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LatestVCE shares online exam exercise questions all year round! CompTIA Network+ N10-007 exam “CompTIA Network+ helps develop a career in IT infrastructure covering troubleshooting, configuring, and managing networks.” https://www.lead4pass.com/n10-007.html (624 Q&As). Continue to study and we provide an updated cisco N10-007 exam practice questions and answers. You can practice the test online!

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Network+ Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications: https://certification.comptia.org/certifications/network

CompTIA Network+ N10-007 has been updated and reorganized to address the current networking technologies with expanded coverage of several domains by adding:

  • Critical security concepts to helping networking professionals work with security practitioners
  • Key cloud computing best practices and typical service models
  • Coverage of newer hardware and virtualization techniques
  • Concepts to give individuals the combination of skills to keep the network resilient

CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Please refer to the attached exhibit. Which of the following types of configuration management documentation is
represented?lead4pass n10-007 exam question q1

A. Network security policy
B. Network baseline
C. Logical network diagram
D. Wiring schematic
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following MUST be used when securing a VoIP network consisting of private IP addresses?
A. IPS
B. Application layer firewall
C. IDS
D. An unmanaged switch
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A network technician is configuring user\\’s access to a VPN concentrator and has advised to use a protocol that
supports encryption over UDP. Which of the following protocols has the technician MOST likely configured for client
use?
A. TFTP
B. DTLS
C. DNS
D. SNMP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A technician is investigating the cause of a network outage. Which of the following documents should be checked to rule
out configuration issues?
A. Change management records
B. Inventory management
C. Network log files
D. Logical diagrams
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which of the following default ports would need to be disabled to block TFTP traffic?
A. 20
B. 21
C. 69
D. 123
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
A customer is reporting difficulty connecting some devices after replacing a wireless router with a new wireless
802.11ac router. The SSID, encryption and password are the same as the previous router. A technician goes on-site
and notices the devices that are no longer connecting appear to be several years ago. Which of the following is MOST
likely the problem?
A. the password needs to be re-entered.
B. there is a security type mismatch.
C. there is insufficient antenna power.
D. there is a frequency mismatch.
E. the channel has changed.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which of the following are network topologies? (Select TWO).
A. Ethernet
B. Duplex
C. Star
D. Circular
E. Bus
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is indicative of an FTP bounce?
A. Arbitrary IP address
B. Reverse DNS lookups
C. Same Port Number
D. File Transfer Success
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
When Jeff, a technician, is troubleshooting a problem, which of the following is the NEXT step after verifying full system
functionality?
A. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects.
B. Implement the solution.
C. Establish a theory of probable cause.
D. Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
A network technician needs to connect to a remote router to modify the configuration, Which of the following method
should the technician use to connected to the device security? (Select TWO)
A. Telnet
B. VNC
C. SSH
D. RDP
E. HTTPS
F. TFTP
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 11
A technician is installing a new wireless badging system on a hospital network. The requirements of the badging system
are for it to have its own SSID and low power levels. The badging system has to cover 99.9% of the hospital. Which of
the following is the BEST action to take to meet the system requirements?
A. Install additional WAPs
B. Install external antennas
C. Move the WAPs closer to the more populated area
D. Change the antenna types
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
There is suspected virus activity on the network. Which of the following would Lisa, a technician, use to study network
traffic?
A. Protocol analyzer
B. Cable tester
C. Cable certifier
D. Environmental monitor
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A firewall administrator is implementing a rule that directs HTTP traffic to an internal server listening on a non-standard
socket. Which of the following types of rules is the administrator implementing?
A. NAT
B. PAT
C. STP
D. SNAT
E. ARP
Correct Answer: B

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The latest updated EC-COUNCIL ECSAV10 exam practice questions online free practice

QUESTION #1

Which of the following roles of Microsoft Windows Active Directory refers to the ability of an active directory to transfer
roles to any domain controller (DC) in the enterprise?
A. Master Browser (MB)
B. Global Catalog (GC)
C. Flexible Single Master Operation (FSMO)
D. Rights Management Services (RMS)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION #2

An attacker targeted to attack network switches of an organization to steal confidential information such as
network subscriber information, passwords, etc. He started transmitting data through one switch to another
by creating and sending two 802.1Q tags, one for the attacking switch and the other for victim switch. By
sending these frames. The attacker is fooling the victim switch into thinking that the frame is intended for it.
The target switch then forwards the frame to the victim port.
Identify the type of attack being performed by the attacker?
A. SNMP brute forcing
B. MAC flooding
C. IP spoofing
D. VLAN hopping
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION #3

George, an ex-employee of Netabb Ltd. with bruised feelings due to his layoff, tries to take revenge against the
company. He randomly tried several attacks against the organization. As some of the employees used weak passwords
to their user accounts, George was successful in cracking the user accounts of several employees with the help of a
common passwords file. What type of password cracking attack did George perform?
A. Hybrid attack
B. Dictionary attack
C. Brute forcing attack
D. Birthday attack
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION #4

Variables are used to define parameters for detection, specifically those of your local network and/or specific servers or
ports for inclusion or exclusion in rules. These are simple substitution variables set with the var keyword. Which one of
the following operators is used to define meta-variables?
A. “$”
B. “#”
C. “*”
D. “?”
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION #5

Identify the person who will lead the penetration-testing project and be the client’s point of contact.
A. Database Penetration Tester
B. Policy Penetration Tester
C. Chief Penetration Tester
D. Application Penetration Tester
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION #6

Sarah is a pentester at JK Hopes and Sons based in Las Vegas. As a part of the penetration testing, she
was asked to perform the test without exposing the test to anyone else in the organization. Only a few
people in the organization know about the test. This test covers the organization\’s security monitoring,
incident identification, and response procedures.
What kind of pen testing is Sarah performing?
A. Double-blind Testing
B. Announced Testing
C. Unannounced Testing
D. Blind Testing
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION #7

Michael, a penetration tester of Rolatac Pvt. Ltd., has completed his initial penetration testing, and now he needs to
create a penetration testing report for company\’s client, management, and top officials for their reference. For this, he
created a report providing a detailed summary of the complete penetration testing process of the project that he has
undergone, its outcomes, and recommendations for future testing and exploitation.
In the above scenario, which type of penetration testing report has Michael prepared?
A. Host report
B. Activity report
C. User report
D. Executive report
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION #8

In the TCP/IP model, the transport layer is responsible for the reliability and flow control from the source to the destination. TCP provides the mechanism for flow control by allowing the sending and receiving hosts to communicate. A flow control mechanism avoids the problem with a transmitting host overflowing the buffers in the receiving host.

ecsav10 questions q8

A. Sliding Windows
B. Windowing
C. Positive Acknowledgment with Retransmission (PAR)
D. Synchronization
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION #9

Which of the following scan option is able to identify the SSL services?
A. -sS
B. -sV
C. -sU
D. -sT
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION #10

Linson, an employee in Skitac Ltd., notices a USB flash drive on the pavement of the company. Before he
could hand it over to the security guard, he tries to check it out. He connects it with an OTG to his mobile
phone and finds some of his favorite music playlists and games. He tries to download them into his mobile,
but very lately he came to know that he has been attacked and some of his sensitive financial information
was exposed to attackers.
What type of attacks did Linson face?
A. Social engineering attack
B. Phishing attack
C. Wardriving attack
D. Impersonation attack
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION #11

Rule of Engagement (ROE) is the formal permission to conduct a pen-test. It provides top-level guidance for conducting penetration testing. Various factors are considered while preparing the scope of ROE which clearly explain the limits associated with the security test.

ecsav10 questions q11

Which of the following factors is NOT considered while preparing the scope of the Rules of Engagement (ROE)?
A. A list of employees in the client organization
B. A list of acceptable testing techniques
C. Specific IP addresses/ranges to be tested
D. Points of contact for the penetration testing team
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION #12

During a DHCP handshake in an IPv4 network, which of the following messages contains the actual IP addressing
information for the clients to use?
A. DHCPDISCOVER
B. DHCPACK
C. REPLY
D. SOLICIT
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION #13

Sandra, a wireless network auditor, discovered her client is using WEP. To prove the point that the WEP
encryption is very weak, she wants to decrypt some WEP packets. She successfully captured the WEP
data packets, but could not reach the content as the data is encrypted.
Which of the following will help Sandra decrypt the data packets without knowing the key?
A. Fragmentation Attack
B. Chopchop Attack
C. ARP Poisoning Attack
D. Packet injection Attack
Correct Answer: B


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QUESTION 1
Which of the following steps are required in an idle scan of a closed port? Each correct answer represents a part of the
solution. Choose all that apply.
A. The attacker sends a SYN/ACK to the zombie.
B. The zombie\\’s IP ID increases by only 1.
C. In response to the SYN, the target sends a RST.
D. The zombie ignores the unsolicited RST, and the IP ID remains unchanged.
E. The zombie\\’s IP ID increases by 2.
Correct Answer: ACDB
Following are the steps required in an idle scan of a closed port:
1.Probe the zombie\\’s IP ID: The attacker sends a SYN/ACK to the zombie. The zombie, unaware of the SYN/ACK,
sends back a RST, thus disclosing its IP ID. eccouncil 312-38 exam questions q1

 

QUESTION 2
Which of the following modems offers wireless communication under water?
A. Controllerless modem
B. Short haul modem
C. Acoustic modem
D. Optical modem
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
Which of the Windows security component is responsible for controlling access of a user to Windows resources?
A. Network Logon Service (Netlogon)
B. Security Accounts Manager (SAM)
C. Security Reference Monitor (SRM)
D. Local Security Authority Subsystem (LSASS)
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
Which of the following honeypots is a useful little burglar alarm?
A. Backofficer friendly
B. Specter
C. Honeynet
D. Honeyd
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Which of the following firewalls are used to monitor the status of active connections, and configure the network packets
to pass through the firewall? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Farm owner
B. Proxy server
C. Dynamic packet filtering
D. The circuit gateway
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 6
Which of the following is a technique for gathering information about a remote network protected by a firewall?
A. Firewalking
B. Warchalking
C. Wardriving
D. Wardialing
Correct Answer: A
Fire walking is a technique for gathering information about a remote network protected by a firewall. This technique can
be used effectively to perform information gathering attacks. In this technique, an attacker sends a crafted packet with a
TTL value that is set to expire one hop past the firewall. If the firewall allows this crafted packet through, it forwards the
packet to the next hop. On the next hop, the packet expires and elicits an ICMP “TTL expired in transit” message to the
attacker. If the firewall does not allow the traffic, there should be no response, or an ICMP “administratively prohibited”
message should be returned to the attacker. A malicious attacker can use firewalking to determine the types of ports/
protocols that can bypass the firewall. To use firewalking, the attacker needs the IP address of the last known gateway
before the firewall and the IP address of a host located behind the firewall. The main drawback of this technique is that if
an administrator blocks ICMP packets from leaving the network, it is ineffective. Answer option B is incorrect.
Warchalking is the drawing of symbols in public places to advertise an open Wi-Fi wireless network. Having found a WiFi node, the warchalker draws a special symbol on a nearby object, such as a wall, the
pavement, or a lamp post. The name warchalking is derived from the cracker terms war dialing and war driving. Answer
option C is incorrect. War driving, also called access point mapping, is the act of locating and possibly exploiting
connections to wireless local area networks while driving around a city or elsewhere. To do war driving, one needs a
vehicle, a computer (which can be a laptop), a wireless Ethernet card set to work in promiscuous mode, and some kind
of an antenna which can be mounted on top of or positioned inside the car. Because a wireless LAN may have a range
that extends beyond an office building, an outside user may be able to intrude into the network, obtain a free Internet
connection, and possibly gain access to company records and other resources. Answer option D is incorrect. War
dialing or wardialing is a technique of using a modem to automatically scan a list of telephone numbers, usually dialing
every number in a local area code to search for computers, Bulletin board systems, and fax machines. Hackers use the
resulting lists for various purposes, hobbyists for exploration, and crackers – hackers that specialize in computer security
– for password guessing.

 

QUESTION 7
Assume that you are working as a network administrator in the head office of a bank. One day a bank employee
informed you that she is unable to log in to her system. At the same time, you get a call from another network
administrator informing you that there is a problem connecting to the main server. How will you prioritize these two
incidents?
A. Based on a first come first served basis
B. Based on the type of response needed for the incident
C. Based on a potential technical effect of the incident
D. Based on approval from management
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
Henry, head of network security at Gentech, has discovered a general report template that someone has reserved only
for the CEO. Since the file has to be editable, viewable, and deletable by everyone, what permission value should he
set?
A. 700
B. 777
C. 755
D. 600
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
You are advising a school district on disaster recovery plans. In case a disaster affects the main IT centers for the
district they will need to be able to work from an alternate location. However, budget is an issue. Which of the following
is most appropriate for this client?
A. Warm site
B. Cold site
C. Hot site
D. Off site
Correct Answer: B
A cold site provides an office space, and in some cases basic equipment. However, you will need to restore your data to
that equipment in order to use it. This is a much less expensive solution than the hot site. Answer option C is incorrect.
A
hot site has equipment installed, configured and ready to use. This may make disaster recovery much faster, but will
also be more expensive. And a school district can afford to be down for several hours before resuming IT operations, so
the
less expensive option is more appropriate.
Answer option A is incorrect. A warm site is between a hot and cold site. It has some equipment ready and connectivity
ready. However, it is still significantly more expensive than a cold site, and not necessary for this scenario.
Answer option D is incorrect. Off site is not any type of backup site terminology.


QUESTION 10
With which of the following forms of acknowledgment can the sender be informed by the data receiver about all
segments that have arrived successfully?
A. Block Acknowledgment
B. Negative Acknowledgment
C. Cumulative Acknowledgment
D. Selective Acknowledgment
Correct Answer: D
Selective Acknowledgment (SACK) is one of the forms of acknowledgment. With selective acknowledgments, the
sender can be informed by a data receiver about all segments that have arrived successfully, so the sender retransmits
only those segments that have actually been lost. The selective acknowledgment extension uses two TCP options: The
first is an enabling option, “SACK-permitted”, which may be sent in a SYN segment to indicate that the SACK option can
be used once the connection is established. The other is the SACK option itself, which can be sent over an established
connection once permission has been given by “SACK-permitted”. Answer option A is incorrect. Block Acknowledgment
(BA) was initially defined in IEEE 802.11e as an optional scheme to improve the MAC efficiency. IEEE 802.11n capable
devices are also referred to as High Throughput (HT) devices. Instead of transmitting an individual ACK for every
MPDU, multiple MPDUs can be acknowledged together using a single BA frame. Block Ack (BA) contains bitmap size of
64*16 bits. Each bit of this bitmap represents the status (success/ failure) of an MPDU. Answer option B is incorrect.
With Negative Acknowledgment, the receiver explicitly notifies the sender which packets, messages, or segments were
received incorrectly that may need to be retransmitted. Answer option C is incorrect. With Cumulative Acknowledgment,
the receiver acknowledges that it has correctly received a packet, message, or segment in a stream which implicitly
informs the sender that the previous packets were received correctly. TCP uses cumulative acknowledgment with its
TCP sliding window.

 

QUESTION 11
Which of the following policies helps in defining what users can and should do to use network and organization\\’s
computer equipment?
A. General policy
B. Remote access policy
C. IT policy
D. User policy
Correct Answer: D
A user policy helps in defining what users can and should do to use network and organization\\’s computer equipment. It
also defines what limitations are put on users for maintaining the network secure such as whether users can install
programs on their workstations, types of programs users are using, and how users can access data.
Answer option C is incorrect. IT policy includes general policies for the IT department. These policies are intended to
keep the network secure and stable. It includes the following:
Virus incident and security incident
Backup policy
Client update policies
Server configuration, patch update, and modification policies (security)
Firewall policies Dmz policy, email retention, and auto forwarded email policy
Answer option A is incorrect. It defines the high level program policy and business continuity plan.
Answer option B is incorrect. Remote access policy is a document that outlines and defines acceptable methods of
remotely connecting to the internal network.

 

QUESTION 12
The IP addresses reserved for experimental purposes belong to which of the following classes?
A. Class E
B. Class C
C. Class A
D. Class D
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Which of the following is the practice of sending unwanted e-mail messages, frequently with commercial content, in
large quantities to an indiscriminate set of recipients? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all
that apply.
A. Email spoofing
B. Junk mail
C. E-mail spam
D. Email jamming
Correct Answer: BC
E-mail spam, also known as unsolicited bulk email (UBE), junk mail, or unsolicited commercial email (UCE), is the
practice of sending unwanted e-mail messages, frequently with commercial content, in large quantities to an
indiscriminate set of recipients. Answer option A is incorrect. Email spoofing is a fraudulent email activity in which the
sender address and other parts of the email header are altered to appear as though the email originated from a different
source. Email spoofing is a technique commonly used in spam and phishing emails to hide the origin of the email
message. By changing certain properties of the email, such as the From, Return-Path and Reply-To fields (which can be
found in the message header), ill-intentioned users can make the email appear to be from someone other than the
actual sender. The result is that, although the email appears to come from the address indicated in the From field (found
in the email headers), it actually comes from another source. Answer option D is incorrect. Email jamming is the use of
sensitive words in e-mails to jam the authorities that listen in on them by providing a form of a red herring and an
intentional annoyance. In this attack, an attacker deliberately includes “sensitive” words and phrases in otherwise
innocuous emails to ensure that these are picked up by the monitoring systems. As a result, the senders of these emails
will eventually be added to a “harmless” list and their emails will be no longer intercepted, hence it will allow them to
regain some privacy.


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Some of the latest updated Avaya 31860X exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Your customer is migrating CS1000 devices to Avaya Aura and is asking what role the Avaya Device Adapter plays.
Which two statements about an Avaya Device Adapter are true? (Choose two.)
A. It is a Breeze?Snap-in that provides CS1000 endpoint Call Park and Page functionality.
B. It is a Breeze?Snap-in that allows CS1000 endpoint registration with Communication Manager.
C. It is a Breeze?Snap-in that allows CS1000 endpoint feature support from Communication Manager.
D. It is a Breeze?Snap-in that allows CS1000 endpoint registration with Session Manager.
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 2
You are working on a solution design for an Avaya Aura 8.1 solution and estimating how many Digital Signaling
Processor (DSP) resources will be needed.
Which two types of calls require DSP resources? (Choose two.)
A. H.323 to H.323 calls
B. ad hoc conference calls
C. SIP to H.323 station calls
D. SIP to SIP calls
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
A customer is interested in deploying geo-redundant System Managers. Which two requirements would they need to
know? (Choose two.)
A. Both servers must be on the same IP subnet.
B. The two servers must have the same version of software,
C. The two servers can reach each other on the network.
D. Both servers must have the same IP address.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
You are recommending the WAN link requirement per branch for a multi-location customer. The customer estimates the
branch Inter-office communication use rate over the WAN to be one trunk per 20 branch users, and there are 460 users
at each branch. You assume that after all header compressions have been applied, there is a 30% protocol overhead,
and the G.729 codec being used provides 7.2 kbps.
How much bandwidth is needed for voice traffic on the WAN link for each branch?
A. 187.2 Kbps
B. 115.9 Kbps
C. 165.6 Kbps
D. 215.3 Kbps
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
To support 2000 users, acustomer wants an Avaya Session Border Controller forEnterprise (SBCE) with encryption for
SIP trunking. They have agreed to use a one session for every five users sizing model.
How many licenses does this customer need?
A. 2,000 standard and 2,000 advanced licenses
B. 400 standard and 400 advanced licenses
C. 400 standard licenses
D. 2,000 standard licenses
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
You are interested in having multiple devices to register with the same extension number, but use only one user
license.
Which three are required for the Multiple Device Access feature? (Choose three.)
A. Avaya Aura Communication Manager
B. Avaya one-X?Client Enablement Services
C. Avaya Aura Session Manager
D. Avaya Aura Application Enablement Services
E. Avaya Aura System Manager
Correct Answer: ADE


QUESTION 7
Yourare designing an addition to a customer\\’s existing Avaya Aura system. The addition will include 575 IP sets, of
which 200 will also use Avaya Equinoxfor the Desktop, 175 will use Desktop P2P Video, and 25 of them will also need
Extension to Cellular (EC500). There are 75 other new users who will use Avaya Equinoxfor iOS as their only UC Client
or endpoint. The customer does not want a la carte licensing for applications not covered by Core Suite, and will
purchase other Avaya Aura Suites as required.
How many Core Suite licenses are needed for the addition?
A. 675
B. 650
C. 625
D. 575
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
The following endpoints are being requested for an Avaya Aura solution:
300 9611G telephones running H.323 100 9641GS telephones running SIP 50 J129 telephones 50 Analog telephones
20 DCP telephones 75 Avaya Equinoxclients
How many registrations will Session Manager have to support?
A. 225
B. 175
C. 100
D. 75
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
Your customer has a CTI application that requires Avaya Aura Application Enablement Services (AES). To work with
AES, how must Communication Manager be operating?
A. In a survivable remote mode
B. In the Avaya Aura Core
C. As a Feature Server
D. As an Evolution Server
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
A customer has a main location and several remote locations with Avaya Aura Survivable Remotes. How many
components can an Avaya IXTM IP Phone J169 SIP endpoint register to simultaneously?
A. Two Core Session Managers and a Communication Manager Survivable Core
B. Three Core Session Managers and a Branch Session Manager
C. Two Core Session Managers and a Branch Session Manager
D. Five Core Session Managers or Branch Session Managers
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
You are trying to determine how many Basic and Mainstream licenses are needed to support a proposal for Avaya IX
Messaging.
Which feature requires a Mainstream license?
A. Multiple greetings
B. Full synchronization with 0365 email applications
C. Distribution lists
D. Multiple Telephone User Interfaces (TUIs)
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
The Avaya Session Border Controller for Enterprise (SBCE) uses Standard and Advanced licenses.
In addition to Remote Worker functionality, what are two additional features that require a standard license and an
advanced license? (Choose two.)
A. Media forking (SIPREC)
B. Transport Layer Security (TLS) and Secure Real-time Transport Protocol (SRTP) encryption
C. High availability
D. Network Address Translation (NAT) traversal
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 13
You are designing media gateways at remote locations for a customer. They have requested the following:
Analog telephone calls go through the PSTN in case of power outage. Redundant power supply The same
administrative and telephone functionality during WAN outage
Which design meets these customer requests?
A. A design with G450 gateways with dual power supplies, and Standard Local Survivability A design with G430
gateways with dual power supplies, and Standard Local Survivability
B. A design with G450 gateways with dual power supplies, and S8300 Survivable-Remote
C. A design with G430 gateways with dual power supply, and S8300 Survivable-Remote
Correct Answer: A

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Latest update EC-COUNCIL ECSAV10 exam questions and answers online practice test

QUESTION 1
Today, most organizations would agree that their most valuable IT assets reside within applications and databases.
Most would probably also agree that these are areas that have the weakest levels of security, thus making them the
prime target for malicious activity from system administrators, DBAs, contractors, consultants, partners, and customers. eccouncil ecsav10 exam questions q1

Which of the following flaws refers to an application using poorly written encryption code to securely encrypt and store
sensitive data in the database and allows an attacker to steal or modify weakly protected data such as credit card
numbers, SSNs, and other authentication credentials?
A. SSI injection attack
B. Insecure cryptographic storage attack
C. Hidden field manipulation attack
D. Man-in-the-Middle attack
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
What does ICMP Type 3/Code 13 mean?
A. Host Unreachable
B. Port Unreachable
C. Protocol Unreachable
D. Administratively Blocked
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
What is kept in the following directory? HKLM\SECURITY\Policy\Secrets
A. Service account passwords in plain text
B. Cached password hashes for the past 20 users
C. IAS account names and passwords
D. Local store PKI Kerberos certificates
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
Amazon, an IT based company, conducts a survey on the usage of the Internet. They found that company employees
spend most of the time at work surfing the web for their personal use and for inappropriate web site viewing.
Management decide to block all such web sites using URL filtering software.eccouncil ecsav10 exam questions q4

How can employees continue to see the blocked websites?
A. Using session hijacking
B. Using proxy servers
C. Using authentication
D. Using encryption
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is NOT related to the Internal Security Assessment penetration testing strategy?
A. Testing to provide a more complete view of site security
B. Testing focused on the servers, infrastructure, and the underlying software, including the target
C. Testing including tiers and DMZs within the environment, the corporate network, or partner company connections
D. Testing performed from a number of network access points representing each logical and physical segment
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
Peter works as a lead penetration tester in a security service firm named Xsecurity. Recently, Peter was assigned a
white-box pen test assignment testing the security of an IDS system deployed by a client. During the preliminary
information gathering, Peter discovered the TTL to reach the IDS system from his end is 30. Peter created a Trojan and
fragmented it in to 1-character packets using the Colasoft packet builder tool. He then used a packet flooding utility to
bombard the IDS with these fragmented packets with the destination address of a target host behind the IDS whose TTL
is 35. What is Peter trying to achieve?
A. Peter is trying to bypass the IDS system using a Trojan
B. Peter is trying to bypass the IDS system using the broadcast address
C. Peter is trying to bypass the IDS system using the insertion attack
D. Peter is trying to bypass the IDS system using inconsistent packets
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
Paulette works for an IT security consulting company that is currently performing an audit for the firm ACE Unlimited.
Paulette\\’s duties include logging on to all the company\\’s network equipment to ensure IOS versions are up-to-date
and all the other security settings are as stringent as possible. Paulette presents the following screenshot to her boss so
he can inform the clients about necessary changes need to be made. From the screenshot, what changes should the
client company make? Exhibit:eccouncil ecsav10 exam questions q7

A. The banner should not state “only authorized IT personnel may proceed”
B. Remove any identifying numbers, names, or version information
C. The banner should include the Cisco tech support contact information as well
D. The banner should have more detail on the version numbers for the network equipment
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
War Driving is the act of moving around a specific area, mapping the population of wireless access points
for statistical purposes. These statistics are then used to raise awareness of the security problems
associated with these types of networks.
Which one of the following is a Linux based program that exploits the weak IV (Initialization Vector)
problem documented with static WEP?
A. Airsnort
B. Aircrack
C. WEPCrack
D. Airpwn
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Adam is a senior penetration tester at XYZsecurity Inc. He is auditing a wireless network for vulnerabilities.
Before starting the audit, he wants to ensure that the wireless card in his machine supports injection. He
decided to use the latest version of aircrack-ng tool.
Which of the following commands will help Adam check his wireless card for injection?
A. aireplay-ng -9 wlan0
B. airodump-ng wlan0
C. airdecap-ng -3 wlan0
D. aireplay-ng -5 –b wlan0
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
You are the security analyst working for a private company out of France. Your current assignment is to obtain credit
card information from a Swiss bank owned by that company. After initial reconnaissance, you discover that the bank
security defenses are very strong and would take too long to penetrate. You decide to get the information by monitoring
the traffic between the bank and one of its subsidiaries in London. After monitoring some of the traffic, you see a lot of
FTP packets traveling back and forth. You want to sniff the traffic and extract usernames and passwords. What tool
could you use to get this information?
A. RaidSniff
B. Snort
C. Ettercap
D. Airsnort
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
What are the scanning techniques that are used to bypass firewall rules and logging mechanisms and disguise
themselves as usual network traffic?
A. Connect Scanning Techniques
B. SYN Scanning Techniques
C. Stealth Scanning Techniques
D. Port Scanning Techniques
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
Vulnerability assessment is an examination of the ability of a system or application, including the current security
procedures and controls, to withstand assault.eccouncil ecsav10 exam questions q12

What does a vulnerability assessment identify?
A. Disgruntled employees
B. Weaknesses that could be exploited
C. Physical security breaches
D. Organizational structure
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
TCP/IP provides a broad range of communication protocols for the various applications on the network. The TCP/IP
model has four layers with major protocols included within each layer. Which one of the following protocols is used to
collect information from all the network devices?
A. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
B. Network File system (NFS)
C. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
D. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
Correct Answer: A


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Latest update Splunk SPLK-1002 exam questions and answers online practice test

QUESTION 1
Which of the following statements describes calculated fields?
A. Calculated fields are only used on fields added by lookups.
B. Calculated fields are a shortcut for repetitive and complex eval commands.
C. Calculated fields are a shortcut for repetitive and complex calc commands.
D. Calculated fields automatically calculate the simple moving average for indexed fields.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.1.1/Knowledge/CreatecalculatedfieldswithSplunkWeb

 

QUESTION 2
Which of the following searches show a valid use of macro? (Select all that apply)
A. index=main source=mySource oldField=* |\\’makeMyField(oldField)\\’| table _time newField
B. index=main source=mySource oldField=* | stats if(\\’makeMyField(oldField)\\’) | table _time newField
C. index=main source=mySource oldField=* | eval newField=\\’makeMyField(oldField)\\’| table _time newField
D. index=main source=mySource oldField=* | “\\’newField(\\’makeMyField(oldField)\\’)\\'” | table _time newField
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://answers.splunk.com/answers/574643/field-showing-an-additional-and-not-visible-value-1.html

 

QUESTION 3
Given the macro definition below, what should be entered into the Name and Arguments fileds to correctly configured
the macro?splunk splk-1002 exam questions q3

A. The macro name is sessiontracker and the arguments are action, JESSIONID.
B. The macro name is sessiontracker(2) and the arguments are action, JESSIONID.
C. The macro name is sessiontracker and the arguments are $action$, $JESSIONID$.
D. The macro name is sessiontracker(2) and the Arguments are $action$, $JESSIONID$.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.0.3/Knowledge/Definesearchmacros

 

QUESTION 4
After manually editing; a regular expression (regex), which of the following statements is true?
A. Changes made manually can be reverted in the Field Extractor (FX) UI.
B. It is no longer possible to edit the field extraction in the Field Extractor (FX) UI.
C. It is not possible to manually edit a regular expression (regex) that was created using the Field Extractor (FX) UI.
D. The Field Extractor (FX) UI keeps its own version of the field extraction in addition to the one that was manually
edited.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
The eval command \\’if\\’ function requires the following three arguments (in order):
A. Boolean expression, result if true, result if false
B. Result if true, result if false, boolean expression
C. Result if false, result if true, boolean expression
D. Boolean expression, result if false, result if true
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
In which of the following scenarios is an event type more effective than a saved search?
A. When a search should always include the same time range.
B. When a search needs to be added to other users\\’ dashboards.
C. When the search string needs to be used in future searches.
D. When formatting needs to be included with the search string.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://answers.splunk.com/answers/4993/eventtype-vs-saved-search.html

 

QUESTION 7
Which of the following statements about tags is true?
A. Tags are case insensitive.
B. Tags are created at index time.
C. Tags can make your data more understandable.
D. Tags are searched by using the syntax tag: :
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
The fields sidebar does not show________. (Select all that apply.)
A. interesting fields
B. selected fields
C. all extracted fields
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
What does the fillnull command replace null values with, it the value argument is not specified?
A. 0
B. N/A
C. NaN
D. NULL
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://answers.splunk.com/answers/653427/fillnull-doesnt-work-without-specfying-a-field.html

 

QUESTION 10
Which statement is true?
A. Pivot is used for creating datasets.
B. Data model are randomly structured datasets.
C. Pivot is used for creating reports and dashboards.
D. In most cases, each Splunk user will create their own data model.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.0.3/Pivot/IntroductiontoPivot

 

QUESTION 11
Which of the following statements describes Search workflow actions?
A. By default. Search workflow actions will run as a real-time search.
B. Search workflow actions can be configured as scheduled searches,
C. The user can define the time range of the search when created the workflow action.
D. Search workflow actions cannot be configured with a search string that includes the transaction command
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
Calculated fields can be based on which of the following?
A. Tags
B. Extracted fields
C. Output fields for a lookup
D. Fields generated from a search string
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.0.3/Knowledge/definecalcfields

 

QUESTION 13
In the Field Extractor Utility, this button will display events that do not contain extracted fields. Select your answer.
A. Selected-Fields
B. Non-Matches
C. Non-Extractions
D. Matches
Correct Answer: B


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Latest update EC-COUNCIL 312-50v11 exam questions and answers online practice test

QUESTION 1
What is the main security service a cryptographic hash provides?
A. Integrity and ease of computation
B. Message authentication and collision resistance
C. Integrity and collision resistance
D. Integrity and computational in-feasibility
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
What is the minimum number of network connections in a multi-homed firewall?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 4
D. 2
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Samuel a security administrator, is assessing the configuration of a web server. He noticed that the server permits
SSlv2 connections and the same private key certificate is used on a different server that allows SSLv2 connections.
This vulnerability makes the web server vulnerable to attacks as the SSLv2 server can leak key information.
Which of the following attacks can be performed by exploiting the above vulnerability?
A. DROWN attack
B. Padding oracle attack
C. Side-channel attack
D. DUHK attack
Correct Answer: A
DROWN is a serious vulnerability that affects HTTPS and other services that deem SSL and TLS, some of the essential
cryptographic protocols for network security. These protocols allow everyone on the net to browse the net, use email, look online, and send instant messages while not third parties being able to browse the communication. DROWN allows
attackers to break the encryption and read or steal sensitive communications, as well as passwords, credit card
numbers, trade secrets, or financial data. At the time of public disclosure in March 2016, our measurements indicated
thirty a third of all HTTPS servers were vulnerable to the attack. fortuitously, the vulnerability is much less prevalent
currently. As of 2019, SSL Labs estimates that one.2% of HTTPS servers are vulnerable. What will the attackers
gain? Any communication between users and the server. This typically includes, however isn\\’t limited to, usernames
and passwords, credit card numbers, emails, instant messages, and sensitive documents. under some common
scenarios, an attacker can also impersonate a secure website and intercept or change the content the user sees. Who
is vulnerable? Websites, mail servers, and other TLS-dependent services are in danger for the DROWN attack. At the
time of public disclosure, many popular sites were affected. we used Internet-wide scanning to live how many sites are
vulnerable:EC-COUNCIL 312-50v11 certification exam q3

SSLv2 Operators of vulnerable servers got to take action. there \\’s nothing practical that browsers or end-users will do
on their own to protect against this attack. Is my site vulnerable? Modern servers and shoppers use the TLS encryption
protocol. However, because of misconfigurations, several servers also still support SSLv2, the 1990s- era precursor to
TLS. This support did not matter in practice, since no up-to-date clients really use SSLv2. Therefore, despite the fact
that SSLv2 is thought to be badly insecure, until now, simply supporting SSLv2 wasn\\’t thought of as a security problem, is
clients never used it. DROWN shows that merely supporting SSLv2 may be a threat to fashionable servers and
clients. It modern associate degree attacker to modern fashionable TLS connections between up-to-date clients and
servers by sending probes to a server that supports SSLv2 and uses the same private key.

EC-COUNCIL 312-50v11 certification exam q3-1

SSLv2 It allows SSLv2 connections. This is surprisingly common, due to misconfiguration and inappropriate default
settings. Its private key is used on any other server that allows SSLv2 connections, even for another protocol. Many
companies reuse the same certificate and key on their web and email servers, for instance. In this case, if the email
server supports SSLv2 and the web server does not, an attacker can take advantage of the email server to break TLS
connections to the webserver. A server is vulnerable to DROWN if:

EC-COUNCIL 312-50v11 certification exam q3-2

SSLv2 How do I protect my server? To protect against DROWN, server operators need to ensure that their private keys
software used anyplace with server computer code that enables SSLv2 connections. This includes net servers, SMTP
servers, IMAP and POP servers, and the other software that supports SSL/TLS. Disabling SSLv2 is difficult and
depends on the particular server software. we offer instructions here for many common products: OpenSSL: OpenSSL
may be a science library employed in several server merchandises. For users of OpenSSL, the simplest and
recommended solution is to upgrade to a recent OpenSSL version. OpenSSL
1.0.2 users ought to upgrade to 1.0.2g. OpenSSL 1.0.1 users ought to upgrade to one.0.1s. Users of older OpenSSL
versions ought to upgrade to either one in every one of these versions. (Updated March thirteenth,
16:00 UTC) Microsoft IIS (Windows Server): Support for SSLv2 on the server aspect is enabled by default only on the
OS versions that correspond to IIS 7.0 and IIS seven.5, particularly Windows scene, Windows Server 2008, Windows
seven, and Windows Server 2008R2. This support is disabled within the appropriate SSLv2 subkey for `Server\\’, as
outlined in KB245030. albeit users haven\\’t taken the steps to disable SSLv2, the export-grade and 56-bit ciphers that
build DROWN possible don\\’t seem to be supported by default. Network Security Services (NSS): NSS may be a
common science library designed into several server merchandises. NSS versions three.13 (released back in 2012) and
higher than ought to have SSLv2 disabled by default. (A little variety of users might have enabled SSLv2 manually and
can get to take steps to disable it.) Users of older versions ought to upgrade to a more modern version. we tend to still
advocate checking whether or not your non-public secret is exposed elsewhere Other affected software and in operation
systems: Instructions and data for Apache, Postfix, Nginx, Debian, Red Hat Browsers, and other consumers: practical
nothing practical that net browsers or different client computer code will do to stop DROWN. only server operators are
ready to take action to guard against the attack.

 

QUESTION 4
While examining audit logs, you discover that people are able to telnet into the SMTP server on port 25. You would like
to block this, though you do not see any evidence of an attack or other wrongdoing. However, you are concerned about
affecting the normal functionality of the email server. From the following options choose how best you can achieve this
objective?
A. Block port 25 at the firewall.
B. Shut off the SMTP service on the server.
C. force all connections to use a username and password.
D. Switch from Windows Exchange to UNIX Sendmail.
E. None of the above.
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 5
What piece of hardware on a computer\\’s motherboard generates encryption keys and only releases a part of the key
so that decrypting a disk on a new piece of hardware is not possible?
A. CPU
B. GPU
C. UEFI
D. TPM
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
What would be the fastest way to perform content enumeration on a given web server by using the Gobuster tool?
A. Performing content enumeration using the brute force mode and 10 threads
B. Shipping SSL certificate verification
C. Performing content enumeration using a wordlist
D. Performing content enumeration using the brute force mode and random file extensions
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
You have the SOA presented below in your Zone.
Your secondary servers have not been able to contact your primary server to synchronize information. How long will the
secondary servers attempt to contact the primary server before it considers that zone is dead and stops responding to
queries?
collegae.edu.SOA, cikkye.edu ipad.college.edu. (200302028 3600 3600 604800 3600)
A. One day
B. One hour
C. One week
D. One month
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
Which of the following viruses tries to hide from anti-virus programs by actively altering and corrupting the chosen
service call interruptions when they are being run?
A. Macro virus
B. Stealth/Tunneling virus
C. Cavity virus
D. Polymorphic virus
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
If a token and 4-digit personal identification number (PIN) is used to access a computer system and the token
performs off-line checking for the correct PIN, what type of attack is possible?
A. Birthday
B. Brute force
C. Man-in-the-middle
D. Smurf
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
During the enumeration phase. Lawrence performs banner grabbing to obtain information such as OS details and
versions of services running. The service that he enumerated runs directly on TCP port 445. Which of the following
services is enumerated by Lawrence in this scenario?
A. Server Message Block (SMB)
B. Network File System (NFS)
C. Remote procedure call (RPC)
D. Telnet
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Worker Message Block (SMB) is an organization document sharing and information texture convention.
SMB is utilized by billions of gadgets in a different arrangement of working frameworks, including Windows, macOS, iOS
, Linux, and Android. Customers use SMB to get information on workers. This permits sharing of records, unified
information the board, and brought down capacity limit needs for cell phones. Workers additionally use SMB as a
feature of the Software-characterized Data Center for outstanding burdens like grouping and replication. Since SMB is a
far-off record framework, it requires security from assaults where a Windows PC may be fooled into reaching a
pernicious worker running inside a confided-in organization or to a far-off worker outside the organization’s edge. Firewall
best practices and arrangements can upgrade security keeping malevolent traffic from leaving the PC or its
organization. For Windows customers and workers that don\\’t have SMB shares, you can obstruct all inbound SMB
traffic utilizing the Windows Defender Firewall to keep far-off associations from malignant or bargained gadgets. In the
Windows Defender Firewall incorporates the accompanying inbound principles.EC-COUNCIL 312-50v11 certification exam q10

You should also create a new blocking rule to override any other inbound firewall rules. Use the following suggested
settings for any Windows clients or servers that do not host SMB Shares: Name: Block all inbound SMB 445
Description: Blocks all inbound SMB TCP 445 traffic. Not to be applied to domain controllers or computers that host
SMB shares. Action: Block the connection Programs: All Remote Computers: Any Protocol Type: TCP Local Port: 445
Remote Port: Any Profiles: All Scope (Local IP Address): Any Scope (Remote IP Address): Any Edge Traversal: Block
edge traversal You must not globally block inbound SMB traffic to domain controllers or file servers. However, you can
restrict access to them from trusted IP ranges and devices to lower their attack surface. They should also be restricted
to Domain or Private firewall profiles and not allow Guest/Public traffic.

 

QUESTION 11
in an attempt to increase the security of your network, you Implement a solution that will help keep your
wireless network undiscoverable and accessible only to those that know It.
How do you accomplish this?
A. Delete the wireless network
B. Remove all passwords
C. Lock all users
D. Disable SSID broadcasting
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
When you are getting information about a web server, it is very important to know the HTTP Methods (GET, POST,
HEAD, PUT, DELETE, TRACE) that are available because there are two critical methods (PUT and DELETE). PUT can
upload a file to the server and DELETE can delete a file from the server. You can detect all these methods (GET,
POST, HEAD, DELETE, PUT, TRACE) using NMAP script engine. What Nmap script will help you with this task?
A. HTTP-methods
B. HTTP enum
C. HTTP-headers
D. HTTP-git
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Suppose that you test an application for the SQL injection vulnerability. You know that the backend database
is based on Microsoft SQL Server. In the login/password form, you enter the following credentials:
Username: attack\\’ or 1?
Password: 123456
Based on the above credentials, which of the following SQL commands are you expecting to be executed by the server,
if there is indeed an SQL injection vulnerability?
A. select * from Users where UserName =\\’attack or 1=1 -and UserPassword = \\’123456″
B. select * from users wherefuserName = \\’attack\\’ or 1=1 –\\’and UserPassword = \\’123456\\’
C. select * from Users where UserName =\\’attack” or 1=1 -and UserPassword = \\’123456\\’
D. select * from users where UserName”\\’attack\\’or 1=1 – and UserPassword “\\’123456\\’
Correct Answer: D


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Latest update Avaya 37820X exam questions and answers online practice test

QUESTION 1
Refer to the Scenario: Bittersweet Coffee Company (BCC).

avaya 37820x certification exam q1

When responding to an RFP, it is common to propose an initial solution that meets only the minimum requirements of
the RFP, and later to propose additional or enhanced products/services that you believe will best meet the customer\\’s
needs. Assuming that you are providing the initial basic response to the BCC RFP, which product might not be needed,
but could be included in a subsequent response to provide additional functionality?
A. Avaya Session Border Controller for Enterprise
B. 1600 series telephone sets
C. Avaya one-X Mobile
D. Voicemail Pro
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
Refer to the Scenario: IT-FAC.avaya 37820x certification exam q2

With their new IP OfficeTM, you decide to propose twinning to the mobile users. To twin external calls from the IP Office
to these mobile users, on-premise or off-premise requires two trunks; incoming and outgoing. To support 10
simultaneous calls require 20 trunks. In addition to the number of trunks required to extend calls, what other design
issue must be considered?
A. The incoming and outgoing trunk must be digital.
B. The Incoming trunk can be analog or digital and the outgoing trunk must be digital.
C. The incoming and outgoing trunk can be analog or digital.
D. The incoming trunk must be digital and the outgoing can be analog or digital.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
Which agent application uses the Communication Control Toolkit (CCT) function in Avaya Contact Center Select
(ACCS)?
A. one-X Agent
B. Avaya Communicator
C. Avaya Agent Desktop
D. Agent Desktop Display
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
Currently, a customer has an IP500 V2 Preferred Edition deployment with SIP trunks at their office, but they plan to have
10 employees for tech support to work remotely within the next month. All 10 employees must be able to access their
extension simultaneously. They ask you If the IP OfficeTM has built-in functionality for this and whether that Is sufficient
from a security perspective. Which solution would satisfy the customer\\’s need for remote employees and security, and
which additional licensing (if any) is required?
A. An SBCE Is recommended and deployed with the IP Office. The customer also needs 10 Standard Licenses for the
remote workers.
B. The IP Office has a built-in SBC and firewall and It is sufficient for security. The customer also needs 10 Teleworker
licenses,
C. An SBCE is recommended and deployed with the IP Office. The customer also needs 10 Standard and Advanced
Licenses for the remote workers.
D. The IP Office has a built-in SBC, and it is sufficient for security. The customer also needs 10 Teleworker licenses.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Your customer wants to edit the standard reports.
In addition to the Basic Avaya Call Reporting license, what is required to allow your customer to change
some of the 50 standard reports?
A. Recording Library
B. Agent Dashboards
C. Realtime
D. Custom reports
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.avaya 37820x certification exam q6

You have just finished your discovery conversation with a multi-location, midsize customer. What would you do to use
the generic functional UCandC architecture shown in the exhibit?
A. Create a version of this diagram for each location.
B. Add the specific product names for components in your solution.
C. Cross out functionality not requested by the customer.
D. Add-In quantities for each of the components in your solution.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
You are proposing an Avaya Midsize solution with 200 agents, 10 supervisors, 225 non-agent UC users,
and 200 non-agent Telephony users.
How many Telephony users and UC users would be Included In your Bill of Materials?
A. 410 Telephony users and 225 UC users
B. 210 Telephony users and 425 UC users
C. 200 Telephony users and 435 UC users D. 400 Telephony users and 235 UC users
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
In Avaya Contact Center Select, from where is social media data loaded Into the agent desktop?
A. The Contact Center Manager Server database
B. The Contact Center Manager Administration database
C. The Communication Control Toolkit database
D. The Contact Center Multimedia database
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
Refer to the Scenario: HandH Ticket.avaya 37820x certification exam q9

The HandH Ticket company wants to replace their DEFINITY systems with a solution for which they can easily obtain
parts and maintenance. The customer contact wants to know why they should migrate to IP Office”* and not Avaya
Aura? In addition to telling them that this solution was purpose-built to support midsize enterprises with up to 3000
users, what else would you tell them?
A. IP Office Includes built-in apps such as voicemail, audio and web collaboration, mobility, IM, and Presence.
B. The IP Office can be virtualized in either a Nutanix or a VMware environment.
C. IP Office integrates with a multi-channel contact center solution that can migrate to Avaya Aura Contact Center.
D. IP Office uses many of the same components and applications such as SBCE and System Manager.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
Refer to the IT-FAC scenario and exhibits.avaya 37820x certification exam q10 avaya 37820x certification exam q10-1 avaya 37820x certification exam q10-2

The customer. Island Tropics Family Amusement Center has received solution designs from two different vendors,
Vendor A and Vendor B. As the manufacturer\\’s representative, the customer wants you to explain the merits and
limitations of each solution. For the Mobile Users\\’ portion of the solution. Vendor A has proposed using a DECT
solution instead of using smartphones. What are the two characteristics of this mobility solution? (Choose two.)
A. It utilizes the WiFi network of APs.
B. It supports off-premise connectivity.
C. It operates on a separate DECT network.
D. It uses a line of ruggedized endpoints.
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 11
Midsize businesses face common market trends and need related to different aspects such as workforce
or cloud communications.
Which characteristic is an example of a workforce midsize segment trend?
A. Employees want access to tools to be more self-sufficient.
B. Employees are requesting company-provided mobile devices.
C. The number of users outside of the office is increasing.
D. More tech-savvy workers are working in the midsize segment.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
Which statement describe the competitive advantages of the Avaya Midsize Solution?
A. It focuses on the customer\\’s IT relevant needs.
B. It Is available in more deployment options than other major vendors.
C. It supports a broader range of endpoint types.
D. It delivers a lower total cost of ownership compared to all major vendors.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
Refer to the Scenario: HandH Tick.avaya 37820x certification exam q13

Based on the HandH Ticket scenario, which in Border Controller for Enterprise (SBCE) deployment would you
recommend providing secure, resilient SIP communications for Internal and mobile/remote representatives?
A. A high availability deployment on three Dell servers
B. A high availability deployment on two Dell servers
C. A high availability deployment on two Portwell Cad servers
D. A virtualized high availability Hyper-V deployment
Correct Answer: C

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  1. EC-COUNCIL 312-50v11 Dumps Pdf
  2. EC-COUNCIL 312-50v11 Dumps Youtube
  3. EC-COUNCIL 312-50v11 Exam Questions
  4. EC-COUNCIL Discount Code 2021

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Latest Update EC-COUNCIL 312-50v11 Exam Questions and Answers Online Test

QUESTION 1
Due to a slowdown of normal network operations, the IT department decided to monitor internet traffic for all of the
employees. From a legal standpoint, what would be troublesome to take this kind of measure?
A. All of the employees would stop normal work activities
B. IT department would be telling employees who the boss is
C. Not informing the employees that they are going to be monitored could be an invasion of privacy.
D. The network could still experience traffic slow down.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
What is the way to decide how a packet will move from an untrusted outside host to a protected inside that is behind a
firewall, which permits the hacker to determine which ports are open and if the packets can pass through the packetfiltering of the firewall?
A. Session hijacking
B. Firewalking
C. Man-in-the middle attack
D. Network sniffing
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
You work for Acme Corporation as Sales Manager. The company has tight network security restrictions. You are trying
to steal data from the company\\’s Sales database (Sales.xls) and transfer them to your home computer. Your company
filters and monitors traffic that leaves from the internal network to the Internet. How will you achieve this without raising
suspicion?
A. Encrypt the Sales.xls using PGP and e-mail it to your personal gmail account
B. Package the Sales.xls using Trojan wrappers and telnet them back your home computer
C. You can conceal the Sales.xls database in another file like photo.jpg or other files and send it out in an innocent
looking email or file transfer using Steganography techniques
D. Change the extension of Sales.xls to sales.txt and upload them as attachment to your hotmail account
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Larry, a security professional in an organization, has noticed some abnormalities In the user accounts on a web server.
To thwart evolving attacks, he decided to harden the security of the web server by adopting a countermeasures to
secure the accounts on the web server.
Which of the following countermeasures must Larry implement to secure the user accounts on the web server?
A. Enable unused default user accounts created during the installation of an OS
B. Enable all non-interactive accounts that should exist but do not require interactive login
C. Limit the administrator or toot-level access to the minimum number of users
D. Retain all unused modules and application extensions
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
To determine if a software program properly handles a wide range of invalid input, a form of automated testing can be
used to randomly generate invalid input in an attempt to crash the program.
What term is commonly used when referring to this type of testing?
A. Randomizing
B. Bounding
C. Mutating
D. Fuzzing
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
Let\\’s imagine three companies (A, B and C), all competing in a challenging global environment. Company
A and B are working together in developing a product that will generate a major competitive advantage for
them. Company A has a secure DNS server while company B has a DNS server vulnerable to spoofing.
With a spoofing attack on the DNS server of company B, company C gains access to outgoing e-mails
from company B.
How do you prevent DNS spoofing?
A. Install DNS logger and track vulnerable packets
B. Disable DNS timeouts
C. Install DNS Anti-spoofing
D. Disable DNS Zone Transfer
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
A newly joined employee. Janet, has been allocated an existing system used by a previous employee. Before issuing
the system to Janet, it was assessed by Martin, the administrator. Martin found that there were possibilities of
compromise through user directories, registries, and other system parameters. He also Identified vulnerabilities such as
native configuration tables, incorrect registry or file permissions, and software configuration errors. What is the type of
vulnerability assessment performed by Martin?
A. Credentialed assessment
B. Database assessment
C. Host-based assessment
D. Distributed assessment
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The host-based vulnerability assessment (VA) resolution arose from the auditors\\’ got to periodically
review systems. Arising before the net becoming common, these tools typically take an “administrator\\’s eye” read of
the setting by evaluating all of the knowledge that an administrator has at his or her disposal. UsesHost VA tools verify
system configuration, user directories, file systems, registry settings, and all forms of other info on a number to gain
information about it. Then, it evaluates the chance of compromise. it should also live compliance to a predefined
company policy so as to satisfy an annual audit. With administrator access, the scans area unit less possible to disrupt
traditional operations since the computer code has the access it has to see into the complete configuration of the
system.
What it Measures Host VA tools will examine the native configuration tables and registries to spot not solely apparent
vulnerabilities, however additionally “dormant” vulnerabilities ?those weak or misconfigured systems and settings which
will be exploited when an initial entry into the setting. Host VA solutions will assess the safety settings of a user account
table; the access management lists related to sensitive files or data; and specific levels of trust applied to other systems.
The host VA resolution will a lot of accurately verify the extent of the danger by determinant however way any specific
exploit could also be ready to get.

 

QUESTION 8
What piece of hardware on a computer\\’s motherboard generates encryption keys and only releases a part of the key
so that decrypting a disk on a new piece of hardware is not possible?
A. CPU
B. GPU
C. UEFI
D. TPM
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
what firewall evasion scanning technique make use of a zombie system that has low network activity as well as its
fragment identification numbers?
A. Decoy scanning
B. Packet fragmentation scanning
C. Spoof source address scanning
D. Idle scanning
Correct Answer: D
The idle scan could be a communications protocol port scan technique that consists of causing spoofed packets to a pc
to seek out out what services square measure obtainable. this can be accomplished by impersonating another pc whose
network traffic is extremely slow or nonexistent (that is, not transmission or receiving information). this might be
associate idle pc, known as a “zombie”. This action are often done through common code network utilities like nmap
and hping. The attack involves causing solid packets to a particular machine target in an attempt to seek out distinct
characteristics of another zombie machine. The attack is refined as a result of there\\’s no interaction between the
offender pc and also the target: the offender interacts solely with the “zombie” pc. This exploit functions with 2 functions,
as a port scanner and a clerk of sure informatics relationships between machines. The target system interacts with the
“zombie” pc and distinction in behavior are often discovered mistreatment totally different|completely different “zombies”
with proof of various privileges granted by the target to different computers. The overall intention behind the idle scan is
to “check the port standing whereas remaining utterly invisible to the targeted host.” The first step in execution associate
idle scan is to seek out associate applicable zombie. It must assign informatics ID packets incrementally on a worldwide
(rather than per-host it communicates with) basis. It ought to be idle (hence the scan name), as extraneous traffic can
raise its informatics ID sequence, confusing the scan logic. The lower the latency between the offender and also the
zombie, and between the zombie and also the target, the quicker the scan can proceed. Note that once a port is open,
IPIDs increment by a pair of. Following is that the sequence: offender to focus on -> SYN, target to zombie ->SYN/ACK,
Zombie to focus on -> RST (IPID increment by 1) currently offender tries to probe zombie for result. offender to Zombie
->SYN/ACK, Zombie to offender -> RST (IPID increment by 1) So, during this method IPID increments by a pair of
finally. When associate idle scan is tried, tools (for example nmap) tests the projected zombie and reports any issues
with it. If one does not work, attempt another. Enough net hosts square measure vulnerable that zombie candidates are
not exhausting to seek out. a standard approach is to easily execute a ping sweep of some network. selecting a network
close to your supply address, or close to the target, produces higher results. you\\’ll be able to attempt associate idle
scan mistreatment every obtainable host from the ping sweep results till you discover one that works. As usual, it\\’s
best to raise permission before mistreatment someone\\’s machines for surprising functions like idle scanning. Simple
network devices typically create nice zombies as a result of {they square measure|they\\’re} normally each underused
(idle) and designed with straightforward network stacks that are susceptible to informatics ID traffic detection. While
distinguishing an acceptable zombie takes some initial work, you\\’ll be able to keep re-using the nice ones. as an
alternative, there are some analysis on utilizing unplanned public internet services as zombie hosts to perform similar
idle scans. leverage the approach a number of these services perform departing connections upon user submissions
will function some quite poor\\’s man idle scanning.

 

QUESTION 10
Which of the following incident handling process phases is responsible for defining rules, collaborating human
workforce, creating a back-up plan, and testing the plans for an organization?
A. Preparation phase
B. Containment phase
C. Identification phase
D. Recovery phase
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
Why containers are less secure that virtual machines?
A. Host OS on containers has a larger surface attack.
B. Containers may full fill disk space of the host.
C. A compromise container may cause a CPU starvation of the host.
D. Containers are attached to the same virtual network.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
Sam, a professional hacker. targeted an organization with intention of compromising AWS IAM credentials. He
attempted to lure one of the employees of the organization by initiating fake calls while posing as a legitimate employee.
Moreover, he sent phishing emails to steal the AWS 1AM credentials and further compromise the employee\\’s account.
What is the technique used by Sam to compromise the AWS IAM credentials?
A. Social engineering
B. insider threat
C. Password reuse
D. Reverse engineering
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
In the field of cryptanalysis, what is meant by a “rubber-hose” attack?
A. Forcing the targeted keystream through a hardware-accelerated device such as an ASIC.
B. A backdoor placed into a cryptographic algorithm by its creator.
C. Extraction of cryptographic secrets through coercion or torture.
D. Attempting to decrypt ciphertext by making logical assumptions about the contents of the original plaintext.
Correct Answer: C

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Latest Update Avaya 78200x Exam Questions and Answers Online Test

QUESTION 1
Which application will allow a system administrator to see historical events and alarms on a trunk in the IP Office?
A. System Status Application
B. Historical Reporting Application
C. Advanced Summary Reporter
D. Call Detail Reporter
Correct Answer: A
References: https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/100150298

 

QUESTION 2
Where can additional IP Office Service User logins be set up?
A. the IP Office Manager Security Settings
B. the IP Office Manager Network Configuration
C. the IP Office Softphone Application
D. the IP Office System Monitor Application
Correct Answer: A
References:
https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/101005673 Page: 155-156, 174-175

 

QUESTION 3
Which three statements are requirements for the installation of IP Office Server Edition on an Avaya supplied server?
(Choose three.)
A. Enable Java within the browser.
B. Edit the password and configure the customer network settings.
C. Set the Ignition process to Server mode.
D. Install it from the USB shipped with the server, or from the install image on the DVD.
E. Use the Initial Configuration Utility to set up detailed Midmarket Server operation.
Correct Answer: ABC
References:
https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/100164733 Page: 13-28

 

QUESTION 4
Which outcome can be prevented with a correctly configured multi-site SCN solution?
A. tromboned calls
B. oversubscribed VMPro ports
C. compromised ACD routes
D. oversubscribed VoiceMail storage
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
A customer requests that all users should be prevented from dialing international numbers. What is the quickest way to
apply this feature?
A. Apply a shortcode to each user individually.
B. Apply a shortcode to each system shortcode.
C. Apply s shortcode to a user right.
D. Apply a shortcode to all external lines.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
Once the IP Office Server Edition is installed, which application must be used to install the required licenses for the
system?
A. Web Manager Admin Application
B. Web Manager Application
C. Manager Application
D. System Status Application
Correct Answer: C
References:
https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/100164733 Page: 53


QUESTION 7
Which application must be used to access the IP Office Security Settings?
A. Web Self Administration Application
B. System Status Application
C. Monitor Application
D. Manager Application
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
Which three licenses can support Avaya Equinox? a client without the additional need for a softphone? (Choose
three.)
A. Basic User
B. Teleworker
C. Power User
D. Remote Worker
E. Office Worker
F. Receptionist
Correct Answer: BDF

 

QUESTION 9
Which application can be used to show the configuration size of the system?
A. Web LM Application
B. Web Manager Application
C. System Status Application
D. Manager Application
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 10
When you first power on the IP Office, there are two default incoming call routes; one is to route all voice calls to the
Hunt Group main, which contains the first 10 extensions, and the other is for data calls.
Where do the data calls go by default?
A. RAS access “Dialin”
B. Hunt group “Data”
C. Extension “Modern”
D. Hunt group “Main”
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
Which statement about Manager used in conjunction with Server Edition is correct?
A. Manager is not compatible with Server edition and you must use Web Manager to configure the system.
B. Manager is the only application you can use to configure User on the Server Edition.
C. Manager can only be installed from the Admin DVD.
D. Manager can be installed from either the admin DVD or Web Management.
Correct Answer: C
References: https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/101005673

 

QUESTION 12
If ISDN/PRI calls are getting dropped, which tool should be used to troubleshoot the issue?
A. SSA Snapshot
B. Debug View with default filters
C. Debug Manager on DTE port
D. System Monitor with ISDN L3 filter options enabled.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
Which IP Office feature is required to initiate screen pops, where the caller ID triggers a computer to open a record
related to that number?
A. IMAP
B. TAPILink Lite
C. UMS
D. Outlook Plugin
Correct Answer: B

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