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QUESTION 1
Which Cisco WebEx product can be integrated in a CMR Cloud or CMR Hybrid deployment?
A. Cisco WebEx Training Center
B. Cisco WebEx Meeting Center
C. Cisco WebEx Support Center
D. Cisco WebEx Event Center
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
Which statement is true about APIs and SDKs?
A. SDKs specify how software components should interact
B. APIs consist of a set of SDKs, sample code, technical notes, and debugging facilities.
C. SDKs can be used without APIs.
D. APIs can be used without SDKs.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
Which premise-based conferencing solution supports Skype for Business and WebRTC?
A. TelePresence Server
B. Spark
C. Cisco Meeting Server
D. Cisco WebEx
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Which is a call Control Device in a Cisco Collaboration environment?
A. Cisco Meeting Server
B. Cisco Telepresence Management Suite
C. Cisco Content Server
D. Cisco Expressway
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
What is a function of an-endpoint?
A. To Join 3 or more participants in a meeting
B. To provide an audio and video interface for the user.
C. To schedule calls.
D. To act as a traffic cop for network communication.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
Which ports are used for SIP calling on the Expressway?
A. 5060 and 5061
B. 164 and 323
C. 80 and 443
D. 1719 and 1720
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
What protocol does an Expressway use to send the can setup message in an H.323 call?
A. H.245
B. H.239
C. T.120
D. Q.931
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 8
Which conferencing solution is designed for messaging, meeting, calling and persistent Sharing?
A. Cisco Meeting Server
B. CMR
C. TelePresence Server
D. Spark
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
Which is a Cisco Spark Service Add-ons?
A. Calling
B. Messaging
C. Room Registration
D. Meeting
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
What is a function of a call control solution?
A. To make, monitor and maintain calls
B. To provide an audio and video interface for the user
C. To join 3 or more participants in a meeting.
D. To schedule calls
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
Which is a method used by the Expressway for bandwidth control?
A. Zones
B. Hunt Groups
C. Subzones
D. Regions
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
What is oAuth?
A. A type of authentication used when integrating a Cloud applications with a Premises solution.
B. Allows a user to act on behalf of an application
C. Allows an application to act on behalf of a user
D. A type of authentication used when users sign into Cloud applications, such as Cisco Spark
Correct Answer: B
https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/jabber/11_9/Unified-CM-OAuth-Whitepaper-v17-FINAL.pdf

 

QUESTION 13
Which Cisco WebEx Center has program and campaign management?
A. Cisco WebEx Support Center
B. Cisco WebEx Training Center
C. Cisco WebEx Meeting Center
D. Cisco WebEx Event Center
Correct Answer: D

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Free test Cisco CCNA 200-125 Exam Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
Which DTP switch port mode allows the port to create a trunk link if the neighboring port is in trunk mode, dynamic
desirable mode, or desirable auto mode?
A. trunk
B. access
C. dynamic desirable
D. dynamic auto
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 200-125 exam question q2 Assuming that the entire network topology is shown, what is the operational status of the interfaces of R2 as indicated
by the command output is shown?
A. One interface has a problem.
B. Two interfaces have problems.
C. The interfaces are functioning correctly.
D. The operational status of the interfaces cannot be determined from the output shown.
Correct Answer: C
The output shown shows the normal operational status of the router\\’s interfaces. Serial0/0 is down because it has been
disabled using the “shutdown” command.

 

QUESTION 3
You are implementing ElGRP between the main office and branch offices. In Phase 1 you must implement and verify
EIGRP configurations as mentioned in the topology in Phase 2. your colleague is expected to do NAT and ISP
configurations
Identify the issues that you are encountering during Phase 1 EIGRP implementation.
Router R1 connects the main office to the Internet and routers R2 and R3 are internal routers.
Routers Branch 1 and Branch2 connect to router R2 in the main office.
Users from the Branch1 LAN network 10 20 40 0724 are expected to perform testing of the application that is hosted on
the servers in Server farm1 before servers are available for production.
– The GRE tunnel is configured between R3 and Branch1, and traffic between server farm1 and Branch1 LAN network
10 20 40 0/24 is routed through the GRE tunnel using static routes
The link between Branch1 and Branch2 is used as a secondary path in the event of failure of the primary path to mam
office You have console access on R1. R2. R3. Branch1 and Branch2 devices Use only show commands to
troubleshoot the issues Topology: Examine the R1 routing table. None of the internal routes other than locally
connected appear in the routing table Which cause of the issue is true?lead4pass 200-125 exam question q3 lead4pass 200-125 exam question q3-1

A. EIGRP neighbor relationship was not formed due to AS mismatch between routers R1 and R2.
B. EIGRP neighbor relationship was not formed due to K values mismatch between routers R1 and R2.
C. EIGRP packets were blocked by the inbound ACL on R1.
D. The IP address was misconfigured between the R1 and R2 interfaces
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
What are three reasons to collect Netflow data on a company network? (Choose three.)
A. To identify applications causing congestion.
B. To authorize user network access.
C. To report and alert link up / down instances.
D. To diagnose slow network performance, bandwidth hogs, and bandwidth utilization.
E. To detect suboptimal routing in the network.
F. To confirm the appropriate amount of bandwidth that has been allocated to each Class of Service.
Correct Answer: ADF
NetFlow facilitates solutions to many common problems encountered by IT professionals. + Analyze new applications
and their network impact Identify new application network loads such as VoIP or remote site additions.
+
Reduction in peak WAN traffic
Use NetFlow statistics to measure WAN traffic improvement from application-policy changes; understand who is utilizing
the network and the network top talkers. + Troubleshooting and understanding network pain points Diagnose slow network performance, bandwidth hogs, and bandwidth utilization quickly with command line interface or reporting tools.
-> D is correct.
+
Detection of unauthorized WAN traffic
Avoid costly upgrades by identifying the applications causing congestion. -> A is correct.
+
Security and anomaly detection
NetFlow can be used for anomaly detection and worm diagnosis along with applications such as Cisco CS-Mars.
+
Validation of QoS parameters
Confirm that appropriate bandwidth has been allocated to each Class of Service (CoS) and that no CoS is over- or
under-subscribed.-> F is correct.

 

QUESTION 5
Which two statements about the spanning-tree bridge ID are true? (Choose two.)
A. It is composed of a 4-bit bridge priority and a 12-bit system ID extension.
B. The bridge ID is transmitted in the IP header to elect the root bridge.
C. The system ID extension is a value between 1 and 4095.
D. It is composed of an 8-bit bridge priority and a 16-bit system ID extension.
E. The bridge priority must be incremented in blocks of 4096.
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 200-125 exam question q6

A frame on VLAN 1 on switch S1 is sent to switch S2 where the frame is received on VLAN
2. What causes this behavior?
A. trunk mode mismatches
B. allowing only VLAN 2 on the destination
C. native VLAN mismatches
D. VLANs that do not correspond to a unique IP subnet
Correct Answer: C
Untagged frames are encapsulated with the native VLAN. In this case, the native VLANs are different so although S1
will tag it as VLAN 1 it will be received by S2.

 

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 200-125 exam question q7

After HostA pings HostB, which entry will be in the ARP cache of HostA to support this transmission?

lead4pass 200-125 exam question q7-1

A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D
E. Exhibit E
F. Exhibit F
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Host A knows host B is in another network so it will send the pings to its default gateway 192.168.6.1. Host A sends a
broadcast frame asking the MAC address of 192.168.6.1. This information (IP and MAC address of the default gateway)
is saved in its ARP cache for later use.

 

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibitlead4pass 200-125 exam question q8

You are configuring the router to provide Static NAT for the web server. Drag and drop the configuration commands
from left onto the letters that correspond to its position in the configuration on the right.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 200-125 exam question q8-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 200-125 exam question q8-2

Explanation

 

QUESTION 9
Several users on your network have complained of connectivity issues to a specific host. While troubleshooting task can
you perform to eliminate DNS issues as the cause?
A. Connect to the host by its IP address
B. Verity the DHCP settings on the host
C. Verity that a valid route to the host is present in the routing table
D. Connect to the host by its FQDN
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
Which two operational modes are supported on the members of a StackWise switch stack? (Choose two)
A. power-sharing
B. passive
C. active
D. redundant
E. standby
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 11
While troubleshooting a GRE tunnel interface issue, show interface command output displays tunnel status up, but the line protocol is down.
Which reason for this problem is most likely?
A. The route to the tunnel destination address is through the tunnel itself
B. The next hop server is misconfigured
C. The interface has been administratively shut down
D. The tunnel was just reset
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 12
What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
A. the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets
B. the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
C. the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality
D. the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
E. the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 13
Which statement about VLAN operation on Cisco Catalyst switches is true?
A. When a packet is received from an 802.1Q trunk, the VLAN ID can be determined from the source MAC address and
the MAC address table.
B. Unknown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same VLAN.
C. Broadcast and multicast frames are retransmitted to ports that are configured on different VLAN.
D. Ports between switches should be configured in access mode so that VLANs can span across the ports.
Correct Answer: B
Each VLAN resides in its own broadcast domain, so incoming frames with unknown destinations are only transmitted to
ports that reside in the same VLAN as the incoming frame.

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Latest Cisco ICND2 200-105 dumps, 200-105 exam practice test questions and answers

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Free test Cisco ICND2 200-105 Exam Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
Which two are features of IPv6? (Choose two.)
A. anycast
B. broadcast
C. multicast
D. podcast
E. allcast
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 2
Which option is the industry-standard protocol for EtherChannel?
A. Cisco Discovery Protocol
B. PAgp
C. LACP
D. DTP
Correct Answer: C
http://www.omnisecu.com/cisco-certified-network-associate-ccna/etherchannel-pagp-and-lacp-modes.php

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. The company uses EIGRP as the routing protocol.
What path will packets take from a host on 192.168.10.192/26 network to a host on the LAN attached to router R1?lead4pass 200-105 exam question q3

A. The path of the packets will be R3 to R2 to R1
B. The path of the packets will be R3 to R1 to R2
C. The path of the packets will be both R3 to R2 to R1 and R3 to R1
D. The path of the packets will be R3 to R1
Correct Answer: D
EIGRP Questions Looking at the output display above, the LAN attached to router R1 belongs to 192.168.20.64/26
subnet and learned this network via 192.168.20.9 which will be an IP address in 192.168.20.8/30 sub-network. This
means that packets destined for192.168.20.64 will be routed from R3 to R1.
Reference: http://www.9tut.net/icnd2/eigrp-questions http://www.orbitco-ccna-pastquestions.com/CCNA—EIGRP-Common-Question.php

 

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)lead4pass 200-105 exam question q4

A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Switch2 trunk ports must be
configured using the same encapsulation type.
Correct Answer: DF
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk815/technologies_configuration_eample09186a00800 949fd.shtml

 

QUESTION 5
Hotspot Questionlead4pass 200-105 exam question q5

After the network has converged, what type of messaging, if any, occurs between R3 and R4?
A. No messages are exchanged.
B. Hellos are sent every 10 seconds.
C. The full database from each router is sent every 30 seconds.
D. The routing table from each router is sent every 60 seconds.
Correct Answer: B
HELLO, messages are used to maintain adjacent neighbors so even when the network is converged, hellos are still
exchanged. On broadcast and point-to-point links, the default is 10 seconds, on NBMA the default is 30 seconds.

 

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
Which of these correctly describes the results of the port security violation of an unknown packet?lead4pass 200-105 exam question q6

A. port enabled; unknown packets dropped; no SNMP or Syslog messages
B. port enabled; unknown packets dropped; SNMP or Syslog messages
C. port disabled; no SNMP or Syslog messages
D. port disabled; SNMP or Syslog messages
Correct Answer: D
Configuring Port Security
http://packetlife.net/blog/2010/may/3/port-security/
We can view the default port security configuration with show port-security:

lead4pass 200-105 exam question q6-1

http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=1722561 Switchport Security Violations The second piece of
switch port port-security that must be understood is a security violation including what it is what causes it and what the
different violation modes that exist. A switch port violation occurs in one of two situations: When the maximum number of
secure MAC addresses have been reached (by default, the maximum number of secure MAC addresses per switch port is
limited to 1) An address learned or configured on one secure interface is seen on another secure interface in the same
VLAN The action that the device takes when one of these violations occurs can be configured: Protect–This mode
permits traffic from known MAC addresses to continue to be forwarded while dropping traffic from unknown MAC
addresses when over the allowed MAC address limit. When configured with this mode, no notification action is taken
when traffic is dropped. Restrict–This mode permits traffic from known MAC addresses to continue to be forwarded
while dropping traffic from unknown MAC addresses when over the allowed MAC address limit. When configured with
this mode, a syslog message is logged, a Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) trap is sent, and a violation counter is incremented when traffic is dropped. Shutdown–This mode is the default violation mode; when in this mode,
the switch will automatically force the switch port into an error-disabled (err-disable) state when a violation occurs. While
in this state, the switch port forwards no traffic. The switch port can be brought out of this error-disabled state by issuing
the errdisable recovery cause CLI command or by disabling and re-enabling the switch port. Shutdown VLAN–This
mode mimics the behavior of the shutdown mode but limits the error-disabled state the specific violating VLAN.

 

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. How should Switch1 and Switch2 be connected in order to allow full communication between all of
the hosts?lead4pass 200-105 exam question q7 lead4pass 200-105 exam question q7-1

A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D
E. Exhibit E
F. Exhibit F
Correct Answer: F

 

QUESTION 8
Which two benefits of implementing a full mesh wan topology are true? (Choose two)
A. redundancy
B. reduced jitter
C. increased latency
D. improved scalability
E. reliability
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting a switch, you executed the show interface port-channel 1 EtherChannel
command and it returned this output. Which information is provided by the Load value?lead4pass 200-105 exam question q9

A. the percentage of use of the link
B. the preference of the link
C. the session count of the link
D. the number source-destination pairs on the link
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
Which function does traffic shaping perform?
A. it buffers traffic without queuing it
B. it queues traffic without buffering it
C. it drops packets to control the output rate
D. it buffers and queues excess packets
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 11
What is the result of issuing the frame-relay map IP 192.168.1.2 202 broadcast command?
A. defines the destination IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202
B. defines the source IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202
C. defines the DLCI on which packets from the 192.168.1.2 IP address are received
D. defines the DLCI that is used for all packets that are sent to the 192.168.1.2 IP address
Correct Answer: D
frame-relay map IP 192.168.1.2 202 command statically defines a mapping between a network layer address and a
DLCI. The broadcast option allows multicast and broadcast packets to flow across the link. The command frame-relay
map IP
192.168.1.2 202 broadcast means to map the distal IP 192.168.1.2 202 to the local DLCI. When the “broadcast”
the keyword is included, it turns Frame Relay network as a broadcast network, which can forward broadcasts.
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/wan/command/reference/wan_f2.html#wp1012264lead4pass 200-105 exam question q11

 

 

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. A technician is testing connection problems in the internetwork. What is the problem indicated by
the output from HostA?lead4pass 200-105 exam question q12

A. The routing on Router2 is not functioning properly.
B. An access list is applied to an interface of Router3.
C. The Fa0/24 interface of Switch1 is down.
D. The gateway address of HostA is incorrect or not configured.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
Which two commands debug a PPPoE connection that has failed to establish? (Choose two.)
A. Debug PPP compression
B. Debug PPP negotiation
C. Debug dialer events
D. Debug PPP cbcp
E. Debug dialer packet
Correct Answer: BE

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Latest effective Microsoft MCSE-Microsoft System Center 70-703 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch) that contains a collection named
Restricted. Restricted contains only client computers that run Windows 10.
You need to ensure that only trusted executable files can run on the computers in the Restricted collection.
What should you do?
A. Deploy custom Client Device Settings.
B. Create a Windows Defender Application Control (WDAC) policy.
C. Modify the Default Client Settings.
D. Create a device compliancy policy.
Correct Answer: B
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/protect/deploy-use/use-device-guard-with-configuration-manager


QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your company has client computers that run either the 32-bit version of Windows 8 or the 64-bit version of Windows 10.
You need to install a line-of-business application to the computers. The 64-bit version of the application must be
installed on the Windows 10 computers.
Solution: Create one application that has two deployment types. Configure a requirement for each deployment type.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/canitpro/2013/06/02/step-by-step-managing-multiple-versions-of-the-same-
application-via-system-center-configuration-manager/


QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
You configure hybrid mobile device management (MDM).
You have a support technician named User1.
Your company purchases 300 Apple iPhones.
You need to ensure that User1 can enroll the iPhones.
Solution: From a web browser, you request an Enrollment Agent certificate from a certification authority (CA).
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/mdm/deploy-use/enroll-devices-with-device-enrollment-manager


QUESTION 4
You install the System Center Configuration Manager client on a computer.
When you check the Configuration Manager console, the computer does not appear in the console. Other computers
appear in the console.
You need to review the Configuration Manager logs for the computer.
What should you use?
A. the cmtrace.exe command
B. the Configuration Manager console
C. the statview.exe command
D. the Event Viewer console
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/plan-design/hierarchy/log-files


QUESTION 5
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
Your company has a main office and a branch office. The branch office has five users. Some users use laptops and
some users use desktop computers.
All the servers for the company are located in the main office. The branch office connects to the main office by using a
VPN over a DSL connection to the main office.
You need to minimize the bandwidth used to deploy updates to branch office clients over the VPN connection.
The solution must minimize costs.
What should you configure in the branch office?
A. a distribution point
B. a software update point
C. a secondary site server
D. a cloud-based distribution point
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/plan-design/hierarchy/design-a-hierarchy-of-sites


QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch). You deploy the first primary site
server to your organization. Discovery is not configured. You need to deploy the Configuration Manager client to five
client computers in a workgroup. Solution: You deploy the client by using a Group Policy software installation. Does this
meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your company has client computers that run either the 32-bit version of Windows 8 or the 64-bit version of Windows 10.
You need to install a line-of-business application to the computers. The 64-bit version of the application must be
installed on the Windows 10 computers.
Solution: Create one application that has one deployment type. Configure two requirements for the deployment type.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/canitpro/2013/06/02/step-by-step-managing-multiple-versions-of-the-same-
application-via-system-center-configuration-manager/


QUESTION 8
You upgrade a Configuration Manager site by using Updates and Servicing. You do not upgrade the Configuration
Manager client.
You need to pilot the upgrade of the Configuration Manager client on 10 percent of the computers.
What should you do?
A. Create a collection that contains the pilot clients. From the Hierarchy Settings Properties, configure the Client
Upgrade settings. Modify the setting for the production client.
B. Create a collection that contains the pilot clients. From the Hierarchy Settings Properties, configure the Client
Upgrade settings. Modify the setting for the pre-production client.
C. In the Site Maintenance settings, modify the Clear Install Flag maintenance task. From the Hierarchy Settings
Properties, configure the Client Upgrade settings. Modify the settings for the production client.
D. Create an Active Directory security group that contains the pilot clients. In the Site Maintenance
E. settings, modify the Update Application Available Targeting maintenance task.
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/clients/manage/upgrade/test-client-upgrades


QUESTION 9
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is
repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is
exactly the same in each question in this series.
Start of repeated scenario.
You work for a company named ADatum Corporation.
The ADatum network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com.
You have a partner company named Contoso, Ltd. The Contoso network contains an Active Directory domain named
adatum.com.
All the client computers at both companies run Windows 10.
Each company has a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
ADatum has sales and IT departments. ADatum has a collection for each department.
Contoso has research, marketing, and human resources (HR) departments. Contoso has a collection for each
department.
ADatum purchases Contoso.
You configure on-premises mobile device management (MDM) in adatum.com. You enroll the client computers in the IT
department into on-premises MDM.
You configure hybrid MDM in contoso.com.
End of repeated scenario.
You need to ensure that when the users at Contoso enroll into MDM, they accept the usage policy of Contoso.
What should you do?
A. From Microsoft Intune in the Microsoft Azure portal, click Device compliance and configure the Compliance policy
settings.
B. From the Configuration Manager console, open the Assets and Compliance workspace and configure the terms and
conditions.
C. From Microsoft Intune in the Microsoft Azure portal, click Device enrollment and configure the terms and conditions.
D. From the Configuration manager console, open the Assets and Compliance workspace and configure a compliance
policy.
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/mdm/deploy-use/terms-and-conditions


QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your company has client computers that run either the 32-bit version of Windows 8 or the 64-bit version of Windows 10.
You need to install a line-of-business application to the computers. The 64-bit version of the application must be
installed on the Windows 10 computers.
Solution: Create two applications that each has one deployment type. Configure a requirement for each deployment
type.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/canitpro/2013/06/02/step-by-step-managing-multiple-versions-of-the-same-
application-via-system-center-configuration-manager/


QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
You configure a cloud management gateway for Configuration Manager.
You have a client computer that is currently on the corporate network.
You need to force the computer to get the location of the cloud management gateway immediately.
Solution: You restart the Network Location Awareness service.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch) that you use to manage devices on
the corporate network.
You need to ensure that you can deploy software to Configuration Manager clients on the Internet.
What should you deploy?
A. a cloud-based distribution point in Microsoft Azure and the Microsoft Operations Management Suite (OMS)
connector
B. a management point and a service connection point in a perimeter network.
C. a cloud-based distribution point and a cloud management gateway in Microsoft Azure
D. a cloud-based distribution point in Microsoft Azure and a Microsoft Intune subscription
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/clients/manage/cmg/plan-cloud-management-gateway


QUESTION 13
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
You add the cloud management gateway connector point to the deployment Which site system role can be configured to
receive the traffic from the cloud management gateway?
A. Software update point
B. Asset Intelligence synchronization point
C. Service connection point
D. Distribution point
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 14
You have a device collection named Collection1.
Currently, you use an automated deployment rule (ADR) to deploy updates as quickly as possible to Collection1.
You need to ensure that the updates are installed during a predefined period of time. The solution must affect the
updates only.
What should you do?
A. From the Membership Rules tab of Collection1, schedule an incremental update of the collection.
B. From the Maintenance Windows tab of Collection1, create a new schedule that applies to all deployments.
C. From the Membership Rules tab of Collection1, schedule a full update of the collection.
D. From the Maintenance Windows tab of Collection1, create a new schedule that applies to software updates only.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh508762.aspx


QUESTION 15
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You deploy the first primary site server to your organization. Discovery is not configured.
You need to deploy the Configuration Manager client to five client computers in a workgroup.
Solution: You deploy the client by using a software deployment.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/clients/deploy/deploy-clients-to-windows-computers


QUESTION 16
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
You currently deploy all Windows updates by using Configuration Manager.
You pilot the deployment of Click-to-Run for Office 365 and discover that clients are downloading updates for Office 365
from the Internet.
You need to manage the updates for Click-to-Run for Office 365.
What should you do?
A. Create an automatic deployment rule (ADR) for software updates.
B. From Default Client Settings, click Software Updates and set Enable installation of Express installation files on clients
to Yes.
C. Create a deployment package for software updates.
D. From Default Client Settings, click Software Updates and set Enable management of the Office 365 Client Agent to
Yes.
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/servers/deploy/configure/deploy-and-manage-content


QUESTION 17
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
You need to ensure that the CIO of your company automatically receives the Antimalware overall status and history
report by email every week.
What should you do first?
A. Configure the SMTP Settings in Microsoft SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS).
B. Create a subscription in Configuration Manager.
C. Configure the execution account for Microsoft SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS).
D. Configure the Subscription Schedule in Configuration Manager.
Correct Answer: B
https://github.com/MicrosoftDocs/SCCMdocs/blob/master/sccm/core/servers/manage/operations-and-maintenance-for-
reporting.md


QUESTION 18
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch) that you use to manage devices on
the corporate network. You need to ensure that you can deploy software to Configuration Manager clients on the
Internet.
What should you deploy?
A. a management point on a perimeter network and a cloud management gateway in Microsoft Azure
B. a cloud-based distribution point in Microsoft Azure and the Microsoft Operations Management Suite (OMS)
connector
C. a distribution point and a management point on a perimeter network
D. a cloud management gateway and the Microsoft Azure Service for Cloud Management in Microsoft Azure
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/clients/manage/cmg/plan-cloud-management-gateway


QUESTION 19
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named adatum.com. All client computers run Windows 10.
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch) that contains a primary site named
S01. S01 contains the servers shown in the following table.lead4pass 70-703 exam question q19You plan to use Configuration Manager to deploy software updates.
You create a software update group named UpdateGroup1.
You need to ensure that you can deploy express installation files to the client computers.
What should you configure?
A. the Software update point Properties of Server1
B. the Distribution point Properties of Server2
C. the Software Update Point Component Properties of S01
D. the Service connection point Properties of Server3
Correct Answer: A
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/sum/deploy-use/manage-express-installation-files-for-windows-10-updates


QUESTION 20
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is
repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is
exactly the same in each question in this series.
Start of repeated scenario.
You work for a company named ADatum Corporation.
The ADatum network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com.
You have a partner company named Contoso, Ltd. The Contoso network contains an Active Directory domain named
adatum.com.
All the client computers at both companies run Windows 10.
Each company has a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
ADatum has sales and IT departments. ADatum has a collection for each department.
Contoso has research, marketing, and human resources (HR) departments. Contoso has a collection for each
department.
ADatum purchases Contoso.
You configure on-premises mobile device management (MDM) in adatum.com. You enroll the client computers in the IT
department into on-premises MDM.
You configure hybrid MDM in contoso.com.
End of repeated scenario.
You need to enroll the computers of the managers into MDM.
What are two possible ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Instruct the managers to run the Add-Computer cmdlet.
B. Distribute a provisioning package to the managers. Instruct the managers to run the provisioning package.
C. Instruct the managers to use the Settings app to connect to a work or school account.
D. Instruct the managers to modify the network ID from the System settings.
Correct Answer: BC
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/client-management/mdm/bulk-enrollment-using-windows-provisioning-tool
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/mdm/deploy-use/user-enroll-devices-on-premises-mdm


QUESTION 21
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
You configure hybrid mobile device management (MDM).
You have a support technician named User1.
Your company purchases 300 Apple iPhones.
You need to ensure that User1 can enroll the iPhones.
Solution: From the Microsoft Intune Subscription Properties, you add User1 as a Device Enrollment Manager.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/mdm/deploy-use/enroll-devices-with-device-enrollment-manager


QUESTION 22
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
Your company opens a new office. All the client computers in the new office use IPv6 addresses only. The IPv6 address
of one of the computers is 2001:3823:2c50:6a39:e976:b0eb:93f7:fb41.
You need to configure an IPv6 boundary in Configuration Manager for the new office.
What should you use to configure the boundary?
A. 2001:3823:2c50:6a39
B. ::93f7:fb41
C. 2001:3823::
D. e976:b0eb:93f7:fb41
Correct Answer: A
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/servers/deploy/configure/boundaries https://networklessons.com/ipv6/how-
to-find-ipv6-prefix/


QUESTION 23
You use System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch) to manage client computers that run Windows 7. You
have a Microsoft Application Visualization {App-V) package named Appl.
You need to deploy App1 to the computers by using Configuration Manager and ensure that the App1 runs.
What should you do first?
A. Install the App-V Sequencer on a reference computer.
B. From the Configuration Manager console, create an App-V virtual environment.
C. Deploy the App-V client to the computers.
D. Configure the Enable App-V Client setting by using a Group Policy object (GPO).
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 24
You deploy System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch) to manage desktop computers.
On the reporting services point, you discover that the following reports are missing:
Application Deployment – Historical
List of Malware Detected – Historical
General Software Inventory – Historical
General Hardware Inventory – Historical
Infrastructure Health Overview – Historical
Software Distribution Summary – Historical
Endpoint Protection and Software Update Compliance – Historical
You need to ensure that you can generate reports for long-term historical data.
What should you do first?
A. Create report subscriptions.
B. Install Microsoft SQL Server Report Builder.
C. Modify the properties of the reporting services point.
D. Add a Data Warehouse service point.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/servers/manage/data-warehouse


QUESTION 25
You configure a task sequence in System Center Configuration Manager.
You need to ensure that the support department can see the progress of the task sequence only.
What should you do?
A. Assign the db_datareader role to the users in the support department.
B. Create a monitoring query based on a task sequence.
C. Create a status message query.
D. Create a monitoring query that is limited to a collection.
Correct Answer: C
http://www.scconfigmgr.com/2014/02/27/monitor-osd-with-status-message-queries-in-configmgr-2012/


QUESTION 26
Your company has a main office and a branch office. The branch office connects to the main office by using a VPN over
DSL connection.
The branch office contains 500 client computers that run Windows 8.1. All the computers are on the same subnet.
You plan to upgrade the operating system on the computers by using Configuration Manager. During the upgrade
process, you will maintain the user state and the files.
You need to recommend a solution to reduce the amount of WAN traffic during the operating system deployments.
Which two components should you include in the recommendation? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. a state migration point
B. a distribution point
C. a management point
D. a cloud-based distribution point
E. a cloud management gateway
F. a fallback status point
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 27
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch). You use Configuration Manager to
deploy Windows 10.
You discover that newly deployed images of Windows 10 are missing several Windows 10 updates.
When you attempt to deploy the updates by using the Schedule Updates Wizard, the process fails, and you receive the
following error message: “Failed to apply one or more updates.”
Which log file should you view to get additional information about the failure?
A. ScanAgent.log
B. UpdatesHandler.log
C. OfflineServicingMgr.log
D. UpdatesDeployment.log
E. WUAHandler.log
Correct Answer: C
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh427342.aspx


QUESTION 28
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You deploy the first primary site server to your organization. Discovery is not configured.
You need to deploy the Configuration Manager client to five client computers in a workgroup.
Solution: You configure client push installations.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/clients/deploy/deploy-clients-to-windows-computers


QUESTION 29
You deploy the System Center Configuration Manager client to all domain-joined computers that run Windows.
From Resource Explorer, you view the hardware and software inventory information of the computers.
When you run the Hardware 07A ?USB Devices by Manufacturer report, the report does not produce any results.
What should you do to ensure that the report contains results?
A. Enable Asset Intelligence hardware inventory reporting classes.
B. Enable software metering on the clients.
C. Configure the Summarize Installed Software Data maintenance task.
D. Configure an Asset Intelligence synchronization point.
Correct Answer: A
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/clients/manage/asset-intelligence/introduction-to-asset-intelligence
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/clients/manage/asset-intelligence/configuring-asset-intelligence


QUESTION 30
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is
repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is
exactly the same in each question in this series.
Start of repeated scenario.
You work for a company named ADatum Corporation.
The ADatum network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com.
You have a partner company named Contoso, Ltd. The Contoso network contains an Active Directory domain named
adatum.com.
All the client computers at both companies run Windows 10.
Each company has a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
ADatum has sales and IT departments. ADatum has a collection for each department.
Contoso has research, marketing, and human resources (HR) departments. Contoso has a collection for each
department.
ADatum purchases Contoso.
You configure on-premises mobile device management (MDM) in adatum.com. You enroll the client computers in the IT
department into on-premises MDM.
You configure hybrid MDM in contoso.com.
End of repeated scenario.
You need to enroll the client computers in the sales department into MDM.
What should you do on the sales department computers?
A. Install the Configuration Manager client.
B. Run the Add-Computer cmdlet.
C. Use the Settings app to connect the computers to a work or school account.
D. Install the Microsoft Intune software client.
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/mdm/deploy-use/user-enroll-devices-on-premises-mdm

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Latest effective Cisco Business Architecture Analyst 810-440 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1

During a business lead engagement, which role of the aspiring Cisco Business Architect is true? 

A. to be more business focused 

B. dedicated to running proof of value 

C. to be more technology focused 

D. to promote the business lead approach with other line of business 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 2

Which element delivers a long-term plan for how the business will achieve its target state and goals? 

A. Business priority 

B. Business outcome 

C. Business strategy 

D. Business requirement 

E. Business solution 

Correct Answer: C 

 

QUESTION 3

Which option is the main benefit of the Internet of Everything? 

A. makes better use of legacy investments 

B. brings improvements to businesses and people 

C. discrete focus on top industries health and finance 

D. compensates for errors in business process design 

Correct Answer: B 

 

QUESTION 4

Which two functions of the technology specialists in a Cisco Business Architecture engagement are true? (Choose

two.) 

A. Support the engagement that is led by the business architect. 

B. Owen the customer relationship. 

C. Define business capabilities. 

D. Focus on specific technical solutions 

Correct Answer: AD 

The Technology Specialists are focused on technology and in some situations they are needed to support the

engagement that the Cisco Business Architect leads. Outside of those engagements, the Technology Specialists may

be the people that are technically involved with the business stakeholders. The Technology Specialists must be aware

of the Cisco Business Architect skills and when and how they are applied. Being aware of the skills allows the

Technology Specialists to understand their role in the context of a business-led approach. In the case where the Cisco

Business Architect is responsible for the account the Technology Specialists will have a different role. 

 

QUESTION 5lead4pass 810-440 exam question q5Which description of the rote of the account manager is true?
A. The account manager is responsible for technology selection to sell into the account.
B. The account manager leads a business-led approach selecting the right technology to sell.
C. The account manager leads the customer engagement throughout the business-led approach.
D. The account manager is directly responsible for the customer relationship.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 6
Which are two characteristics of laissez-faire leadership styles? (Choose two.)
A. The leader has minimal involvement.
B. A trained and qualified team member leads efforts.
C. The leader provides rewards and incentives.
D. It involves a high level of communication
E. It is intended for team members who require close supervision.
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 7
Which two options have a positive impact on costs from the direct benefits provided by Cloud services and solutions?
(Choose two) A. Enabling rapid growth to new markets and geographies
B. Managing technology obsolescence
C. Managing technology innovation
D. Saving OpEx shifting to predicable CapEx
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 8
Which activity s performed by the Cisco business architect?
A. Develop low-level designs.
B. Determine the required business capabilities
C. Create a product build of materials
D. Provide product-specific technical support
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
Which benefit does the customer receive from a Cisco Business Architecture engagement?
A. It provides Cisco specific technology solutions.
B. It provides in-depth post-sales support.
C. It provides product updates proactively.
D. It provides help to solve business challenges.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 10
Which two options comprise information you need to achieve a successful outcome-based sales? (Choose two.)
A. How stakeholders receive information and what information they want to receive.
B. What information is communicated to stakeholders in a timely fashion.
C. The stakeholder influencers, decision makers,and participating individuals throughout the process.
D. The degree of affinity stakeholders have related to risk.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 11
Who is responsible for leading a business architecture engagement with the customer?
A. Sales leadership
B. Services team
C. Account team (account manager, engineer)
D. Business architect
E. Technology specialists
Correct Answer: D
There are many variations in the teams that engage with customers. These teams are composed on individuals from
team leadership, the account team, and services team. In the context of business architecture, the Cisco Business
Architect is the primary role that focuses on engaging with the customer from a business perspective. Individuals who
are aspiring to become a Cisco Business Architect are also considered in these roles.
Aspiring Cisco Business Architects will be more technology- than business-focused. Each role has various levels of
responsibilities and different levels of engagement throughout the business-led approach. For example, the level of
active engagement for Account Manager is part of their role when working with the Cisco Business Architect. The
Account Manager will participate in many of the activities during a business-led approach. Their level of involvement will
vary while working with the Cisco Business Architect. Take into consideration that the roles may differ depending on the
organization. For example, the Services Team may be part of the Account Team.lead4pass 810-440 exam question q11Roles throughout the business architecture approach:
The Cisco Business Architect leads the customer engagement throughout the business-led approach. They determine
when and where during the engagement to use available resources. The Cisco Business Architect can rely on the
Account Manager, Specialist System Engineers, and other roles to provide varying levels of support during the
engagement. The Cisco Business Architect can act as a mentor during the engagement to help the aspiring Cisco
Business Architect acquire further knowledge, skills, and experience.
The Account Manager is directly responsible for the customer relationship. They can benefit from many aspects of the
skills that are required for Cisco Business Architect. The System Engineer can be considered as the apprentice
architect. While there is much they need to aware of, they must be careful of how they apply their knowledge. In some
situations, the Cisco Business Architect is responsible for the account. This situation is manifested mainly in the Cisco
Customer Solution Architect (CSA) role. This situation is similar to the System Engineer, who has the awareness of the
Cisco Business Architect skills. Knowing when and how they are applied allows the Account Manager to understand
their role in the context of a business-led approach.
The Technology Specialists are focused on technology and in some situations they are needed to support the
engagement that the Cisco Business Architect leads. Outside of those engagements, the Technology Specialists may
be the people that are technically involved with the business stakeholders. The Technology Specialists must be aware
of the Cisco Business Architect skills and when and how they are applied. Being aware of the skills allows the
Technology Specialists to understand their role in the context of a business-led approach. In the case where the Cisco
Business Architect is responsible for the account the Technology Specialists will have a different role.
These roles do not depict System Engineering leadership, Sales Leadership, or Services. System Engineering
Leadership requires awareness, understanding of the maturity levels, engagement type, and the ability to support the
roles throughout the business-led approach.


QUESTION 12
Which two options are benefits of Cisco\\’s overall portfolio with respect to the set of buyers? (Choose two.)
A. increased business performance
B. enhanced accountability
C. real-time business intelligence
D. higher service availability
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 13
Which two benefits of using a Cisco Business Architecture methodology are true?
A. It determines the low-level design for network infrastructure.
B. It provides project management of a complex technology deployment
C. It enhances the way Cisco does business with its customers
D. It supports the client IT department to define the technology architecture.
E. It drives larger and more profitable results for customers, Cisco and partners.
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 14
Which two skill pillars are part of Cisco Business Architecture?
A. Advanced consulting
B. Digitization
C. Business acumen
D. Strategic finance
E. Global solutions
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 15
Which activity occurs in the loyalty phase of the customer relationship lifecycle?
A. Gain credibility with the customer to establish tem as an advocate.
B. Understand the customer and their critical needs.
C. Continue to effectively develop your relationship with the customer.
D. Establish yourself as a trusted advisor.
Correct Answer: D
The five stages are generic in nature. However, they generally apply to managing customer relationships.
Reach: Establish credibility with the prospective customer. The credibility is established for both yourself and by
extension your organization as a valued business partner.
Acquisition: Establish your status as a valued business partner. This is done by understand the customer and their
critical business needs.
Develop: Continue to effectively increase the maturity of your relationship with the customer. This is accomplished by
continually gaining a more thorough understanding of critical business needs.
Retention: Demonstrate repeated value to the customer. This is accomplished by providing opportunities to measure
progress against stated targets to demonstrate success.
Loyalty: Establish yourself as a trusted advisor and the customer as an advocate. This can be accomplished by
adopting a consultative-led approach with a focus on the solving complex business challenges for the customer.


QUESTION 16
Which two benefits are provided by the Cisco Business architecture approach?
A. It provides high degree of interaction with business leaders and stakeholders.
B. It enhances post-sales technical support capabilities.
C. It allows customers to achieve measurable business value
D. It allows the sale of technology-specific products and software.
E. It enables the discussion of data center technologies with the customer
Correct Answer: AC
Benefits of a Business Architecture Approach
A business architecture approach is centered on creating value for the customer and their business. The Cisco
Business Architect must effectively engage with the customer to gain an understanding of their business. This
engagement requires credibility and rapport with business leaders and relevant stakeholders. The Cisco Business
Architect works with the customer to co-operatively identify and create the business capabilities and solutions. This
activity helps the customer realize their desired business state. Adopting a business architecture approach requires a
behavioral change in the way the Cisco Business Architect engages with the customer.
The benefits of adopting the business architecture approach addresses what is in it for the customer and what is in it for
the Cisco Business Architect. The organization that the Cisco Business Architect is associated with also realizes
benefits from a business architecture approach.lead4pass 810-440 exam question q16What is in it for the customer?
Ensures that business capabilities and business solutions are aligned with business priorities and long-term business
strategy
Captures and realizes business value from defined business outcomes Perceives Cisco as a strategic partner for
solving business challenges What is in it for the Cisco Business Architect? Builds credibility and rapport for the Cisco
Business Architect and Cisco Establishes a long-term relationship with the customer as a trusted advisor Ensures Cisco
relevancy to business capabilities and business solutions What is in it for the business that the Business Architect is
associated with? Preferred partner and vendor status Longer-term customer engagement and relationship Competitive
advantage Cross-selling and upselling opportunities


QUESTION 17
Which component of a business strategy must be measurable?
A. environment
B. vision
C. goals
D. mission
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 18
Which tool is sued to gain and leverage knowledge of a business?
A. Cisco commerce workspace
B. Business model canvas
C. solution maturity index
D. Total cost of ownership
Correct Answer: B
The BMC consists of nine building blocks for creating a business model. Initially, the Cisco Business Architect uses the
BMC to create an unrefined view of the business. Creating an unrefined view of the business entails defining the
business model from the perspective of the Cisco Business Architect. A refined business model is created by using the
additional input and knowledge that is provided by interacting with the customer. There is a recommended order for
working through the building blocks. The right side of the BMC is “Emotional” and the left side is “Logical.”
It is extremely important to understand that the value of the BMC as tool allows a Cisco Business Architect to gain and
leverage their knowledge of the business. The results of the BMC are used by the Cisco Business Architect to
understand the business and generally not intended to be shared with stakeholders.
A business may also have more than one business model.


QUESTION 19
You are a systems engineer and are trying to build credibility and rapport with senior leadership within your customer.
Which method is the best way to demonstrate these qualities?
A. Understand the current state of their network infrastructure so that you can advise them how the latest technology
developments will be incorporated into a refresh of the infrastructure.
B. Understand what business drivers are impacting their market space.
C. Understand the current state of their network infrastructure so that you can describe a plan to refresh the
infrastructure.
D. Provide the customer with the latest technology developments so that they understand how you can help them.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 20
Which two resources can be used to determine the characteristics of a customer\\’s persona?
A. Industry peers
B. Social media
C. Past employers
D. Human resources
E. Annual reports
Correct Answer: BE
You can construct personas from publicly available information such as LinkedIn, annual reports, and social media.
Additional marketing material may also be available from which you can derive information about personas.


QUESTION 21
Which benefit of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library is true?
A. predicable and consistent processes
B. increased transparency of accountability and informed delegation of authority
C. obtain ISO 9001 compliance
D. value creation through monitoring, measuring, evaluation, and feedback
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 22
You are a systems engineer engaging with your customer\\’s Enterprise Architecture team. Which type of discussions
best describes what you should expect From an Enterprise Architecture practice?
A. discussions related to the organization of a system that is composed of products and its benefits, where they are
used in the network, and how to evolve the current state to the future state
B. discussions related to transforming the current state to a future state using products and their benefits to describe a
business outcome
C. discussions related to the organization of a system that is composed of its components, their relationships to each
other, and the principles that govern its design and evolution
D. discussion related to the improvement of business processes
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 23
Which value does a customer realize from the Cisco Business Architecture approach?
A. Capture and realize business value from product feature demonstrations.
B. Ensures Cisco relevancy to business capabilities and business solutions.
C. Capture and realize business value from defined business outcomes.
D. Ensures that the customer is up to date with all the latest product capabilities-
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 24
Which two standards are examples of an architectural framework?
A. ITIL
B. TOGAF
C. ISO 9001
D. Zachman
E. ISO2701
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 25
Which two options are characteristics of autocratic leadership styles? (Choose two.)
A. It is intended for team members who require close supervision.
B. The leader and team members set goals.
C. The leader motivates team members through visibility.
D. The leader makes unilateral decisions.
E. The leader has minimal involvement.
Correct Answer: ADlead4pass 810-440 exam question q25

 

QUESTION 26
Which description of the channel building block in the business model canvas is true?
A. key activities that support the value proposition
B. value that the business delivers to its customers
C. how the business reaches its customers
D. for whom is the business creating value
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 27
Which tool is leveraged by Cisco business architects for describing, visualizing, assessing, and changing business
models?
A. business model visualization.
B. business model framework
C. business model agenda
D. business model canvas
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 28
Which value does Cisco Business Architecture provide to the account team?
A. Establish preferred partner and vendor status.
B. Provide product updates proactively.
C. Increase post-sales support opportunities.
D. Focus on discussing technical solutions
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 29
Which phase of the Cisco Business Architecture aligns to the Business Architecture domain of the open group
architecture framework?
A. Customer commit
B. Deploy and measure
C. Research and analyze
D. Develop and verify
E. Customer knowledge
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 30
Which purpose of the Cisco Business Architecture maturity levels is true?
A. It is used to determine the technology adoption in a customer environment.
B. It is used to determine the customer financial maturity for investment.
C. It is used to determine customer readiness for engagement.
D. It is used to determine Cisco readiness against the competition.
Correct Answer: C
Maturity Levels: The Business and Cisco
In the context of Cisco Business Architecture, there are four business maturity levels that determine the level of
engagement between Cisco, the Cisco Business Architect, and the customer. The four maturity levels are Technology
Specific, Technology Architecture, Business Solutions, and Business Transformation. Businesses have different
maturity levels and each maturity level has a specific type of engagement. Some companies are focused on buying
products, while some are in transition, or others are operating with a business-first approach. Therefore, it is important
to understand the maturity of the customer as it pertains to a business-led mentality. Maturity levels are used to
determine where a customer is in the business-led approach.lead4pass 810-440 exam question q30Maturity levels are used to determine the maturity of both the customer and Cisco teams. The maturity levels help
gauge if, when, and how to engage with a business-led approach. They also help to determine if Cisco should continue
with the traditional technology-led approach.
Maturity levels determine how the customers see Cisco in this context and if the customer and Cisco are aligned.
Understanding the maturity level helps to determine the required resources, support, and the maturity level of the
relationship between Cisco and the customer. Maturity levels help to determine the degree of Cisco relevancy for
providing the appropriate level of support for the customer. Maturity levels also help to determine if Cisco should be
engaged.
Cisco Business Architects operate at the Business Solutions and Business Transformation maturity levels. However, an
effective business-led approach should drive business transformation at the Business Transformation maturity level.
Account System Engineers typically operate in the levels of Technology Specific and Technology Architecture maturity
levels. Specialists typically operate at the Technology Specific maturity level.

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP Security
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Secure Mobility Solutions
Exam Code: 300-209
Total Questions: 271 Q&As

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Cisco CCNP Security 300-209 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (Q13-Q30)

QUESTION 13
Which command will prevent a group policy from inheriting a filter ACL in a clientless SSL VPN?
A. vpn-filter none
B. no vpn-filter
C. filter value none
D. filter value ACLname
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
A Cisco IOS SSL VPN gateway is configured to operate in clientless mode so that users can access file shares on a Microsoft Windows 2003 server. Which protocol is used between the Cisco IOS router and the Windows server?
A. HTTPS
B. NetBIOS
C. CIFS
D. HTTP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
A rogue static route is installed in the routing table of a Cisco FlexVPN and is causing traffic to be blackholed. Which command should be used to identify the peer from which that route originated?
A. show crypto ikev2 sa detail
B. show crypto route
C. show crypto ikev2 client flexvpn
D. show ip route eigrp
E. show crypto isakmp sa detail
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Authorization of a clientless SSL VPN defines the actions that a user may perform within a clientless SSL VPN session. Which statement is correct concerning the SSL VPN authorization process?
A. Remote clients can be authorized by applying a dynamic access policy, which is configured on an external AAA server.
B. Remote clients can be authorized externally by applying group parameters from an external database.
C. Remote client authorization is supported by RADIUS and TACACS+ protocols.
D. To configure external authorization, you must configure the Cisco ASA for cut-through proxy.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
CISCO SSL VPN guide
The aaa authentication command is entered to specify an authentication list or server group under a SSL VPN context configuration. If this command is not configured and AAA is configured globally on the router, global authentication will be applied to the context configuration.
The database that is configured for remote-user authentication on the SSL VPN gateway can be a local database, or the database can be accessed through any RADIUS or TACACS+ AAA server. 300-209 dumps 
We recommend that you use a separate AAA server, such as a Cisco Access Control Server (ACS). A separate AAA server provides a more robust security solution. It allows you to configure unique passwords for each remote user and accounting and logging for remote-user sessions.

QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.
300-209 dumps
A NOC engineer needs to tune some postlogin parameters on an SSL VPN tunnel.
From the information shown, where should the engineer navigate to, in order to find all the postlogin session parameters?
A. “engineering” Group Policy
B. “contractor” Connection Profile
C. DefaultWEBVPNGroup Group Policy
D. DefaultRAGroup Group Policy
E. “engineer1” AAA/Local Users
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
The policy group is a container that defines the presentation of the portal and the permissions for resources that are configured for a group of remote users. Entering the policy group command places the router in webvpn group policy configuration mode. After it is configured, the group policy is attached to the SSL VPN context configuration by configuring the default-group-policy command.
The following tasks are accomplished in this configuration:
The presentation of the SSL VPN portal page is configured.
A NetBIOS server list is referenced.
A port-forwarding list is referenced.
The idle and session timers are configured.
A URL list is referenced.

QUESTION 18
Which equation describes an elliptic curve?
A. y3 = x3 + ax + b
B. x3 = y2 + ab + x
C. y4 = x2 + ax + b
D. y2 = x3 + ax + b
E. y2 = x2 + ax + b2
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
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300-209 dumps
300-209 dumps
When a tunnel is initiated by the headquarter ASA, which one of the following Diffie- Hellman groups is selected by the headquarter ASA during CREATE_CHILD_SA exchange?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 14
E. 19
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Traffic initiated by the HQ ASA is assigned to the static outside crypto map, which shown below to use DH group 5.
300-209 dumps
QUESTION 20
Which three changes must be made to migrate from DMVPN Phase 2 to Phase 3 when EIGRP is configured? (Choose three.)
A. Enable EIGRP next-hop-self on the hub.
B. Disable EIGRP next-hop-self on the hub.
C. Enable EIGRP split-horizon on the hub.
D. Add NHRP redirects on the hub.
E. Add NHRP shortcuts on the spoke.
F. Add NHRP shortcuts on the hub.
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 21
Which cryptographic algorithms are a part of the Cisco NGE suite?
A. HIPPA DES
B. AES-CBC-128
C. RC4-128
D. AES-GCM-256
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Which Cisco ASDM option configures forwarding syslog messages to email?
A. Configuration > Device Management > Logging > E-Mail Setup
B. Configuration > Device Management > E-Mail Setup > Logging Enable
C. Select the syslogs to email, click Edit, and select the Forward Messages option.
D. Select the syslogs to email, click Settings, and specify the Destination Email Address option.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Your corporate finance department purchased a new non-web-based TCP application tool to run on one of its servers. Certain finance employees need remote access to the software during nonbusiness hours. These employees do not have “admin” privileges to their PCs.
What is the correct way to configure the SSL VPN tunnel to allow this application to run?
A. Configure a smart tunnel for the application.
B. Configure a “finance tool” VNC bookmark on the employee clientless SSL VPN portal.
C. Configure the plug-in that best fits the application.
D. Configure the Cisco ASA appliance to download the Cisco AnyConnect SSL VPN Client to the finance employee each time an SSL VPN tunnel is established.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
A smart tunnel is a connection between a TCP-based application and a private site, using a clientless (browser based) SSL VPN session with the security appliance as the pathway, and the security appliance as a proxy server. You can identify applications to which you want to grant smart tunnel access, and specify the local path to each application. For applications running on Microsoft Windows, you can also require a match of the SHA-1 hash of the checksum as a condition for granting smart tunnel access.
Lotus SameTime and Microsoft Outlook Express are examples of applications to which you might want to grant smart tunnel access.
Configuring smart tunnels requires one of the following procedures, depending on whether the application is a client or is a web-enabled application:
• Create one or more smart tunnel lists of the client applications, then assign the list to the group policies or local user policies for whom you want to provide smart tunnel access.
• Create one or more bookmark list entries that specify the URLs of the web-enabled applications eligible for smart tunnel access, then assign the list to the DAPs, group policies, or local user policies for whom you want to provide smart tunnel access.
You can also list web-enabled applications for which to automate the submission of login credentials in smart tunnel connections over clientless SSL VPN sessions.
Why Smart Tunnels?
Smart tunnel access lets a client TCP-based application use a browser-based VPN connection to connect to a service. It offers the following advantages to users, compared to plug-ins and the legacy technology, port forwarding:
• Smart tunnel offers better performance than plug-ins.
• Unlike port forwarding, smart tunnel simplifies the user experience by not requiring the user connection of the local application to the local port.
• Unlike port forwarding, smart tunnel does not require users to have administrator privileges.
The advantage of a plug-in is that it does not require the client application to be installed on the remote computer.
Smart Tunnel Requirements, Restrictions, and Limitations
The following sections categorize the smart tunnel requirements and limitations.
General Requirements and Limitations
Smart tunnel has the following general requirements and limitations:
• The remote host originating the smart tunnel must be running a 32-bit version of Microsoft Windows Vista, Windows XP, or Windows 2000; or Mac OS 10.4 or 10.5.
• Smart tunnel auto sign-on supports only Microsoft Internet Explorer on Windows.
• The browser must be enabled with Java, Microsoft ActiveX, or both.
• Smart tunnel supports only proxies placed between computers running Microsoft Windows and the security appliance. Smart tunnel uses the Internet Explorer configuration (that is, the one intended for system-wide use in Windows). If the remote computer requires a proxy server to reach the security appliance, the URL of the terminating end of the connection must be in the list of URLs excluded from proxy services. If the proxy configuration specifies that traffic destined for the ASA goes through a proxy, all smart tunnel traffic goes through the proxy.
In an HTTP-based remote access scenario, sometimes a subnet does not provide user access to the VPN gateway. In this case, a proxy placed in front of the ASA to route traffic between the web and the end user’s location provides web access. However, only VPN users can configure proxies placed in front of the ASA.
When doing so, they must make sure these proxies support the CONNECT method. For proxies that require authentication, smart tunnel supports only the basic digest authentication type.
• When smart tunnel starts, the security appliance by default passes all browser traffic through the VPN session if the browser process is the same. The security appliance also does this if a tunnel-all policy applies. If the user starts another instance of the browser process, it passes all traffic through the VPN session. If the browser process is the same and the security appliance does not provide access to a URL, the user cannot open it. As a workaround, assign a tunnel policy that is not tunnel-all.
• A stateful failover does not retain smart tunnel connections. Users must reconnect following a failover.

QUESTION 24
Which two options are purposes of the key server in Cisco IOS GETVPN? 300-209 dumps (Choose two.)
A. to define group members.
B. to distribute static routing information.
C. to distribute dynamic routing information.
D. to encrypt transit traffic.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 25
Which command identifies an AnyConnect profile that was uploaded to the router flash?
A. crypto vpn anyconnect profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml
B. svc import profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml
C. anyconnect profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml
D. webvpn import profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
A custom desktop application needs to access an internal server. An administrator is tasked with configuring the company’s SSL VPN gateway to allow remote users to work. Which two technologies would accommodate the company’s requirement? (Choose two).
A. AnyConnect client
B. Smart Tunnels
C. Email Proxy
D. Content Rewriter
E. Portal Customizations
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.
300-209 dumps
A junior network engineer configured the corporate Cisco ASA appliance to accommodate a new temporary worker. For security reasons, the IT department wants to restrict the internal network access of the new temporary worker to the corporate server, with an IP address of 10.0.4.10. After the junior network engineer finished the configuration, an IT security specialist tested the account of the temporary worker. The tester was able to access the URLs of additional secure servers from the WebVPN user account of the temporary worker.
What did the junior network engineer configure incorrectly?
A. The ACL was configured incorrectly.
B. The ACL was applied incorrectly or was not applied.
C. Network browsing was not restricted on the temporary worker group policy.
D. Network browsing was not restricted on the temporary worker user policy.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
Which three remote access VPN methods in an ASA appliance provide support for Cisco Secure Desktop? (Choose three.)
A. IKEv1
B. IKEv2
C. SSL client
D. SSL clientless
E. ESP
F. L2TP
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 29
You have been using pre-shared keys for IKE authentication on your VPN. Your network has grown rapidly, and now you need to create VPNs with numerous IPsec peers. How can you enable scaling to numerous IPsec peers?
A. Migrate to external CA-based digital certificate authentication.
B. Migrate to a load-balancing server.
C. Migrate to a shared license server.
D. Migrate from IPsec to SSL VPN client extended authentication.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which option is a required element of Secure Device Provisioning communications?
A. the introducer
B. the certificate authority
C. the requestor
D. the registration authority
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP Security
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Secure Access Solutions
Exam Code: 300-208
Total Questions: 356 Q&As

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Cisco CCNP Security 300-208 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (Q1-Q20)

QUESTION 1
A network administrator is seeing a posture status “unknown” for a single corporate machine on the Cisco ISE authentication report, whereas the other machines are reported as “compliant”. Which option is the reason for machine being reported as “unknown”?
A. Posture agent is not installed on the machine.
B. Posture policy does not support the OS.
C. Posfure compliance condition is missing on the machine.
D. Posture service is disabled on Cisco ISE.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Where is client traffic decrypted in a controller-based wireless network protected with WPA2 Security?
A. Access Point
B. Switch
C. Wireless LAN Controller
D. Authentication Server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which two switchport commands enable MAB and allow non-802.1X capable devices to immediately run through the MAB process? (Choose two.)
A. authentication order mab dot1x
B. authentication order dot1x mab
C. no authentication timer
D. dot1x timeout tx-period
E. authentication open
F. mab
Correct Answer: AF

QUESTION 4
Which three remediation actions are supported by the Web Agent for Windows? (Choose three.)
A. Automatic Remediation
B. Message text
C. URL Link
D. File Distribution
E. AV definition update
F. Launch Program
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 5
When using CA for identity source, which method can be used to provide real-time certificate validation?
A. X.509
B. PKI
C. OCSP
D. CRL
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which configuration must you perform on a switch to deploy Cisco ISE in low-impact mode? 300-208 dumps
A. Configure an ingress port ACL on the switchport.
B. Configure DHCP snooping globally.
C. Configure IP-device tracking.
D. Configure BPDU filtering.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which command configures console port authorization under line con 0?
A. authorization default|WORD
B. authorization exec line con 0|WORD
C. authorization line con 0|WORD
D. authorization exec default|WORD
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
A security engineer has a new TrustSec project and must create a few static security group tag classifications as a proof of concept. Which two classifications can the tags be mapped to? (Choose two.)
A. VLAN
B. user ID
C. interface
D. switch ID
E. MAC address
Correct Answer: AC

Explanation:
In static classification the tag maps to some thing (an IP, subnet, VLAN, or interface) rather than relying on an authorization from the Cisco ISE.
This process of assigning the SGT is defined as “classification.” These classifications are thentransported deeper into the network for policy enforcement.

QUESTION 9
Which description of the use of low-impact mode in a Cisco ISE deployment is correct?
A. It continues to use the authentication open capabilities of the switch port, which allows traffic to enter the switch before an authentication result.
B. Low-impact mode must be the final phase in deploying Cisco ISE into a network environment using the phased approach.
C. The port does not allow any traffic before the authentication (except for EAP, Cisco Discovery Protocol, and LLDP), and then the port is assigned to specific authorization results after the authentication.
D. It enables authentication (with authentication open), sees exactly which devices fail and which succeed, and corrects the failed authentications before they cause any problems.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
When you select Centralized Web Auth in the ISE Authorization Profile, which two components host the web authentication portal? (Choose two.)
A. ISE
B. the WLC
C. the access point
D. the switch
E. the endpoints
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 11
Which definition of “posturing” as it relates to a general network infrastructure and access into the internal network is true?
A. The process by which an operating system or application running on an endpoint provides critical information about internet activity being used by the endpoint.
B. The process by which an endpoint device can be monitored while connected to the network to determine if it could contain viruses or potential harmful programs running.
C. The process by which an operating system or application running on an endpoint provides critical information about the software that is actively running on the device.
D. The process when software is uploaded to an end device before it is allowed to gain access to a secure network.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which 2 options are functional components of the posture service?
A. Quarantined policy
B. Posture policy
C. Client provisioning
D. Network provisioning
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 13
Which components must be selected for a client provisioning policy to do a Posture check on the Cisco ISE?
A. Configuration Wizard, Wizard Profile
B. Remediation Actions, Posture Requirements
C. Operating System, Posture Requirements
D. Agent, Profile, Compliance Module
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which two options can a sponsor select to create bulk guest accounts from the sponsor portal? 300-208 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Known
B. Random
C. Monthly
D. Imported
E. Daily
F. Yearly
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 15
Which advanced authentication setting is needed to allow an unknown device to utilize Central WebAuth?
A. If Authentication failed > Continue
B. If Authentication failed > Drop
C. If user not found > Continue
D. If user not found > Reject
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which three network access devices allow for static security group tag assignment? (Choose three.)
A. intrusion prevention system
B. access layer switch
C. data center access switch
D. load balancer
E. VPN concentrator
F. wireless LAN controller
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 17
Which three statements describe differences between TACACS+ and RADIUS? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS encrypts the entire packet, while TACACS+ encrypts only the password.
B. TACACS+ encrypts the entire packet, while RADIUS encrypts only the password.
C. RADIUS uses TCP, while TACACS+ uses UDP.
D. TACACS+ uses TCP, while RADIUS uses UDP.
E. RADIUS uses ports 1812 and 1813, while TACACS+ uses port 49.
F. TACACS+ uses ports 1812 and 1813, while RADIUS uses port 49
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 18
Which protocol is EAP encapsulated in for communications between the authenticator and the authentication server ?
A. EAP-MD5
B. IPSec
C. EAPOL
D. Radius
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
300-208 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. Which authentication method is being used?
A. PEAP-MSCHAP
B. EAP-GTC
C. EAP-TLS
D. PEAP-TLS
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
These authentication methods are supported with LDAP:
Extensible Authentication Protocol
Generic Token Card (EAP-GTC) Extensible Authentication Protocol
Transport Layer Security (EAP-TLS) Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol
Transport Layer Security (PEAP-)

QUESTION 20
When MAB is configured, how often are ports reauthenticated by default?
A. every 60 seconds
B. every 90 seconds
C. every 120 seconds
D. never
Correct Answer: D

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: Proctored Exams for Validating Knowledge
Exam Name: SMB Specialization for Engineers
Exam Code: 700-501
Total Questions: 50 Q&As
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Cisco Proctored Exams for Validating Knowledge 700-501 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
When you design a customer network that is composed only of a pure Layer 2 switch and a router, which feature should you enable to support communication among VLANs?
A. VLANs cannot communicate when only a router and a Layer 2 switch are used in the design.
B. Spanning Tree on the Layer 2 switch
C. Static routes on the Layer 2 switch
D. Trunking between the Layer 2 switch and the router
E. Uplink port aggregation on the router
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which statement about Cisco CleanAir technology is true?
A. It features chiplevel proactive and automatic interference mitigation.
B. It features chiplevel proactive and automatic electronic beam forming.
C. It features automatic advanced radio frequency shaping.
D. It is a feature of the Cisco Aironet 1600 Series AP.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which three options can be connected directly to a Cisco Nexus switch? (Choose three.)
A. Token ring network
B. Storage area network
C. Server cluster
D. Local area network
E. 4G network
F. Wide area network
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 4
Which two product portfolios help make up the FlexPod Express solution? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5000
B. Cisco ISR 1900, 2900, and 3900 Series
C. Cisco UCS ESeries Servers
D. Cisco Nexus 3048 Switch
E. Cisco ISR 2900 and 3900 Series
F. Cisco UCS CSeries Server
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 5
Which three options are pillars of the Cisco Security Intelligence Operations? (Choose three.)
A. Dynamic updates
B. OpenBTS Database
C. Cloud base
D. Threat Operations Center
E. Sensor base
F. Manual updates
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 6
Which Cisco web tool should partners consult who want presales advice on planning and deploying Cisco Unified Computing deployments?
A. Cisco Plan Design Manage Help Desk
B. Cisco Customer Success Stories
C. Cisco TAC
D. Cisco Validated Designs
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which three components are in Cisco ExpressPod? 700-501 dumps (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Application Server Engine
B. Cisco UCS CSeries Servers
C. EMC Storage
D. HP Servers
E. NetApp Storage
F. Cisco Nexus Switches
G. Fujitsu Storage
Correct Answer: BEF

QUESTION 8
Which option is a competitive advantage of Cisco security solutions?
A. Lowest priced offering
B. Stateful firewall capability
C. SpeedNet services
D. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which three options are business benefits of increased reliability? (Choose three)
A. Protects revenue streams
B. Enhances career paths
C. Promotes independence
D. Increases business resilience
E. Reduces maintenance and network operation costs
F. Validates business decisions
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 10
Your customer is considering migrating to a Cisco Borderless Routing solution from their current vendor.
Which best practice can close the sale?
A. Demonstrate how the Cisco solution saves money by consolidating devices and integrating management.
B. Mention that promotions and incentives are available through Cisco
C. Go through a check list and compare the performance capabilities between Cisco and the other vendor.
D. Show the customer a Cisco television commercial.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which Cisco tool provides scripted, repeatable presentations, and customized pilots in real time with real equipment?
A. FindIt
B. Cisco Commerce Workspace
C. Cisco Partner Education Connection
D. Cisco dCloud
E. Cisco Network Discovery
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which two Cisco ISR series are needed to support a Cisco ServicesReady Engine to deploy services on demand? (Choose two.)
A. 2900 Series
B. 2800 Series
C. 3900 Series
D. 800 Series
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 13
Which two benefits will customers achieve if they upgrade to a properly configured Cisco Borderless Network? (Choose two.)
A. New application and service deployment is completely automated.
B. Network availability increases and downtime decreases
C. Security becomes less difficult to achieve.
D. All potential failures will be eliminated.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 14
Which three options are customer benefits of implementing a Cisco Borderless switching solution? (Choose three.)
A. Spanning Tree
B. Smart Install
C. Auto SmartPorts
D. Smart CallHome
E. Solarpowered
F. Uninterruptable power
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 15
Which three options are competitive advantages of Cisco wireless solutions? (Choose three.)
A. Improved WLAN reliability is provided
B. Integrated security with wireless threat detection and mitigation is provided.
C. Access points support only the centralized deployment model.
D. Simplified and intuitive WLAN management and troubleshooting are provided.
E. Access points support only the distributed deployment model
F. Management and administration via Cisco SIO make deployment easy.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 16
Which three options are opportunities for partners to introduce Cisco Meraki products to existing or prospective customers? (Choose three.)
A. Free Cisco Meraki refurbished equipment
B. Cisco Meraki roadshow
C. Cisco Meraki equipment rental program
D. Webinars with a free AP for qualified attendees
E. Free mobile device management with Systems Manager
F. Free product trials
Correct Answer: DEF

QUESTION 17
Which wireless access point series supports Cisco ClientLink 2.0 and Cisco CleanAir, but does not support clustering? 700-501 dumps
A. 300 Series
B. 1600 Series
C. 700 Series
D. 2600 Series
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which design practice is the best to reduce wireless CCI?
A. Place adjacent access points on different channels.
B. Place adjacent access points on the same channel.
C. Eliminate all signal overlap between access points.
D. Configure access points with the lowest supported data rate.
E. Place adjacent access points on nonoverlapping channels.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 19
Which two characteristics describe a successful mobility installation? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Telepresence EX90 JS.
B. Growasyougo deployment.
C. Access to information by any user, from any location, from any device.
D. SMARTnet on every device.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 20
Which three decision makers should you focus on when proposing Cisco architectural solutions? (Choose three.)
A. Individual contributors
B. Operations managers
C. Purchasing officers
D. Technical decision makers
E. Business decision makers
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 21
Which three competitive advantages does the Cisco Unified Computing System provide? (Choose three.)
A. Ease of planning via the CSIM capacity modeling tool.
B. Supports only rack server models to reduce cost.
C. Greater virtual desktop density without performance impact.
D. Supports only blade server models to reduce system complexity.
E. Lower cost for compute plus network infrastructure.
F. Simple operation; start in minutes, scale in seconds.
Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 22
Which two customer characteristics indicate an opportunity for Cisco Meraki cloudmanaged networks? (Choose two.)
A. Moving applications to the cloud.
B. Having distributed sites and a lean IT staff.
C. Requiring a high degree of flexibility and customization.
D. Having networking experts on site.
E. Implementing data center or large campus deployments.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 23
Which two benefits are delivered by Cisco Telepresence? (Choose two.)
A. Collaboration Experience is integrated.
B. Large files can be delivered between locations.
C. User experiences are unified.
D. Any endpoint can be used.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 24
Which option describes server virtualization?
A. Consolidation of multiple server workloads onto a smaller number of more powerful servers.
B. The aggregation of server workloads onto a smaller number of servers by running multiple server operating systems directly on the shared hardware.
C. Reduction of onpremises server requirements through the elimination of low utilization servers and the transition to a SaaS solution.
D. Consolidation of multiple server interface cards into a single network card that supports a large number of virtual interfaces.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
When LAN connectivity is designed which option increases high availability and minimizes network administration?
A. integrated switch in WAN router
B. stacked switch design
C. multiple switch design
D. single external switch design
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Which three switching technology components distinguish Cisco from competing products? 700-501 dumps (Choose three.)
A. Gigabit Ethernet
B. Flexible NetFlow
C. Medianet
D. Universal PoE
E. RSTP 802.1w
F. Multiprotocol Label Switching
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 27
Which best practice should be used to calculate PoE requirements for Cisco collaboration endpoints?
A. Attach all endpoints first and then use a power reporting tool to document the power requirements.
B. Assume that all ports with PoE endpoints attached will require 7 watts.
C. Assume that all ports will require 15.4 watts regardless of attached endpoints.
D. Select the endpoint device that requires the most power and assume that all endpoint devices will require the same amount.
E. Determine the power requirements of each of your endpoints and plan to support that amount.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which option is a function of the Cisco MultiGigabit Fabric in a Cisco ISR router?
A. Provides connectivity between Cisco EHWIC, PVDM3, SM, and ISM modules through the Backplane.
B. Provides connectivity only to the Cisco EHWIC modules.
C. Provides connectivity to the Cisco Nexus fabric switch through the uplink.
D. Provides connectivity to legacy interface modules.
E. Provides connectivity to the Cisco Enhanced EtherSwitch Service Module uplink ports.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Which three customer challenges do Cisco architectures help to solve? (Choose three.)
A. Increase ROI
B. Reduce independence
C. Provide creative solutions
D. Lower costs
E. Boost productivity
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 30
Which two options are benefits of the Cisco ASA 5500X Series over the Cisco ASA 5500 Series? (Choose two.)
A. Firewall throughput up to 12 Gb/s is provided.
B. The Cisco Content Security does not require an additional hardware module.
C. Cisco IPS throughput up to 650 Mb/s is provided
D. The Cisco IPS does not require an additional hardware module.
Correct Answer: BD

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[2018 New Version] 100% Pass Latest Cisco CCNP Service Provider 642-883 Dumps Exam Questions Update Youtube Demo (Q1-Q30)

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP Service Provider
Exam Name: Deploying Cisco Service Provider Network Routing (SPROUTE)
Exam Code: 642-883
Total Questions: 174 Q&As
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Cisco CCNP Service Provider 642-883 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
In comparing IS-IS with OSPF, a Level-1-2 IS-IS router is similar to which kind of OSPF router?
A. ASBR on a normal OSPF area
B. ASBR on NSSA
C. ABR on totally stubby OSPF area
D. ABR on stubby OSPF area
E. ABR on a normal OSPF area
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Refer to the topology diagram in the exhibit.
642-883 dumps
Which IS-IS feature could be implemented so that the return path for the packets from router Y in area 49.00AA to router X in area 49.00BB will use the more optimal path?
A. Enable route leaking to pass Level 2 information into the Level 1 routers.
B. Change the area 49.00AA type from a stub area to a regular area.
C. Change the IS-IS administrative distance on router Y in area 49.00AA.
D. Change the IS-IS metric type from narrow to wide on all IS-IS routers.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
642-883 dumps
Which two configuration options can be used to optimize the IS-IS network scenario? (Choose two.)
A. Change the R1 and R2 IS type to Level 2.
B. Change the R1 and R2 IS type to Level 1.
C. Change the gi0/0 interface IS-IS circuit type on R1 and R2 to Level 2 only.
D. Change the gi0/1 interface IS-IS circuit type on R1and R2 to Level 1.
E. Change the IS type for all the routers to Level-1-2.
F. Change the IS-IS network type for all the routers to point-to-point.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
The Cisco IOS XE Software summary-address router IS-IS configuration command can be used to send a summarized route into which IS-IS hierarchy?
A. Level 1 only
B. Level 2 only
C. Level-1-2 only
D. Level 1 or Level 2 or Level-1-2
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Refer to the Cisco IOS XE IS-IS configuration exhibit.
642-883 dumps
What are two problems with the configuration that are causing the IPv4, or the IPv6, or the IPv4 and IPv6 IS-IS operations to fail? (Choose two.)
A. The configuration is missing the interface gi0/0 and interface gi0/0 commands under router isis 1.
B. The configuration is missing the address-family ipv4 unicast and address-family ipv6 unicast commands under router isis 1.
C. IPv6 unicast routing has not been enabled globally on the Cisco IOS XE router.
D. The gi0/0 and gi0/1 interfaces are not participating in the router isis 1 routing instance.
E. Multitopology IS-IS must be enabled to support both IPv4 and IPv6.
F. Another router isis instance must be enabled to support IPv6.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 6
In which network environment is IS-IS adjacency check important?
A. in a multitopology environment where there are different instances of IS-IS running on the same router
B. in an IPv4/IPv6 environment and running single-topology IS-IS
C. when a level L1/L2 IS-IS router is neighboring with a Level 1 only or Level 2 only router
D. when IS-IS neighbors are in an NBMA environment like over Frame Relay
E. when IS-IS neighbors are in a broadcast environment like an Ethernet LAN
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Refer to the IS-IS configuration exhibit.
642-883 dumps
This is the typical IS-IS configuration of the routers in an AS using IS-IS as the IGP. This AS is in the transition phase of integrating IPv6 into the network. 642-883 dumps During this transition phase, some of the routers within the AS might be running IPv4 only, some might be running IPv6 only, and others might be running both IPv4 and IPv6. To avoid any black holes for the IPv6 traffic, which configuration change can be made?
A. Disable IS-IS adjacency checks.
B. Enable IPv6 adjacency over IPv4 IS-IS peering.
C. Enable multi-topology IS-IS.
D. Disable the IPv4 unicast address-family.
E. Enable IS-IS wide metric to support the single-topology mode.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
When implementing OSPF, which type of networks require DR/BDR election?
A. point-to-point networks
B. mutli-access broadcast networks
C. non-broadcast multi-access networks (Hub and Spoke Frame Relay) using point-to-multipoint OSPF network type
D. All networks type
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
The S bit in the MPLS header is used for what purpose?
A. To indicate the bottom level in the label stack
B. To indicate if LDP is sync to the IGP
C. To indicate if LDP is sync to the IGP
D. To indicate the status of the LSP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What are two purposes of the BGP scan-time command? (Choose two.)
A. to tune the BGP process which walks the BGP table and confirms the reachability of next hops
B. to allow faster detection of downed BGP peers
C. to improve BGP convergence time
D. to tune the BGP update interval
E. to decrease the effects of unstable routes by increasing the route suppression time
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 11
When using the show bgp ipv6 unicast summary command to verify the IPv6 BGP session status with the IPv6 BGP peers, you noticed the “St/PfxRcd” status for one of the IPv6 BGP peers is in the “Active” state. What does the “Active” state indicate?
A. The IPv6 BGP session has been established with the IPv6 BGP peer.
B. The router is in the process of sending BGP routing updates to the IPv6 BGP peer.
C. The router is in the process of establishing the IPv6 BGP session with the IPv6 BGP peer.
D. The router is exchanging BGP notification messages with its IPv6 BGP peer.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which three BGP configuration groupings are supported on Cisco IOS XR Software? (Choose three.)
A. peer-group
B. af-group
C. bgp-group
D. session-group
E. neighbor-group
F. as-group
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 13
Which AS path access list is used by a multihomed customer to only announce their own address space to their service providers to prevent the multihomed customer from becoming a transit AS?
A. ip as-path access-list permit.*
B. ip as-path access-list permit^$
C. ip as-path access-list permit _$
D. ip as-path access-list permit _^
E. ip as-path access-list permit local-asip as-path access-list deny *
F. ip as-path access-list deny.*ip as-path access-list permit *
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
What is recursive lookup in BGP and how does it work?
A. The router looks up the EBGP route and the EBGP next hop to reach a destination in the remote AS.
Then the router looks up the route to reach the EBGP next hop using the IBGP.
B. The router looks up the IBGP route and the IBGP next hop to reach a destination in the remote AS.
Then the router looks up the route to reach the IBGP next hop using the EBGP.
C. The router looks up the BGP route and the BGP next hop to reach a destination in the remote AS.
Then the router looks up the route to reach the BGP next hop using the IGP.
D. The router looks up the route and the next hop to reach a destination in the remote AS using the IGP. Then the router looks up the route to reach the next hop using BGP.
E. The router perform three routing lookups to determine the route to reach a destination in the remote AS. The first lookup is done using EBGP, the second lookup is done using IBGP, and the third lookup is done using the IGP.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which reserved AS number or range of numbers is used for backward compatibility between old BGP peers using 16-bit AS number and new BGP peers using 32-bit AS number?
A. AS 65001 to 65535
B. AS 65512 to 65535
C. AS 12345
D. AS 23456
E. AS 64001
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Which BGP attribute is a set of generic tags that can be used to signal various routing policies between BGP routers?
A. AS path
B. MED
C. weight
D. communities
E. route tags
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which of the following is a characteristic of dual-multihomed connectivity between an enterprise network and the service provider network or networks? 642-883 dumps
A. An enterprise network that is connected to two or more different service providers with two or more links per service provider and using BGP to exchange routing updates with the service providers.
B. Each service provider announces a default route on each of the links that connect to the customer with a different metric.
C. An enterprise network announces a default route to each service provider.
D. Load balancing can be achieved using the maximum-paths command.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
What are two ways to advertise networks into BGP? (Choose two.)
A. using the neighbor router BGP command
B. using a route policy in Cisco IOS XR Software or using a route map in Cisco IOS Software or Cisco IOS XE Software
C. using route redistribution into BGP
D. using the network router BGP command
E. enabling an interface to run BGP using the interface router BGP command
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 19
Refer to the network diagram in the exhibit.
642-883 dumps
Assuming the IBGP session within AS 64500 was established using the loopback 0 interface between the two routers, by default, what will be the next hop of the routes from AS 64501 when the routes appear on the router running IBGP only in AS 64500?
A. 192.168.101.11
B. 192.168.101.10
C. 10.1.1.1
D. 10.0.1.1
E. 10.1.10.1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
When configuring BGP on Cisco IOS XR Software, which address-family is enabled by default?
A. IPv4 unicast
B. IPv6 unicast
C. VPNv4
D. IPv4 unicast and IPv6 unicast
E. IPv4 unicast and IPv6 unicast and VPNv4
F. No address-family is enabled by default.
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 21
An engineer is using configuration blocks to build policy-based routing. All other traffic must not be affected and the policy must be applied to GigabitEthernet1/0. Which block correctly implements traffic that is destined for 10.10.10.0/24 using a next hop of 192.168.55.1?
A. access-list 110 permit ip any 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.255 route-map PBR permit 10
match ip address 110
set next-hop 192.168.55.1
interface GigabitEthernet1/0
ip policy route-map PBR
B. access-list 110 permit ip any 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.255 route-map PBR permit 10
match ip address 110
set next-hop 192.168.55.1
route-map PBR permit 20
interface GigabitEthernet1/0
ip policy route-map PBR
C. access-list 110 permit ip any 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.0 route-map PBR permit 10
match ip address 110
set next-hop 192.168.55.1
interface GigabitEthernet1/0
ip policy route-map PBR
D. access-list 110 permit ip any 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.0 route-map PBR permit 10
match ip address 110
set next-hop 192.168.55.1
route-map PBR permit 20
interface GigabitEthernet1/0
ip policy route-map PBR
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
An engineer is working on routers within AS 100. Which regular expression can be used in an AS path access list to match locally originated routes from AS 100?
A. ^100$
B. ^$
C. _100$
D. ^[0-9]*$
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Which option is a mechanism that can be implemented between two eBGP peers to communicate the routes each peer needs from the other?
A. ORF
B. ACL
C. prefix list
D. route map
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
A Cisco IOS XR router is a member in OSPF 1 and EIGRP 100 domains, and needs to redistribute OSPF learned routes into EIGRP. Which configuration achieves this goal?
A. router eigrp 100
address-family ipv4
redistribute ospf 1
B. router eigrp 100
redistribute ospf 1 route-policy OS_INTO_EIG
route-policy OS_INTO_EIG set eigrp-metric 100 10 255 1 155
C. router eigrp 100
address-family ipv4
redistribute ospf 1 route-policy OS_INTO_EIG
route-policy OS_INTO_EIG set eigrp-metric 100 10 255 1 155
D. router eigrp 100
default-metric 100 1 255 1 1500
redistribute ospf 1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
Which value must be configured when redistributing OSPFv2 into RIP?
A. metric
B. bandwidth
C. delay
D. MTU
E. reliability
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which option can a network specialist use to configure connected route redistribution inside VRF “TEST” on Cisco IOS XR and allow only the prefix 10.10.10.0/24?
A. route-policy ALLOW-CONN
if destination in PERMIT_PREFIX then
pass
else
drop
end-policy
prefix-set PERMIT_PREFIX
10.10.10.0/24
end-set
router bgp 65000
vrf TEST
rd 65000:10000
address-family ipv4 unicast
redistribute connected route-policy ALLOW-CONN
B. route-policy ALLOW-CONN
if source in PERMIT_PREFIX then
pass
else
drop
end-policy
prefix-set PERMIT_PREFIX
10.10.10.0/24
end-set
router bgp 65000
vrf TEST
rd 65000:10000
address-family ipv4 unicast
redistribute connected route-policy ALLOW-CONN
C. route-policy ALLOW-CONN
if protocol is connected and source in PERMIT_PREFIX then pass
else
drop
end-policy
prefix-set PERMIT_PREFIX
10.10.10.0/24
end-set
router bgp 65000
vrf TEST
rd 65000:10000
address-family ipv4 unicast
redistribute connected route-policy ALLOW-CONN”
D. route-policy ALLOW-CONN
if route-type is local and destination in PERMIT_PREFIX then pass
else
drop
end-policy
prefix-set PERMIT_PREFIX
10.10.10.0/24
end-set
router bgp 65000
vrf TEST
rd 65000:10000
address-family ipv4 unicast
redistribute connected route-policy ALLOW-CONN
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
A static default route has been inserted into the configuration of a Cisco IOS XE router. Which option redistributes the route into the local OSPF process?
A. router ospf 1
redistribute static subnets
B. router ospf 1
redistribute static
C. router ospf 1
redistribute static subnets
default-information originate always
D. router ospf 1
network 0.0.0.0 area 0
redistribute static subnets
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit.
642-883 dumps
Routers B and C in transit AS 200 are the exit points toward AS 100 and AS 300. Router B is running Cisco IOS XR and Router C IOS XE. Internally, AS 200 runs OPSF only for internal routing. 642-883 dumps Which two methods can an engineer use to ensure proper reachability between AS 100 and AS 300 for the needed routes? (Choose two.)
A. Router B:
router ospf 200
redistribute bgp 200 tag 20
router bgp 200
address-family ipv4 unicast
redistribute ospf 200 metric-type 2
B. Router B:
router ospf 200
redistribute bgp 200
router bgp 200
address-family ipv4 unicast
redistribute ospf 200
C. Router C:
router ospf 200
redistribute bgp 200 metric-type 1 subnets tag 200 router bgp 200
address-family ipv4
redistribute ospf 200
D. Router C:
router ospf 200
redistribute bgp 200 metric-type 1 subnets tag 200 router bgp 200
address-family ipv4
redistribute ospf 200 match external 2
E. Router C:
router ospf 200
redistribute bgp 200 metric-type 1 subnets tag 200 router bgp 200
address-family ipv4
redistribute ospf 200 route-map match-tag match external route-map match-tag deny 10 match tag 200
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 29
Which two methods implement high availability in OSPF on Cisco IOS XR? (Choose two.)
A. NSF
B. NSR
C. BFD
D. fast hellos
E. sham-links
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 30
Nonstop Forwarding works with the Stateful Switchover feature in Cisco IOS and IOS XR software. Which three restrictions for OSPF are true? (Choose three.)
A. OSPF NSF for virtual links is not supported.
B. OSPF NSF for virtual links is supported.
C. OSPF NSF for sham links is not supported.
D. OSPF NSF for sham links is supported.
E. OSPF NSF supports NSF/SSO for IPv6 traffic only.
F. OSPF NSF supports NSF/SSO for IPv4 traffic only.
Correct Answer: ACF

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP Wireless
Exam Name: Implementing Advanced Cisco Unified Wireless Security (IAUWS) v2.0
Exam Code: 642-737
Total Questions: 207 Q&As
642-737 dumps
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Cisco CCNP Wireless 642-737 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
A lobby ambassador is creating guest access accounts. At which two locations can the accounts be stored? (Choose two.)
A. NAC guest server
B. Active directory
C. WLAN controller
D. WCS
E. ACS
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
An engineer is configuring a Cisco AnyConnect client. What module is selected to allow for reporting and diagnostics?
A. NAM
B. Posture
C. Telemetry
D. VPN
E. DART
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 3
MFP is enabled globally on a WLAN with default settings on a single controller wireless network. Older client devices are disconnected from the network during a deauthentication attack. What is the cause of this issue?
A. The client devices do not support CCXv5.
B. The client devices do not support WPA.
C. The NTP server is not configured on the controller.
D. The MFP on the WLAN is set to optional.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What does the eping mobility_peer_IP_address command do?
A. It tests EoIP connectivity via port 97 though the management interface.
B. It tests EoIP connectivity via port 97 though the AP manager interface.
C. It tests UDP connectivity via port 16666 through the management interface.
D. It tests UDP connectivity via port 16666 through the AP manager interface.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
When a supplicant and AAA server are configured to use PEAP, which mechanism is used by the client to authenticate the AAA server in Phase One?
A. PMK
B. shared secret keys
C. digital certificate
D. PAC
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
An engineer needs to block SSH traffic going to the WLC, which does not originate on the management interface. Where should the ACL be applied to accomplish this with the least configuration?
A. CPU
B. Management interface
C. WLAN interfaces
D. SSID
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
An engineer is troubleshooting a FlexConnect authentication to a local RADIUS server. 642-737 dumps What debug command can discover the issue on the controller?
A. debug lwapp reap
B. debug dot11 mgmtmsg
C. debug hreapaaa
D. debug lwapp reap mgmt
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
An engineer is configuring NAC on a Wireless LAN Controller. What two CLI commands are required to create NAC out-of-band integration for SSID Cisco? (Choose two.)
A. config interface quarantine vlan Cisco 10
B. config interface quarantine vlan Cisco 0
C. config wlan nac enable Cisco
D. config guest-lan nac enable Cisco
E. config wlan apgroup nac wlan Cisco
F. config wlan apgroup nac guest-lan Cisco
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
The Cisco WLC v7.0 is configured for external 802.1X and EAP by using the WPA2 association of wireless clients when using the Cisco Secure ACS v4.2. Which two items are required in the Cisco Secure ACS network configuration to enable correct AAA? (Choose two.)
A. AP IP address
B. WLC virtual IP address
C. WLC management IP address
D. WLC AP management IP address
E. hostname matching the WLC case-sensitive name
F. authentication using RADIUS
G. authentication using TACACS+
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 10
An engineer has narrowed down an authentication issue to the client laptop. What three items should be verified for EAP-TLS authentication? (Choose three.)
A. The user account is the same in the certificate.
B. The Subject Key Identifier is configured correctly.
C. The client certificate is formatted as X.509 version 3.
D. Validate server certificate is disabled.
E. The supplicant is configured correctly.
F. The client certificate has a valid expiration date.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 11
An engineer is going to enable EAP on a new WLAN and is ensuring he has the necessary components. What component uses EAP and 802.1x to pass user authentication to the authenticator?
A. AP
B. Controller
C. Supplicant
D. AAA Server
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.
642-737 dumps
Why is the client failing to authenticate with the AAA server?
A. excessive number of authentication attempts for username
B. incorrect read/write credentials for username
C. incorrect IP address being sent by client
D. incorrect authentication for username
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
A Cisco WLC v7.0 has been only initially configured through the console setup CLI wizard. A new AP has just finished association with the controller. What is the default mode of remote access to the AP?
A. HTTPS
B. HTTP
C. SSH
D. Telnet
E. access is disabled
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 14
Which two firewall protocol port(s) need open access for secure management access to an anchor WLC for guest access? (Choose two.)
A. TCP 22
B. TCP 23
C. TCP 80
D. TCP 8080
E. TCP 443
F. UDP 123
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 15
Which option verifies that a wireless client has authenticated to a WLAN when performing NAC using the Cisco NAC Appliance Manager and Server?
A. Cisco CAM OOB Management > Devices > Discovered Clients
B. Cisco CAS OOB Management > Devices > Discovered Clients
C. Cisco CAM Monitor > View Online Users
D. Cisco CAS Monitor > View Online Users
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which two fast roaming algorithms will allow a WLAN client to roam to a new AP and re- establish a new session key without a full reauthentication of the WLAN client? (Choose two.)
A. PMK
B. PTK
C. MIC
D. GTK
E. CKM
F. PKC
Correct Answer: EF

QUESTION 17
Customer wants to configure Wireless client authentication using digtial certificates with PKI. What happens after the signer encrypts the hash with the private key of the signer during the certification signature process?
A. The verifier obtains the public key of the signer.
B. The encrypted hash is appended to the document as the signature.
C. The verifier decrypts the signature of the signer using the public key.
D. The verifier makes a hash of the received document and compares it to the decrypted signature hash.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
What is the default authentication protocol that is used for web authentication?
A. MD5-CHAP
B. CHAP
C. PAP
D. LEAP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which option verifies that a wireless client has associated but is not yet authenticated to a WLAN when performing NAC using the Cisco NAC Appliance Manager and Server?
A. Cisco CAM OOB Management > Devices > Discovered Clients
B. Cisco CAS OOB Management > Devices > Discovered Clients
C. Cisco CAM Monitor > View Online Users
D. Cisco CAS Monitor > View Online Users
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Configuring the Cisco Secure ACS with a self-signed certificate supports which requirement?
A. when no user certificate is required
B. when a CA-signed certificate is required for the user
C. when a self-signed certificate Class 4 is required for the user
D. when a self-signed certificate Class 0 is required for the user
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Which type of attack is characterized by an evil twin?
A. DoS
B. man in the middle
C. jamming
D. eavesdropping
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Employees adjust their wireless laptop for work at the office and when away from the office. What are the two most likely security issues for an employee laptop when connected at the corporate WLAN? 642-737 dumps (Choose two.)
A. loading a freeware customer contact application
B. configuring a static IP address
C. updating the driver
D. adding a coffee shop wireless HotSpot
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 23
Which protocol port(s) need open access when deploying NAC appliances to communicate with the Cisco WLC v7.0 to move an authenticated user from the quarantine VLAN to the access VLAN?
A. UDP 16666
B. UDP 514
C. UDP 5246 and 5247
D. UDP 161 and 162
E. TCP 443
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which two considerations must a network engineer have when planning for voice over wireless roaming? (Choose two.)
A. Roaming with only 802.1x authentication requires full reauthentication.
B. Full reauthentication introduces gaps in a voice conversation.
C. Roaming occurs when e phone has seen at least four APs.
D. Roaming occurs when the phone has reached -80 dBs or below.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 25
An engineer would like to use an EAP supplicant that uses PKI to authenticate the WLAN network and client, as well as a client certificate. What EAP method can be used?
A. PEAPv1
B. PEAPv0
C. EAP-FAST
D. EAP-TLS
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
642-737 dumps
A client reports being unable to log into the wireless network, which uses PEAPv2. Which two issues appear in the output? (Choose two.)
A. There is a problem with the client supplicant.
B. The AP has the incorrect RADIUS server address.
C. The AP has lost IP connectivity to the authentication server.
D. The EAP client timeout value should be increased.
E. The authentication server is misconfigured on the controller.
F. The authentication server is misconfigured in the WLAN.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 27
Which option correctly lists the EAP protocol(s) that can be configured on an autonomous AP for local authentication?
A. MAC
B. LEAP and EAP-FAST
C. MAC, LEAP, and EAP-FAST
D. MAC, EAP-FAST, EAP-PEAP, and EAP-TLS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which three actions can be configured for EAP authentication on a Cisco 1200 Series AP? (Choose three.)
A. Specify the shared secret and ports.
B. Set the EAP Authentication type Priority 1 field to the server IP address under Default Server Priorities.
C. Set the EAP Authentication type Priority 5 field to the server IP address under Default Server Priorities.
D. Enter the IP address of the authentication server in the Server field.
E. Enter the IP address of the management IP address of the Cisco WLC.
F. Specify EAP account on server and ports.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 29
When using the Microsoft WLAN AutoConfig feature, which 802.1X authentication method is not supported natively by Windows 7?
A. EAP-TLS
B. EAP-FAST
C. PEAP with MS-CHAPv2
D. PEAP with GTC
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
Which device provides IDS and IPS protection in a Cisco Unified Wireless Network against wireless clients with viruses and worms?
A. Cisco NAC Guest Server
B. Cisco Secure Access Control System
C. Cisco WLC
D. Cisco WCS
E. Cisco NAC Appliance Manager
F. Cisco NAC Appliance Server
G. Cisco IPS Appliance
Correct Answer: G

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