642-732 dumps
After performing a Layer 1 survey using Cisco Spectrum Expert, what is the result indicated by the visual screen?
A. Normal 802.11b activity
B. Normal 802.11g activity
C. Microwave oven interference
D. Video camera interference
E. Bluetooth device interference
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
Aside from software applications, which two tools will be important to have when performing a WLAN site survey? (Choose two.)
A. Measuring tools
B. Temporary attachment devices (tie-wraps, clamps, duct tape)
C. Architectural design drawings
D. Different sizes and types of wrenches and pliers
E. Portable battery packs to power WLAN clients
F. Flag tape to outline wireless cell dimensions
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 29
What is the attenuation of a wireless signal that passes through a cider block wall?
A. 3 dB
B. 4 dB
C. 6 dB
D. 12 dB
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
Which two pieces of physical infrastructure information should be included in the installation report presented to the customer? (Choose two.)
A. A list of router and switch models, serial numbers and locations.
B. The total square footage of the customer’s facility.
C. An analysis of the facility exterior wall and roof construction materials.
D. The cable scan results for the entire customer facility.
E. An installation inventory of all controllers and APs in the WLAN coverage area.
Correct Answer: DE

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[2018 New Version] Useful Cisco CCNA Cloud 210-451 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers Youtube Update (Q1-Q30)

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Cloud
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cloud Fundamentals
Exam Code: 210-451
Total Questions: 82 Q&As

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Cisco CCNA Cloud 210-451 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
Which description of the elasticity of a Cloud-based infrastructure is true?
A. provides dynamic on-demand provisioning of services in near real time
B. enables sharing of resources and costs across a large pool of users
C. multisite architecture to reduce impact from outages in any one site
D. provides a security posture that is manageable from a single point of control
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which characteristic is an inoperative attribute of a private Cloud deployment?
A. self service and on demand
B. shared by many companies
C. highly scalable
D. metered for reporting or billing purposes
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which option is one essential characteristic of Cloud computing?
A. It must use virtualization.
B. It must provide load balancing services.
C. It must provide on-demand self service.
D. It must run on open source software.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
What are the five specific characteristics common to the Cloud environments?
A. on-demand usage, ubiquitous access, multi-tenancy, measured usage, resiliency
B. on-demand usage, ubiquitous access, tiered-tenancy, measured usage, resiliency
C. on-demand usage, autonomous access, multi-tenancy, measured usage, resiliency
D. dynamic usage, ubiquitous access, multi-tenancy, measured usage, resiliency
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which best describes a SaaS Cloud model?
A. infrastructure that presents the user with an operating system allowing programming language execution environment for testing database and web servers
B. infrastructure that virtualizes server functions on a hypervisor
C. infrastructure that provides elastic storage and computing resources
D. a platform that provides access to application software or database resources
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
210-451 dumps IaaS is an acronym for what type of Cloud?
A. Instances as a Service
B. Infrastructure as a Service
C. Internet as a Service
D. Images as a Service
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which Cloud service model is appropriate for a physical data center move to the Cloud?
A. Infrastructure as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Compute as a Service
D. Software as a Service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which statement defines Cloud Service Models?
A. infrastructure as a service, software as a service, platform as a service
B. internet as a service, software as a service, platform as a service
C. infrastructure as a service, big data as a service, platform as a service
D. infrastructure as a service, software as a service, grid as a service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which best describes a Cloud deployment model that relies on interoperability between Cloud providers?
A. Hybrid Cloud
B. Multi-Cloud
C. InterCloud
D. Community Cloud
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which three options are considered Cloud deployment models? (Choose three.)
A. Public Cloud
B. Hybrid Cloud
C. Open Cloud
D. Private Cloud
E. Stack Cloud
F. Distributed Cloud
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 11
Company ABC hosts all their applications internally. During one day of the month, the demand for their applications far exceeds the capacity of their datacenter. Which Cloud model should Company ABC consider using?
A. Community
B. Private
C. Hybrid
D. Public
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which option lists the Cloud deployment models?
A. public, community, private, hybrid
B. cluster, community, private, hybrid
C. public, performance, private, hybrid
D. public, community, secure, hybrid
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
What is an invalid Cloud deployment model?
A. distributed
B. private
C. community
D. hybrid
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which three options are Common Cloud characteristics? 210-451 dumps (Choose three.)
A. single tenancy
B. elasticity
C. ubiquitous network access
D. metered service
E. QoS
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 15
Which description of Cisco vPath is true?
A. a protocol that provides end-to-end path assurance for Cloud-based systems
B. an embedded intelligence in Cisco VEM that provides abstracted control and forward plane functionality
C. a service that provides forwarding plane abstraction for inline redirection of traffic for vServices
D. a vService that allows for security policy enforcement through transparent bridging
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which description of RAID6 is true?
A. block-level striping of data with double distributed parity
B. drive-level striping of data with double distributed parity
C. block-level striping of data with single distributed parity
D. block-level mirroring of data with double distributed parity
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which Cloud storage technology would be accessed via the following URL?
https://cloud.example.com/v1/account/container/object
A. pNFS
B. WebDAV
C. Cinder
D. Swift
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which of the following protocols are considered to be “file based”?
A. NFS, FCoE, iSCSI, CIFS
B. iSCSI, NFS, CIFS
C. NFS or CIFS
D. FCoE or NFS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which of the following two storage technologies would require that its’ block device be attached to an instance before you can perform any filesystem commands? (Choose two.)
A. SCSI LUN
B. Cinder Volume
C. NFS Filesystem Meta-Volume
D. Direct Object Block Device
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 20
Which type of zoning is represented?
zone name zone1 vsan 10 member pwwn 20:00:00:55:a5:00:00:04 member pwwn 50:00:d3:10:00:18:e1:05 member pwwn 50:00:d3:10:00:18:e1:06
A. Single Initiator Multi Target
B. Multi Initiator Single Target
C. Single Target Single Initiator
D. Multi Initiator Multi Target
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
What are two characteristics of a LUN? (Choose two.)
A. A LUN must be fully comprised of one physical disk
B. A LUN handles file system creation
C. A LUN can be comprised of multiple physical disks
D. A LUN is a unique identifier
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 22
In an Openstack Cloud deployment which has a fibre channel SAN providing the block storage, which two options are valid fibre channel zone member types? (Choose two.)
A. FCID
B. DomainID
C. WWPN
D. OpenStack Volume ID
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 23
Which option describes what the use of no_root_squash does in an NFS environment?
A. It causes the NFS share to be mounted by a non-root user and is required for hypervisors that utilize RBAC for users.
B. It allows a NFS share to be mounted and written to as the root user by the hypervisor.
C. It allows a NFS share to be mounted by root, but all subsequent writes are as a non-root user.
D. It allows a NFS share to be mounted by a non-root user and all subsequent writes are as a non-root user.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Which two options are characteristics of NAS? (Choose two.)
A. NAS provides block-based storage only.
B. NAS provides storage and filesystems.
C. NAS requires no authentication.
D. SMB is a protocol that can be used for NAS.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 25
Which /etc/exports line will allow you to enable read-only access from the NFS client 192.168.1.100?
A. /images 192.168.1.100 (ro,async)
B. /images 192.168.1.100 (755,async)
C. /images 192.168.1.1/24 (755,no_root_squash,async)
D. /images 192.168.1.1/27 (ro,async)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Refer to the command line display below:
vsan database
vsan 1000 name FCoE
vlan 1000
fcoe vlan 1000
int e1/1
switchport mode trunk
switchport trunk allowed vlan 1000
no shut
int vfc10
bind interface e1/1
switchport trunk allowed vsan 1000
no shut
On which line does the error occur that prevents FCoE from operating correctly in a Cisco Nexus switch?
A. fcoe vlan 1000
B. switchport trunk allowed vsan 1000
C. int vfc10
D. bind interface e1/1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
210-451 dumps Which Cisco product can provide an iSCSI target for an iSCSI initiator?
A. Cisco MDS 9710
B. Cisco Nexus 7010
C. Cisco UCS Invicta
D. Cisco Nexus 9510
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which Cisco product is outside of a Vblock?
A. Cisco Nexus 1k
B. Cisco C-Series UCS
C. Cisco Nexus 3k
D. Cisco UCS Central
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
Which integrated infrastructure rely on OpenStack technology?
A. FlexPod
B. Vblock
C. VSPEX
D. OpenBlocks
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
Which platform is ideally used to orchestrate a FlexPod from a single management platform?
A. Cisco UCS Manager
B. Cisco UCS Director
C. Cisco Prime Cloud Automation Manager
D. Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure Manager
Correct Answer: B

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[2018 New Version] High Pass Rate Newest Cisco CCNA Security 210-260 Dumps Exam Files Update Youtube Free Demo (Q13-Q40)

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Security
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Exam Code: 210-260
Total Questions: 329 Q&As

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Cisco CCNA Security 210-260 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (Q13-Q40)

QUESTION 13
Which two features are commonly used CoPP and CPPr to protect the control plane? (Choose two.)
A. QoS
B. traffic classification
C. access lists
D. policy maps
E. class maps
F. Cisco Express Forwarding
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 14
What is one requirement for locking a wired or wireless device from ISE?
A. The ISE agent must be installed on the device.
B. The device must be connected to the network when the lock command is executed.
C. The user must approve the locking action.
D. The organization must implement an acceptable use policy allowing device locking.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which three statements are characteristics of DHCP Spoofing? (choose three)
A. Arp Poisoning
B. Modify Traffic in transit
C. Used to perform man-in-the-middle attack
D. Physically modify the network gateway
E. Protect the identity of the attacker by masking the DHCP address
F. can access most network devices
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 16
Which statement correctly describes the function of a private VLAN?
A. A private VLAN partitions the Layer 2 broadcast domain of a VLAN into subdomains
B. A private VLAN partitions the Layer 3 broadcast domain of a VLAN into subdomains
C. A private VLAN enables the creation of multiple VLANs using one broadcast domain
D. A private VLAN combines the Layer 2 broadcast domains of many VLANs into one major broadcast domain
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
which feature allow from dynamic NAT pool to choose next IP address and not a port on a used IP address?
A. next IP
B. round robin
C. Dynamic rotation
D. Dynamic PAT rotation
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Which type of encryption technology has the broadcast platform support?
A. Middleware
B. Hardware
C. Software
D. File-level
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
When an IPS detects an attack, which action can the IPS take to prevent the attack from spreading?
A. Deny the connection inline.
B. Perform a Layer 6 reset.
C. Deploy an antimalware system.
D. Enable bypass mode.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which four tasks are required when you configure Cisco IOS IPS using the Cisco Configuration Professional IPS wizard? 210-260 dumps (Choose four.)
A. Select the interface(s) to apply the IPS rule.
B. Select the traffic flow direction that should be applied by the IPS rule.
C. Add or remove IPS alerts actions based on the risk rating.
D. Specify the signature file and the Cisco public key.
E. Select the IPS bypass mode (fail-open or fail-close).
F. Specify the configuration location and select the category of signatures to be applied to the selected interface(s).
Correct Answer: ABDF

Explanation:
Step 11. At the `Select Interfaces’ screen, select the interface and the direction that IOS IPS will be applied to, then click `Next’ to continue.
210-260 dumps
Step 12. At the `IPS Policies Wizard’ screen, in the `Signature File’ section, select the first radio button “Specify the signature file you want to use with IOS IPS”, then click the “…” button to bring up a dialog box to specify the location of the signature package file, which will be the directory specified in Step 6. In this example, we use tftp to download the signature package to the router.
210-260 dumps
Step 13. In the `Configure Public Key’ section, enter `realm-cisco.pub’ in the `Name’ text field, then copy and paste the following public key’s key-string in the `Key’ text field. This public key can be downloaded from Cisco.com.
210-260 dumps
QUESTION 21
Which ports need to be active for AAA server and a Microsoft server to permit Active Directory authentication?
A. 445 and 389
B. 888 and 3389
C. 636 and 4445
D. 363 and 983
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
DRAG DROP
Drag the hash or algorithm from the left column to its appropriate category on the right.
Select and Place:
210-260 dumps
Correct Answer:
210-260 dumps
QUESTION 23
If a switch receives a superior BPDU and goes directly into a blocked state, what mechanism must be in use?
A. root guard
B. EtherChannel guard
C. loop guard
D. BPDU guard
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which two are valid types of VLANs using PVLANs? 210-260 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Backup VLAN
B. Secondary VLAN
C. Promiscuous VLAN
D. Community VLAN
E. Isolated VLAN
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 25
Which two are the default settings for port security? (Choose two.)
A. Violation is Protect
B. Maximum number of MAC addresses is 1
C. Violation is Restrict
D. Violation is Shutdown
E. Maximum number of MAC addresses is 2
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
Which area represents the data center?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
A network security administrator checks the ASA firewall NAT policy table with the show nat command.
Which statement is false?
A. First policy in the Section 1 is dynamic nat entry defined in the object configuration.
B. There are only reverse translation matches for the REAL_SERVER object.
C. NAT policy in Section 2 is a static entry defined in the object configuration.
D. Translation in Section 3 is used when a connection does not match any entries in first two sections.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Which two are characteristics of RADIUS? (Choose two.)
A. Uses TCP ports 1812/1813
B. Uses UDP port 49
C. Encrypts only the password between user and server
D. Uses TCP port 49
E. Uses UDP ports 1812/1813
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 29
Which two types of firewalls work at layer 4 and above? (Choose two.)
A. Application level firewall
B. Circuit-level gateway
C. Static packet filter
D. Network Address Translation
E. Stateful inspection
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 30
When setting up a site-to-site VPN with PSK authentication on a Cisco router, which two elements must be configured under crypto map? (Choose two.)
A. nat
B. peer
C. pfs
D. reverse-route
E. transform-set
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 31
Which two commands are used to implement Resilient IOS Configuration? (Choose two.)
A. copy flash:/ios.bin tftp
B. copy running-config tftp
C. copy running-config startup-config
D. secure boot-image
E. secure boot-config
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 32
Which two events would cause the state table of a stateful firewall to be updated? 210-260 dumps (Choose two.)
A. when a connection’s timer has expired within the state table
B. when a connection is created
C. when rate-limiting is applied
D. when a packet is evaluated against the outbound access list and is denied
E. when an outbound packet is forwarded to the outbound interface
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 33
Which IPSec mode is used to encrypt traffic directly between a client and a server VPN endpoint?
A. transport mode
B. tunnel mode
C. aggressive mode
D. quick mode
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 34
On an ASA, the policy that indicates that traffic should not be translated is often referred to as which of the following?
A. NAT zero
B. NAT forward
C. NAT null
D. NAT allow
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 35
What is true of an ASA in transparent mode?
A. It requires a management IP address
B. It allows the use of dynamic NAT
C. It requires an IP address for each interface
D. It supports OSPF
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 36
Which component offers a variety of security solutions, including firewall, IPS, VPN, antispyware, antivirus, and antiphishing features?
A. Cisco IOS router
B. Cisco ASA 5500-X Series Next Gen. Security appliance
C. Cisco 4200 series IPS appliance
D. Cisco ASA 5500 series security appliance
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 37
How does a zone pair handle traffic if the policy definition of the zone pair is missing?
A. It permits all traffic without logging.
B. It drops all traffic.
C. It inspects all traffic.
D. It permits and logs all traffic.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 38
Which command do you enter to configure your firewall to conceal internal addresses?
A. no ip logging facility
B. no ip directed-broadcast
C. no ip inspect
D. no proxy-arp
E. no ip source-route
F. no ip inspect audit-trail
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 39
Which IOS command do you enter to test authentication against a AAA server?
A. aaa authentication enable default test group tacacs+
B. dialer aaa suffix password C. ppp authentication chap pap test
D. test aaa-server authentication dialergroup username password Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 40
210-260 dumps Which technology can block a non-malicious program that is run from a local computer that has been disconnected from the network?
A. antivirus software
B. firewall
C. host IPS
D. network IPS
Correct Answer: C

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[2018 New Version] High Quality Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-065 Dumps Exam Practice Materials Youtube Update (Q11-Q30)

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Collaboration
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices v1.0
Exam Code: 210-065
Total Questions: 311 Q&As

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Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-065 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (Q11-Q30)

QUESTION 11
Which desktop endpoint support 802.3af PoE?
A. DX70
B. DX80
C. DX90
D. DX650
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
An engineer is backing up a VCS configuration. Which two methods can be used? (Choose two.)
A. FTP
B. SFTP
C. SSH
D. web administration
E. local
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 13
An engineer sees a video camera icon on the Cisco IP phone screen status line. Which meaning of this icon is true?
A. The Cisco VT camera is connected to the PC, and the PC is connected to the Cisco IP phone.
B. The Cisco IP phone has web access.
C. The Cisco IP phone is receiving a video call.
D. The Cisco IP phone is configured with video capabilities.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
A company just acquired a Cisco MCU 5300 for multi videoconferencing. The networking engineer must create a conference. To which tab does the engineer go to create a conference?
A. Endpoints
B. Conferences
C. Network
D. Settings
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
In this tutorial the instruction `Go to Conferences > Move participants’ means click the Conferences link on the menu bar and then click the Move participants tab.

QUESTION 15
Which option is the Cisco recommended minimum viewing distance for a 52″ monitor installed in a video conferencing room?
A. 1.5 m
B. 3.0 m
C. 2.5 m
D. 2.0 m
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
210-065 dumps Which effect of the CLI set audio aec enable command on the immersive Cisco Telepresence system is true?
A. Echo cancellation is enabled.
B. Call economy quality feature is enabled.
C. Noise cancellation is enabled.
D. AEC audio codec is enabled.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
What is the process for resetting a Cisco VCS control appliance back to initial default configuration?
A. Push down and hold the reset button on the back of the VCS appliance for 10 seconds and power cycle the device.
B. Log onto the CLI console as root and initiate the defaults-reset command.
C. Log into the GUI interface as administrator, choose System Settings, select Restore, select Factory Reset.
D. Log onto the CLI console as root and initiate the factory-reset command.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which two Cisco TelePresence endpoints support hosting embedded multisite conferences? (Choose two.)
A. sx20
B. MX800
C. DX70
D. DX80
E. Jabber Video for Cisco TelePresence
Correct Answer: AB

Explanation:
For reference, the below endpoints support Multisite:
MX200/300 G2
MX700/800
SX20/80

QUESTION 19
Which option is the Cisco recommended layout if cascading is being used?
A. Enhanced Continuous Presence
B. Full Participant
C. Continuous Presence
D. Active Speaker
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
When an administrator schedules a conference, which three devices are part of the process? (Choose three.)
A. endpoint
B. Cisco Prime Collaboration Manager
C. Cisco TelePresence Management Suite
D. Cisco Communications Manager
E. MCU appliance
F. Cisco TelePresence Content Server
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 21
An engineer is configuring a Cisco TelePresence MX300 for registration to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager system. What should Network1>DHCP RequestTFTPServerAddress be set to on the endpoint, in order to receive option 150?
A. DHCP
B. 150
C. On
D. TFTP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Which option is an immersive endpoint?
A. Cisco TelePresence EX90
B. Cisco TelePresence TX9000
C. Cisco TelePresence SX10
D. Cisco TelePresence DX70
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
An engineer is using a cascading feature with Cisco TelePresence Conductor and Cisco TelePresence Servers. Which two limitations will the engineer likely encounter? (Choose two.)
A. Ad-hoc conferencing cascading is not supported.
B. Only single-screen endpoints are supported through cascading links.
C. Multiple-screen endpoints are supported only with three or more Cisco TelePresence Servers.
D. Scheduled conferencing is not supported.
E. Ad-hoc conferencing cascading is supported only with three or more Cisco TelePresence Servers.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 24
Which two features are available on a Cisco TelePresence Server that are not available on a Cisco TelePresence MCU? (Choose two.)
A. auto-attendant conference menu
B. automatic lecture mode
C. virtualization
D. multiscreen endpoint support
E. multiple layouts
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 25
210-065 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. When a user cannot log into the Cisco Jabber client, the log file from a Windows Jabber client on an internal network is shown. 210-065 dumps Which SRV must the DNS administrator create to resolve the problem?
A. _collab-edge
B. _cisco-uds
C. _sip
D. _sips
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which technology can be used to pair an iPad with a Cisco room-based video collaboration endpoint?
A. Bluetooth
B. Wi-Fi
C. Cisco Intelligent Proximity
D. Zigbee
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
210-065 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. An SX80 endpoint has been deployed using dual screens and a third display is being added. To which connector must the third display be connected?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
F. F
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
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210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
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When the Cisco Jabber usertries to call extension 3501, Cisco Jabber never places the call No errors or messages are seen and no reordertone is heard. Assuming that the Cisco Jabber calling search space is configured correctly in Cisco Unified Communications Manager, which of these could be causing this issue?
A. CTI for the end user must be enabled.
B. Cisco Jabber must be reconfigured for desktop mode.
C. The username or password is misconfigured in Cisco Jabber.
D. The Cisco Jabber Advanced Phone Settings are misconfigured.
E. Cisco Jabber does not have the correct phone button template and hence has not registered to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
F. The called user presence status is unknown.
G. The called user has not been added as a contact in Cisco Jabber.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
Refer to the exhibits. An administrator needs to perform a factory reset on a C-Series endpoint. What are two valid ways to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D
E. Exhibit E
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 30
A customer is looking for a video conference solution that includes video streaming. What are the two devices that when used together, provide streaming capability? 210-065 dumps (Choose two.)
A. VCS
B. TCS
C. TS
D. MCU 4500
E. TMS
Correct Answer: BD

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[2018 New Version] Useful Microsoft MCSE 70-414 Dumps Exam Questions Update Youtube Free Shared

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSE
Exam Name: Implementing an Advanced Server Infrastructure
Exam Code: 70-414
Total Questions: 243 Q&As

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Microsoft MCSE 70-414 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (Q13-Q30)

QUESTION 13
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains four servers on a test network. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
70-414 dumps
Server1 uses the storage shown in the following table.
70-414 dumps
You perform the following tasks:
On Server2, you create an advanced SMB share named Share2A and an applications SMB share named Share2B.
On Server3, you create an advanced SMB share named Share3. On Server4, you create an applications SMB share named Share4. You add Server3 and Server4 to a new failover cluster named Clus1. On Clus1, you configure the File Server for general use role, you create a quick SMB share named Share5A, and then you create an applications SMB share named Share5B.
You plan to create a failover cluster of two virtual machines hosted on Server1. The clustered virtual machines will use shared .vhdx files.
You need to recommend a location to store the shared .vhdx files.
Where should you recommend placing the virtual hard disk (VHD)?
A. \\Server3\Share3
B. \\Server2\Share2B
C. \\Clus1\Share5B
D. \\Server4\Share4
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network has an Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) infrastructure.
You need to issue a certificate to users to meet the following requirements:
Ensure that the users can encrypt files by using Encrypting File System (EFS). Ensure that all of the users reenroll for their certificate every six months.
Solution: From the properties of the User certificate template, you assign the Allow – Enroll permission to the Authenticated Users group.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
You have a properly configured certification authority in an Active Directory Domain Services domain.
You must implement two-factor authentication and use virtual smart cards to secure user sessions.
You need to implement two-factor authentication for each client device.
What should you install on each client device?
A. a smart card reader
B. a user certificate issued by a certification authority
C. a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chip
D. a local computer certificate issued by a certificate authority
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The network contains a System Center 2012 R2 Data Protection Manager (DPM) deployment.
The domain contains six servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
70-414 dumps
You install System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) on the nodes in Cluster2.
You configure VMM to use a database in Cluster1. Server5 is the first node in the cluster.
You need to back up the VMM encryption key.
What should you back up?
A. A full system backup of Server1
B. A full system backup of Server3
C. A backup of the Windows\DigitalLocker folder on Server5
D. A backup of the Windows\DigitalLocker folder on Server1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Your network contains five servers that run Windows Server 2012. You install the Hyper-V server role on the servers. You create an external virtual network switch on each server.
You plan to deploy five virtual machines to each Hyper-V server. Each virtual machine will have a virtual network adapter that is connected to the external virtual network switch and that has a VLAN identifier of 1.
Each virtual machine will run Windows Server 2012. All of the virtual machines will run the identical web application.
You plan to install the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature on each virtual machine and join each virtual machine to an NLB cluster. The cluster will be configured to use unicast only.
You need to ensure that the NLB feature can distribute connections across all of the virtual machines.
What should you do?
A. From the properties of each virtual machine, add a second virtual network adapter. Connect the new virtual network adapters to the external virtual network switch. Configure the new virtual network adapters to use a VLAN identifier of 2.
B. On each Hyper-V server, create a new private virtual network switch. From the properties of each virtual machine, add a second virtual network adapter. Connect the new virtual network adapters to the new private virtual network switches.
C. On each Hyper-V server, create a new external virtual network switch. From the properties of each virtual machine, add a second virtual network adapter. Connect the new virtual network adapters to the new external virtual network switches.
D. From the properties of each virtual machine, enable MAC address spoofing for the existing virtual network adapter.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
Your company works with a partner company that has an Active Directory forest named fabrikam.com. Both forests contain domain controllers that run only Windows Server 2012 R2. 70-414 dumps
The certification authority (CA) infrastructure of both companies is configured as shown in the following table.
70-414 dumps
You need to recommend a certificate solution that meets the following requirements:
Server authentication certificates issued from fabrikam.com must be trusted automatically by the computers in contoso.com.
The computers in contoso.com must not trust automatically any other type of certificates issued from the CA hierarchy in fabrikam.com.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that defines intermediate CAs. Import a certificate that has an application policy object identifier (OID) of CA Encryption Certificate.
B. Deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that defines an enterprise trust. Import a certificate that has an application policy object identifier (OID) of Microsoft Trust List Signing.
C. Deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that defines an enterprise trust. Import a certificate that has an application policy object identifier (OID) of CA Encryption Certificate.
D. Deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that defines intermediate CAs. Import a certificate that has an application policy object identifier (OID) of Microsoft Trust List Signing.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Your network contains a server named Hyperl that runs Windows Server 2012. Hyperl is configured as a Hyper-V host and runs System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM).
Hyperl hosts a virtual machine named Guestl. Guestl is configured as a file server that runs Windows Server 2012. Guestl connects to a shared storage device by using the iSCSI Initiator.
You need to back up the files and the folders in the shared storage used by Guestl. The solution must ensure that the backup is successful even if Guestl is in a saved state. What should you do? O
A. From Hyper-V Manager, create a snapshot of Guestl.
B. From Hyperl, configure an iSCSI initiator to the shared storage and perform a backup by using Windows Server Backup.
C. From Guestl, schedule regular backups by using Windows Server Backup.
D. From Microsoft System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM), create a copy of Guestl.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
You have a Hyper-V host named Hyper1 that has Windows Server 2012 installed. Hyper1 hosts 20 virtual machines.
Hyper1 has one physical network adapter.
You need to implement a networking solution that evenly distributes the available bandwidth on Hyper1 to all of the virtual machines.
What should you modify?
A. The settings of the virtual switch
B. The settings of the virtual network adapter
C. The Quality of Service (QoS) Packet Scheduler settings of the physical network adapter
D. The settings of the legacy network adapter
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
You have a server named Host1 that runs Windows Server 2012 and has the Hyper-V server role installed.
Host1 has one physical network adapter. You plan to deploy 15 virtual machines on Host1.
You need to implement a networking solution that ensures that all of the virtual machines use PXE to boot when they connect to Windows Deployment Server (WDS).
What should you do?
A. Install legacy network adapters for each virtual machine.
B. Modify the settings of the virtual switch.
C. Modify the settings of the network adapter for each virtual machine.
D. Install a second physical network adapter.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Your network contains two data centers named DataCenter1 and DataCenter2. The two data centers are connected by using a low latency high-speed WAN link. 70-414 dumps
Each data center contains multiple Hyper-V hosts that run Windows Server 2012. All servers connect to a Storage Area Network (SAN) in their local data center.
You plan to implement 20 virtual machines that will be hosted on the Hyper-V hosts.
You need to recommend a hosting solution for the virtual machines.
The solution must meet the following requirements:
Virtual machines must be available automatically on the network if a single Hyper- V host fails.
Virtual machines must be available automatically on the network if a single data center fails.
What should you recommend?
A. One failover cluster in DataCenter1 and Hyper-V replicas to DataCenter2
B. One failover cluster in DataCenter2 and one DFS Replication group in DataCenter1
C. One failover cluster that spans both data centers and SAN replication between the data centers
D. One failover cluster and one Distributed File System (DFS) Replication group in each data center
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
An organization uses an Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) cluster names RMS1 to protect content for a project. You uninstall AD RMS when the project is complete. You need to ensure that the protected content is still available after AD RMS is uninstalled.
Solution: You run the following Windows PowerShell command:
Set-ItemProperty -Path :\ -Name IsDecommissioned -Value $true 璄nableDecommission
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Your network contains two clusters. The clusters are configured as shown in the following table.
70-414 dumps
All of the servers in both of the clusters run Windows Server 2012. You need to plan the application of Windows updates to the nodes in the cluster.
What should you include in the plan? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal.
Select the BEST answer.
A. Cluster-Aware Updating (CAU) self-updating and downloaded updates from Windows Server Update Services (WSUS)
B. Microsoft System Center 2012 Service Manager integrated with Windows Server Update Service (WSUS)
C. A manual application of Windows updates on all of the cluster node
D. Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration Manager integrated with Windows Server Update Service (WSUS)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Your network contains two Hyper-V hosts named Host1 and Host2. Host1 contains a virtual machine named VM1. Host2 contains a virtual machine named VM2. VM1 and VM2 run Windows Server 2012 R2.
You install the Network Load Balancing feature on VM1 and VM2. You need to ensure that the virtual machines are configured to support Network Load Balancing (NLB).
Which virtual machine settings should you configure on VM1 and VM2?
A. DHCP guard
B. MAC address
C. Router guard
D. Port mirroring
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a Microsoft System Center 2012 infrastructure. You deploy a service named Service1 by using a service template. Service1 contains two virtual machines. The virtual machines are configured as shown in the following table.
70-414 dumps
You need to recommend a monitoring solution to ensure that an administrator can review the availability information of Service1.
Solution: From Configuration Manager, you create a Collection and a Desired Configuration Management baseline.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
A company has offices in Seattle and Shanghai. You use Hyper-V Server 2012 R2 as the server virtualization platform. Each office has a secured server room where all the servers are located. Eighty percent of the company’s servers are virtual. The company signs a data center services agreement with a vendor that is located in New York. The agreement includes a 1 GB per second link to the collocation facility in New York.
The link between the Seattle and Shanghai offices is slow and unreliable. You must design and implement a cost-effective data recovery solution to replicate virtual servers from Seattle to both the New York and Shanghai locations.
The solution must support the following requirements:
Perform failover replication from Seattle to New York. Perform scheduled replication between as many locations as possible. In case of a disaster, a fast failover should be possible to the replicated servers with minimal changes required to the existing infrastructure.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Use Hyper-V Replica unplanned failovers.
B. Configure the Seattle Hyper-V server as the primary replica server and the Shanghai Hyper-V server as the secondary replica server.
C. Use Hyper-V Replica planned failovers.
D. Configure the Seattle Hyper-V server as the primary replica server and the New York Hyper-V server as the secondary replica server.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 28
Your network contains an Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) cluster named Cluster1.
You plan to change Cluster1 to a new AD RMS cluster named Cluster2.
You need to ensure that all users retrieve the location of the AD RMS templates from Cluster2.
What should you do?
A. Modify the Service Connection Point (SCP).
B. Modify the exclusion policies.
C. Modify the templates file location of the rights policy templates.
D. Create an alias (CNAME) record named Cluster1.contoso.com that points to Cluster2.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains a site named Site1.
All of the client computers in Site1 use static IPv4 addresses on a single subnet. Site1 contains a Storage Area Network (SAN) device and two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012. 70-414 dumps
You plan to implement a DHCP infrastructure that will contain Server1 and Server2. The infrastructure will contain several IP address reservations. You need to recommend a solution for the DHCP infrastructure to ensure that clients can receive IP addresses from a DHCP server if either Server1 or Server2 fails.
What should you recommend? (Each correct answer is a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Configure all of the client computers to use IPv6 addresses, and then configure Server1 and Server2 to run DHCP in stateless mode.
B. Configure Server1 and Server2 as members of a failover cluster, and then configure DHCP as a clustered resource.
C. Configure a DHCP failover relationship that contains Server1 and Server2.
D. Create a scope for each server, and then configure each scope to contain half of the IP addresses.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 30
You administer a group of servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
You must install all updates. You must report on compliance with the update policy on a monthly basis.
You need to configure updates and compliance reporting for new devices.
What should you do?
A. Deploy the Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer. Scan the servers and specify the /apply switch.
B. In Configuration Manager, deploy a new Desired Configuration Management baseline that includes all required updates.
C. Configure a new group policy to install updates monthly. Deploy the group policy to all servers.
D. In Operations Manager, create an override that enables the software updates management pack. Apply the new override to the servers.
Correct Answer: C

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSM
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Exam Code: 070-410
Total Questions: 503 Q&As

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New Microsoft MCSM 070-410 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
You have a server named Server2 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server2 has the Hyper-V server role installed. The disks on Server2 are configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) You create a virtual machine on Server2 named VM1.
You need to ensure that you can configure a pass-through disk for VM1.
What should you do?
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A. Convert Disk 1 to a basic disk.
B. Take Disk 1 offline.
C. Create a partition on Disk 1.
D. Convert Disk 1 to a MBR disk.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. Server1 is connected to two Fibre Channel SANs and is configured as shown in the following table.
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You have a virtual machine named VM1. You need to configure VM1 to connect to SAN1.
What should you do first?
A. Add one HBA
B. Create a Virtual Fibre Channel SAN.
C. Create a Hyper-V virtual switch.
D. Configure network adapter teaming.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You work as a senior administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. All servers on the L2P.com network have Windows Server 2012 installed, and all workstations have Windows 8 installed.
You are running a training exercise for junior administrators. You are currently discussing the Always Offline Mode.
Which of the following is TRUE with regards to the Always Offline Mode? (Choose all that apply.)
A. It allows for swifter access to cached files and redirected folders.
B. To enable Always Offline Mode, you have to satisfy the forest and domain functional-level requirements, as well as schema requirements.
C. It allows for lower bandwidth usage due to users are always working offline.
D. To enable Always Offline Mode, you must have workstations running Windows 7 or Windows Server 2008 R2.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DC1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to configure a central store for the Group Policy Administrative Templates. What should you do on DC1?
A. From Server Manager, create a storage pool.
B. From Windows Explorer, copy the PolicyDefinitions folder to the SYSVOL\contoso.com\policies folder.
C. From Server Manager, add the Group Policy Management feature
D. From Windows Explorer, copy the PolicyDefinitions folder to the NETLOGON share.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You install Windows Server 2012 R2 on a standalone server named Server1. You configure Server1 as a VPN server.
You need to ensure that client computers can establish PPTP connections to Server1. 070-410 dumps Which two firewall rules should you create? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.Choose two.)
A. An inbound rule for protocol 47
B. An outbound rule for protocol 47
C. An inbound rule for TCP port 1723
D. An inbound rule for TCP port 1701
E. An outbound rule for TCP port 1723
F. An outbound rule for TCP port 1701
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The computer accounts for all member servers are located in an organizational unit (OU) named Servers. You link a Group Policy object (GPO) to the Servers OU.
You need to ensure that the domain’s Backup Operators group is a member of the local Backup Operators group on each member server. The solution must not remove any groups from the local Backup Operators groups.
What should you do?
A. Add a restricted group named adatum\Backup Operators. Add Backup Operators to the This group is a member of list.
B. Add a restricted group named adatum\Backup Operators. Add Backup Operators to the Members of this group list.
C. Add a restricted group named Backup Operators. Add adatum\Backup Operators to the This group is a member of list.
D. Add a restricted group named Backup Operators. Add adatum\Backup Operators to the Members of this group list.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. An application named Appl.exe is installed on all client computers. Multiple versions of Appl.exe are installed on different client computers. Appl.exe is digitally signed. You need to ensure that only the latest version of Appl.exe can run on the client computers.
What should you create?
A. An application control policy packaged app rule
B. A software restriction policy certificate rule
C. An application control policy Windows Installer rule
D. An application control policy executable rule
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to ensure that the local Administrator account on all computers is renamed to L_Admin. Which Group Policy settings should you modify?
A. Security Options
B. User Rights Assignment
C. Restricted Groups
D. Preferences
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You have a server that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. The disks on the server are configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) You need to create a storage pool that contains Disk 1 and Disk 2. What should you do first?
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A. Delete volume E
B. Convert Disk 1 and Disk 2 to dynamic disks
C. Convert Disk 1 and Disk 2 to GPT disks
D. Create a volume on Disk 2
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You add a 4-TB disk named Disk 5 to Server1. You need to ensure that you can create a 3-TB volume on Disk 5. What should you do?
A. Create a storage pool.
B. Convert the disk to a dynamic disk.
C. Create a VHD, and then attach the VHD.
D. Convert the disk to a GPT disk.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
You have a server named Server1 that has a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2008 R2. Server1 has the DHCP Server server role and the File Server server role installed. You need to upgrade Server1 to Windows Server 2012 R2 with the graphical user interface (GUI). The solution must meet the following requirements:
Preserve the server roles and their configurations.
Minimize Administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. On Server1, run setup.exe from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server with a GUI.
B. Start Server1 from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server Core Installation. When the installation is complete, add the Server Graphical Shell feature.
C. Start Server1 from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server with a GUI.
D. On Server1, run setup.exe from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server Core Installation. When the installation is complete, add the Server Graphical Shell feature
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to install the Remote Desktop Services server role on Server2 remotely from Server1. 070-410 dumps Which tool should you use?
A. The dsadd.exe command
B. The Server Manager console
C. The Remote Desktop Gateway Manager console
D. The Install-RemoteAccess cmdlet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
You have a server named Server1 that runs a full installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to uninstall the graphical user interface (GUI) on Server1.
You must achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of Administrative effort. What should you do?
A. Reinstall Windows Server 2012 R2 on the server.
B. From Server Manager, uninstall the User Interfaces and Infrastructure feature.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature PowerShell-ISE
D. From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature Desktop-Experience.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4. Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.
070-410 dumps
You install Windows Server 2012 R2 on VM2 by using Windows Deployment Services (WDS). You need to ensure that the next time VM2 restarts, you can connect to the WDS server by using PXE.
Which virtual machine setting should you configure for VM2?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Correct Answer: G

QUESTION 15
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.
070-410 dumps
In the perimeter network, you install a new server named Server1 that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to join Server1 to the contoso.com domain.
What should you use?
A. The New-ADComputer cmdlet
B. The djoin.exe command
C. The dsadd.exe command
D. The Add-Computer cmdlet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains three domain DC3 loses network connectivity due to a hardware failure. You plan to remove DC3 from the domain. You log on to DC3. You need to identify which service location (SRV) records are registered by DC3. What should you do?
070-410 dumps
A. Open the %windir%\system32\config\netlogon.dns file.
B. Run dcdiag /test:dns
C. Open the %windir%\system32\dns\backup\adatum.com.dns file.
D. Run ipconfig /displaydns.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Your network contains an Active Directory forest that contains three domains. A group named Group1 is configured as a domain local distribution group in the forest root domain. You plan to grant Group1 read-only access to a shared folder named Share1. Share1 is located in a child domain.
You need to ensure that the members of Group1 can access Share1.
What should you do first?
A. Convert Group1 to a global distribution group.
B. Convert Group1 to a universal security group.
C. Convert Group1 to a universal distribution group.
D. Convert Group1 to a domain local security group
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 R2. One of the domain controllers is named DCI. The network contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to promote Server1 to a domain controller by using install from media (IFM).
What should you do first?
A. Create a system state backup of DC1.
B. Create IFM media on DC1.
C. Upgrade DC1 to Windows Server 2012 R2.
D. Run the Active Directory Domain Services Configuration Wizard on Server1.
E. Run the Active Directory Domain Services Installation Wizard on DC1.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 100 servers. The servers are contained in a organizational unit (OU) named ServersOU. 070-410 dumps You need to create a group named Group1 on all of the servers in the domain.
You must ensure that Group1 is added only to the servers.
What should you configure?
A. a Local Users and Groups preferences setting in a Group Policy linked to the Domain Controllers OU
B. a Restricted Groups setting in a Group Policy linked to the domain
C. a Local Users and Groups preferences setting in a Group Policy linked to ServersOU
D. a Restricted Groups setting in a Group Policy linked to ServersOU
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains several thousand member servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. All of the computer accounts for the member servers are in an organizational unit (OU) named ServersAccounts.
Servers are restarted only occasionally.
You need to identify which servers were restarted during the last two days.
What should you do?
A. Run dsquery computerand specify the -staiepwdpara meter.
B. Run Get-ADComputerand specify the SearchScope parameter.
C. Run Get-ADComputerand specify the IastLogonproperty.
D. Run dsquery serverand specify the -oparameter
Correct Answer: C

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Newest Cisco CCNP Wireless 300-360 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-12)

QUESTION 1
An engineer would like to calibrate the RF environment to improve accuracy.
Which wireless attribute is added to the foor-level calculation by calibrating the foor?
A. attenuation
B. TX power
C. multipath
D. SNR
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
An engineer is performing a predictive wireless design for a Parts Distribution Center which requires data and location services. Which three requirements are inputs to the design? (Choose three.)
A. access points with directional antennas
B. continuous -67 dBm coverage from one access point
C. overlapping -75 dBm coverage from three access points
D. overlapping -67 dBm coverage from two access points
E. access points in IPS mode
F. continuous -72 dBm coverage from one access point
G. accesspointsincornersandalongperimeters
Correct Answer: BCG

QUESTION 3
A customer is deploying a Greenfield 802.11ac network on a foor that will support approximately 300 wireless devices.
Which setting needs to be changed on Prime Infrastructure Planning Tool in order to predict the amount of access points the customer needs to service the new foor?
A. Data Coverage Support Margin
B. Demand Settings
C. Add AP Field
D. 802.11n Protocol Support
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which two options describe best practices that must be completed after a wireless installation is finished? 300-360 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Make sure that there are no spaces between the devices on the rack that the Wireless Lan Controller isinstalled.
B. Consult with the customer to ensure that the IT staff has a complete set of design and installationdocuments.
C. Make sure the customer is aware that they should consider purchasing a support contract immediately afterthe installationis complete.
D. Spend time with the customer to show them the controller GUI and inform them how they can reach the Cisco TAC if they have any problems.
E. Test all the customer’s wireless devices and applications to ensure they are working properly.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 5
An engineer is preparing for an outdoor wireless survey to mesh connect a distant remote building to a connected building.
Which two types of antennas are appropriate for this application? (Choose two.)
A. circular polarized
B. patch
C. dish
D. Yagi
E. omni
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
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While testing the post-deployment WLAN network you discover that an AP has been placed in a difficult area. The AP cannot be moved easily because of various requirements. The client performance of various Apple and Microsoft operating system-based products does not meet expectations.
Which two options can help mitigate the performance issue? (Choose two.)
A. Add additional APs.
B. Increase the AP power level to maximum.
C. Rotate the AP 90 degrees to change antenna polarity.
D. Replace the AP with an AP and external antenna.
E. Change the AP location to one that is less RF hostile.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 7
An engineer is tuning RRM parameters to improve client connectivity. Which channel band results in the best 802.11n client compatibility?
A. UNII-2
B. UNII-2e
C. UNII-3
D. UNII
E. UNII-1
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8
An engineer is installing a wireless network in an industrial area with extreme temperatures and a significant amount of dust. Which enclosure should be used to protect the APs?
A. ACU
B. ADU
C. NEMA
D. WLSE
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
What are two advantages of conducting an active survey versus a passive survey when verifying RF coverage? (Choose two.)
A. verifies packet loss
B. verifies roaming
C. verifies SNR
D. verifies signal level
E. verifies interferers
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
An engineer is deploying an outdoor Mesh network. Which four major factors should be considered? (Choose four.)
A. power
B. buildings
C. traffic lights
D. satellite dishes
E. line of sight
F. network connectivity
G. power lines
H. mounting
Correct Answer: AEHF

QUESTION 11
A customer has deployed an N+N redundant wireless infrastructure. In this deployment the access points have been salt and peppered between controllers. 300-360 dumps
What configuration would be necessary to cut down on the use of mobility tunnels for voice clients?
A. mobility anchor
B. KIS based CAC
C. media session snooping
D. re-anchor roamed voice clients
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which two steps are associated with the active portion of the audit when a post-installation audit is performed with an auditing tool such as Ekahau? (Choose two.)
A. Check for co-channel interference by standing near an access point on one channel and watching for other access points that are on the same channel.
B. Verify smooth roaming.
C. Check to see if the signal level on other access points that are heard on the same channel is at least 19dBm weaker than the access point that you are next to.
D. Check that all channels are supported by the APs regardless of client capabilities.
E. Verify that the network traffic of physical data rate and packet loss meets user requirements.
Correct Answer: BE

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Best Citrix CCP-M 1Y0-371 dumps exam questions and answers (Q1-Q20)

QUESTION 1
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to deploy the WorxWeb mobile application. However, management does NOT want users to use WorxWeb for Internet browsing through the Micro VPN tunnel.
Which MDX policy configuration must the engineer implement to meet the requirements outlined in the scenario?
A. Set the Require WiFi policy to ‘On’.
B. Set Network Access to ‘Unrestricted’.
C. Set the Require Internal Network policy to ‘On’.
D. Set Network Access to ‘Tunneled to internal network’.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A Citrix Engineer is integrating a Microsoft Certificate Authority server with the XenMobile Device Manager to provide certificate-based authentication for Wi-Fi.
Which iOS policy must the engineer configure to deploy the certificate to devices?
A. iOS SCEP
B. iOS Certificate
C. iOS Credentials
D. iOS App Configuration
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A Citrix Engineer needs to load balance enrollment requests from Apple iOS devices.
The engineer should implement an SSL Offload virtual server using __________ protocol and port __________. (Choose the correct set of options to complete the sentence.)
A. SSL; 443
B. TCP; 443
C. SSL; 8443
D. TCP; 8443
ACorrect nswer: C

QUESTION 4
A school has a pool of mobile devices that students use on premises for coursework.
How could a Citrix Engineer configure XenMobile Device Manager to warn the user when the device is taken off campus?
A. Deploy a Roaming Configuration policy.
B. Issue a Locate from the Device Security menu.
C. Enable Tracking from the Device Security menu.
D. Set the Geo-fencing options in a Location Services policy.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which two policies should a Citrix Engineer add to a deployment package to set the status of a user’s device to Out of Compliance and notify the engineer whenever a user installs a blacklisted application on an enrolled device? 1Y0-371 dumps (Choose two.)
A. App Lock
B. Restriction
C. Automated Actions
D. Applications Access
Correct Answer: C,D

QUESTION 6
Which two settings could a Citrix Engineer configure during Express Setup on the App Controller console? (Choose two.)
A. License file
B. NTP Server
C. DNS Servers
D. HA Peer address
Correct Answer: B,C

QUESTION 7
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to provide users with remote access to SaaS applications managed by XenMobile. Users will access the applications on their mobile devices through Worx Home.
Which two options should the engineer configure in the session profile on the NetScaler? (Choose two.)
A. ICAProxy OFF
B. Clientless Access ON
C. URL Encoding OBSCURE
D. Single Sign-on to Web Applications DISABLED
Correct Answer: A,B

QUESTION 8
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to provide users with remote access to SaaS applications managed by XenMobile. Users will access the applications on their mobile devices through Worx Home.
Which two options should the engineer configure in the session profile on the NetScaler? (Choose two.)
A. ICAProxy OFF
B. Clientless Access ON
C. URL Encoding OBSCURE
D. Single Sign-on to Web Applications DISABLED
Correct Answer: A,B

QUESTION 9
Scenario:StoreFront is implemented as part of a XenMobile solution. Users in the environment currently rely on HTML5 Receiver because Citrix Receiver is NOT installed on their workstations.
How could a Citrix Engineer present Web/SaaS applications to these users based on the scenario?
A. Enable StoreFront to aggregate App Controller apps.
B. Add the App Controller server to StoreFront as a Delivery Controller.
C. Enable the ‘Require app installation’ option in the Web/SaaS application properties.
D. Add the StoreFront Legacy support URL to the Windows Apps Configuration on the App
Controller.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Scenario: An organization just acquired another organization and must create a new secure LDAP configuration to enable mobile device enrollment for the new domain users. The new domain will be called domain.local and will be hosted in a remote datacenter.
Which two tasks must a Citrix Engineer complete in order to successfully complete this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Open port 389 on the firewall.
B. Open port 636 on the firewall.
C. Install an Active Directory root certificate on the Device Manager server.
D. Configure two-way transitive trust between the new and existing domains.
Correct Answer: B,C

QUESTION 11
How could a Citrix Engineer ensure that Android devices remain connected to XenMobile Device Manager after successful enrollment?
A. Deploy an Android ‘Scheduling’ policy.
B. Modify the Android ‘XenMobile options’ policy settings.
C. Set the Deployment schedule to ‘on every connection’.
D. Change the Global Scheduling settings in XenMobile Server Options.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
In order to send email enrollment invitations to iOS devices through the XenMobile Device Manager, a Citrix Engineer must configure __________. 1Y0-371 dumps (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. LDAP configuration
B. a valid root certificate
C. an SMTP notification server
D. IMEI numbers for all devices
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Scenario: An Automated Action set to trigger on the event “Device noncompliance of B/W app policy” is configured to notify the user with the following message:
“This application is not approved for your mobile device. Please remove it or access to your email will be denied.”
Which type of Access policy should a Citrix Engineer create to support implementation of the Automated Action?
A. Forbidden
B. Restriction
C. Required list
D. Suggested list
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Scenario: A cloud service provider hosts XenMobile solutions for multiple clients and manages the XenMobile solutions through the Multi-Tenant Console. A Citrix Engineer needs to configure the Multi-Tenant Console to allow some clients to report on their tenants.
How would the engineer configure the Multi-Tenant Console so that a client only sees the accounts relevant to them?
A. Run a report and filter for clients.
B. Add an administrator user and assign it client privileges.
C. Edit each tenant and assign the client from the dropdown list.
D. Create a role with privileges to view tenants only and add the client.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer installed a XenMobile Device Manager server with XenMobile NetScaler Connector (XNC) accepting the default settings. The server has two NICs; one is in the DMZ, dedicated to communicate with the NetScaler, and one is dedicated for internal LAN communication.
How could the engineer set the XNC web service to securely listen on the NIC in the DMZ only?
A. Change the value from 0.0.0.0:80 to the :80
B. Change the value from 0.0.0.0:443 to the :443
C. Change the value from 0.0.0.0:9080 to the :9080
D. Change the value from 0.0.0.0:9443 to the :9443
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
A Citrix Engineer set up XenMobile Device Manager and successfully enrolled Android devices, but is NOT able to enroll an iOS device.
What should the engineer do to ensure the iOS device is enrolled?
A. Check that port 8443 is open to the XenMobile Device Manager.
B. Verify that Worx Home is being deployed from an iOS deployment package.
C. Check the inbound communications to XenMobile Device Manager on port 5223.
D. Ensure that the XenMobile Device Manager has external access to Apple Push Notification Service.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer configured XenMobile NetScaler Connector with XenMobile Device Manager to restrict the ability to actively sync email based on mobile device requirements. The engineer must NOT allow devices that are outside a specific geographic location, have the Twitter application installed or have NOT communicated with XenMobile Device Manager in more than seven days. 1Y0-371 dumps
Which three filters should the engineer configure in the XenMobile Device Manager to meet the security requirements? (Choose three.)
A. Revoked status
B. Inactive devices
C. Blacklisted apps
D. Whitelisted apps only
E. Out of compliance devices
Correct Answer: B,C,E

QUESTION 18
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer installed and configured XenMobile Mail Manager to connect to Exchange and XenMobile Device Manager. Devices are being filtered for email access. The engineer needs to apply existing Exchange rules to unmanaged devices for access to email.
Which step could the engineer take to meet the requirements outlined in the scenario?
A. Configure the Default Access Rule as ‘Allow’.
B. Create a Local Rule to allow unmanaged devices.
C. Configure the Default Access Rule as ‘Unchanged’.
D. Configure the ActiveSync Command Mode using Powershell.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer is responsible for XenMobile Device Manager which deploys internal mobile applications, client certificates, and exchange profiles. An employee who has resigned has requested that all company data be removed from his Android mobile device.
How should the engineer accomplish this?
A. Full Wipe
B. Selective Wipe
C. Device Revoke
D. Lock the device container
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer creates a base deployment package for Android that includes Software Inventory, Remote Support Tunnel and a Passcode policy. After the device enrollment is completed and the base package is pushed out to users successfully, the engineer realizes that a Location Services policy needs to be added to the base package. After adding the policy to the base package successfully, the engineer notices that the policy is NOT being applied to previously enrolled Android devices.
What could be the cause of this issue?
A. APNS communication may be blocked at the firewall.
B. Location Services was disabled on the Android devices.
C. Location Services is NOT supported with the Android OS.
D. A Scheduling policy was NOT defined in the base package.
Correct Answer: D

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