[2020.7] latest collection of Salesforce certification exam exercise questions and answers

The most popular Salesforce exam certification exercise questions and tips.
(Salesforce CRT-261 exam, Salesforce CRT-450 exam, Salesforce DEX-450 exam, Salesforce PDT-101 exam) Exam-Box shares the latest exam exercise questions and answers for free. The latest popular Salesforce exam certification pass method: https://www.lead4pass.com/salesforce.html High pass rate! Cost-effective!

Table of Contents:

Popular Salesforce CRT-261 List

Latest Salesforce CRT-261 Exam Video

[2020.7] Popular Salesforce CRT-261 exam practice questions(1-5)

QUESTION 1

The Contact Center at Universal Containers wants to increase its profit margins by promoting call deflection within
Service Cloud. Which two solutions should a Consultant recommend? Choose 2 answers
A. Knowledge Base
B. Customer Community
C. Automatic Call Distribution
D. Service Cloud Console

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2

A customer utilizes a high-volume Service Cloud portal for its Web customer support and is interested in deploying a
chat solution. What should be the first step in configuration and customization?
A. Create user profiles or permission sets
B. Enable Chatter Messenger for the organization
C. Enable Live Agent for the organization
D. Create an iframe to display the chat window

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3

Universal Containers CFO is looking for ways to reduce contact center costs. Which customer service metric should the
CFO monitor to reach the budget goals? (Choose 2)
A. First, call resolution
B. Average handle time
C. Upsell percentage
D. Customer retention

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4

The Universal Containers support center management team would like to leverage Salesforce functionality to improve
collaboration on cases. What should a consultant recommend to meet this requirement? (Choose 2)
A. Create escalation rules to re-assign cases after SLAs have expired.
B. Enable the Service Cloud Console and Knowledge sidebar for agents.
C. Create case teams and introduce swarming to resolve cases.
D. Enable and use Chatter feed tracking on the case object.

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 5

Universal Containers recently deployed a Salesforce Knowledge implementation but is looking to evaluate the quality of
the articles being produced. What should the Consultant recommend to gather information on Knowledge article
usefulness?
A. Contact Salesforce to send a report on article efficacy.
B. Send out a monthly survey to customers requesting feedback.
C. Install Knowledge Base Dashboards and Reports AppExchange package.
D. Create a group of super users that will evaluate and manage articles.

Correct Answer: C

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Popular Salesforce CRT-450 List

Latest Salesforce CRT-450 Exam Video

[2020.7] Popular Salesforce CRT-450 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1

How can a developer get all of the available record types for the current user on the case object?
A. Use SOQL to get all cases
B. Use describesobjectresult of the case object
C. Use case.getrecordtypes()
D. Use DescribeFieldResult of the Case.RecordType field

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2

A developer writes the following code:

latestvce crt-450 q2

What is the result of the debug statement?
A. 1, 100
B. 1, 150
C. 2, 150
D. 2, 200

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3

Universal Containers (UC) has integration with its Accounting system that creates tens of thousands of Orders inside
of Salesforce in a nightly batch. UC wants to add automaton that can attempt to match Leads and Contacts to these
Orders using the Email Address field on the insert. UC is concerned about the performance of the automation with a
large data volume. Which tool should UC use to automate this process?
A. Process Builder
B. Process Builder with an Auto launched Flow
C. Workflow Rules
D. Apex

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4

What can use to delete components from production?
A. A changeset deployment with the delete option checked
B. An ant migration tool deployment with destructive changes XML file and the components to delete in the package .xml
file
C. A changeset deployment with a destructive changes XML file
D. An ant migration tool deployment with a destructive changes XML file and an empty package .xml file

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5

A developer wants to import 500 Opportunity records into a sandbox.
Why should the developer choose to use Data Loader instead of Data Import Wizard?
A. Data Loader runs from the developer\’s browser.
B. Data Loader automatically relates Opportunities to Accounts.
C. Data Import Wizard does not support Opportunities.
D. Data Import Wizard can not import all 500 records.

Correct Answer: C

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Popular Salesforce DEX-450 List

Latest Salesforce DEX-450 Exam Video

[2020.7] Popular Salesforce DEX-450 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1

The account object has a custom percent field, rating, defined with a length of 2 with 0 decimal places. An account
the record has the value of 50% in its rating field and is processed in the apex code below after being retrieved from the
database with SOQL public void process account(){ decimal acctscore = acc.rating__c * 100; }
What is the value of acctscore after this code executes?
A. 5
B. 50
C. 500
D. 5000

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2

A developer writes a SOQL query to find child records for a specific parent. How many levels can be returned in a single
query?
A. 1
B. 7
C. 5
D. 3

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3

Which two automation tools include a graphical designer? Choose 2 answers
A. Approvals
B. Flow builder
C. Process builder
D. Workflows

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4

When can a developer use a custom Visualforce page in a Force.com application? (Choose 2)
A. To generate a PDF document with application data
B. To create components for dashboards and layouts
C. To deploy components between two organizations
D. To modify the page layout settings for a custom object

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5

What are two considerations for deciding to use a roll-up summary field? Choose 2 answer\’s partner.
A. A roll-up summary can be performed on formula fields, but if their formula contains an #Error result, it may affect the
summary value.
B. Roll-up summary fields do not cause validation rules on the parent object unless that object is edited separately.
C. Roll-up cannot be performed on formula fields.
D. Roll-up cannot be performed on formula fields that use cross-object references or on-the-fly calculations such as
NOW().

Correct Answer: AD

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Popular Salesforce PDT-101 List

Latest Salesforce PDT-101 Exam Video

[2020.7] Popular Salesforce PDT-101 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1

What would an Administrator use to send a single email to a list of prospects?
A. List email
B. Engagement program
C. Social message
D. Email template

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2

What does the Google Analytics connector allow Pardot to do?
A. Sync prospects with Google AdWords.
B. Send emails to prospects from Gmail.
C. Update the conversion field in Google Analytics.
D. Append UTM parameters to a prospect record.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3

What are the two components of a dynamic list? (Choose two answers.)
A. Only adds prospects to the list the first time it runs.
B. Automatically updates list membership based on criteria.
C. Can add an action to the dynamic list that triggers when a new prospect is added.
D. Can be split into multiple static lists.

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 4

A company wants to send emails from a new domain.
Where should an Admin navigate to in Pardot to add the new domain?
A. Marketing | System Emails
B. Marketing | Email Sending Domains
C. Admin | Security
D. Admin | Domain Management

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5

A user needs to change which form is used in a running engagement program. What is the first step the user must take
in order to make this change?
A. Name the new version of the program
B. Pause the program
C. Delete the old form
D. Edit the program

Correct Answer: B

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[2020.5] Why don’t you choose The LATESTVCE MB-300 exam dump tips for easily passing exams

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How do I improve my Microsoft MB-300 exam skills and pass the exam?
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Exam MB-300: Microsoft Dynamics 365: Core Finance and Operations: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/mb-300

Candidates for this exam are Functional Consultants who analyze business requirements and translate those requirements into fully-realized business processes and solutions that implement industry best practices. Candidates serve as a key resource in implementing and configuring applications to meet business requirements.

Candidates for this exam have a fundamental understanding of accounting principles and financial operations of businesses, customer service, field service, manufacturing, retail, and supply chain management concepts.

Latestvce Tips

  • NOTE: The bullets that appear below each of the skills measured in the document below are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is not definitive or exhaustive.
  • Use common functionality and implementation tools (20-25%)
  • Configure security, processes, and options (45-50%)
  • Perform data migration (15-20%)
  • Validate and support the solution (15-20%)

Latest Updates Microsoft mb-300 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You are a Dynamics 365 Finance system administrator. You have a test environment that is used by several people at
any given time.
You create a new data entity in your development and migrate the code to the test environment. In the test environment,
you are unable to find the data entity in the list.
You need to locate the data entity.
Solution: Reopen the client browser.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
A company plans to set up an organizational hierarchy to manage organizational relationships.
You need to identify which organizational purpose to use.
What purpose can you assign to an organizational hierarchy?
A. Financial reason code
B. Centralized payments
C. Cost accounting
D. Price models
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/financials/cash-bank-management/set-upcentralized-payments

 

QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
You are tasked with enhancing usability in the Dynamics 365 Finance deployment for your organization.
Your organization is evaluating different approaches, including using workspaces.
You need to identify the goals of using workspaces.
Which goals should you identify? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:latestvce mb-300 questions q3

 

QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT
You manage a Dynamics 365 Finance environment.
In preparation for being migrated into a new environment, data packages are being numbered in alignment with the
default numbering formats in Lifecycle Services. A package is named 03.01.002.
You need to identify what this package contains. To answer, select the appropriate option in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:latestvce mb-300 questions q4

Correct Answer:

latestvce mb-300 questions q4-1

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/dev-itpro/lcs-solutions/process-datapackages-lcs-solutions

 

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
A company needs to set up its printers to work with Dynamics 365 Finance.
You need to set up the printers for network printing from the Dynamics 365 client browser.
Which three actions should be performed in order? To answer, move all actions from the list of actions to the answer
area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:latestvce mb-300 questions q5

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/dev-itpro/analytics/install-documentrouting-agent

 

QUESTION 6
You are a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations system administrator.
Users have been creating advanced queries for filter data on forms. They want to be able to save the filter data for later
use and access those views when they log in.
You need to instruct them on how to do this.
Which four actions should end users perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of
actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:latestvce mb-300 questions q6

QUESTION 7
You are a systems administrator at a company that has implemented Dynamics 365 Finance.
New employees are starting at the company.
You need to extend the electronic signatures functionality to them.
Which two actions should you perform? Each answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. On the Email parameters page, specify that SSL is required
B. Specify the user\\’s email address
C. In License configuration, enable Maintenance mode
D. Select the Electronic signature checkbox
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/fin-and-ops/organizationadministration/tasks/set-up-electronic-signatures

 

QUESTION 8
A client runs Dynamics 365 Finance.
The client wants to implement supply chain functionality that is fully integrated with the current Dynamics 365 Retail
instance.
You need to implement the new functionality.
What should you do?
A. Configure Dynamics 365 Retail integration with Dynamics 365 Finance by using Common Data Service.
B. Place the Dynamics 365 Retail instance into maintenance mode by using the Dynamics 365 Instance Management
portal.
C. Place the Dynamics 365 Retail instance into maintenance mode by using Lifecycle Services.
D. Clear the Dynamics 365 Finance configuration in the License configuration form.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
You need to recommend a solution to meet the regional manager’s workspace reporting requirements. What should you
use?
A. Record Grid
B. inquiry form
C. Power Apps
D. Power Bl
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 10
A company plans to implement the case management feature of Dynamics 365 Finance. You need to describe the
scenarios in which you should use the case management tool. Which three scenarios should be used? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Since case activities can be assigned to different people, a case can use workflow.
B. Although the sales module already has return-order functionality, case management is still used for customer returns
and claims.
C. Knowledge articles used by case management are associated with specific functional modules.
D. Human resources generalists can use the case management tool to track employee interactions, even though the
department stores confidential information about employees.
E. A case can be used to track both external and internal issues.
Correct Answer: CDE
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/fin-and-ops/organizationadministration/cases

 

QUESTION 11
You are a Dynamics 365 Finance system administrator.
You manage a system that imports a large volume of sales orders from multiple systems daily. The system encounters
a performance problem due to the amount of data.
You need to improve the performance of the import.
What should you do?
A. Create an ODBC-type source data format and import it directly from the database.
B. Enable data import in recurrence.
C. Configure entity execution parameters to make the data import multi-threaded.
D. Enable change for the data entities.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
A company sets up a workflow for expense reports. An employee named Sam submits an expense report totaling USD
7,000 to go through the workflow.latestvce mb-300 questions q12

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that answers each question based on the information presented
in the graphic.
NOTE: Each selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

latestvce mb-300 questions q12-1

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[2020.5] Tips for improving Your Microsoft az-301 exam skills and passing the az-301 exam

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Exam AZ-301: Microsoft Azure Architect Design: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/az-301

Candidates for this exam are Azure Solution Architects who advise stakeholders and translate business requirements into secure,
scalable, and reliable solutions. Candidates should have advanced experience and knowledge across various aspects of IT operations,
including networking, virtualization, identity, security, business continuity, disaster recovery, data management, budgeting, and governance. This role requires managing how decisions in each area affect an overall solution. Candidates must be proficient in Azure administration, Azure development, and DevOps, and have expert-level skills in at least one
of those domains.

Latestvce Skills measured

  1. A NEW VERSION OF THIS EXAM, AZ-304, WILL BE AVAILABLE ON OR AROUND JUNE 29, 2020. You will be able to take this exam until it retires on or around September 30, 2020. Please download the skills measured document below to see what will be changing.
  2. Determine workload requirements (10-15%)
  3. Design for identity and security (20-25%)
  4. Design a data platform solution (15-20%)
  5. Design a business continuity strategy (15-20%)
  6. Design for deployment, migration, and integration (10-15%)
  7. Design an infrastructure strategy (15-20%)

Latest Updates Microsoft az-301 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
You plan to deploy a payroll system to Azure. The payroll system will use Azure virtual machines that run SUSE Linux
Enterprise Server and Windows. You need to recommend a business continuity solution for the payroll system. The
solution must meet the following requirements:
1.
Minimize costs.
2.
Provide business continuity if an Azure region fails.
3.
Provide a recovery time objective (RTO) of 30 minutes.
4.
Provide a recovery point objective (RPO) of five minutes. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Microsoft System Center Data Protection Manager (DPM)
B. Azure Site Recovery
C. unmanaged disks that use geo-redundant storage (GRS)
D. Azure Backup
Correct Answer: C
If your storage account has GRS enabled, then your data is durable even in the case of a complete regional outage or a
disaster in which the primary region isn\\’t recoverable.
Note: The recovery time objective (RTO) is the targeted duration of time and a service level within which a business process must be restored after a disaster (or disruption) in order to avoid unacceptable consequences associated with a
break in business continuity.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Azure Site Recovery would not protect against an Azure region failure. Azure Site Recovery guarantees a two-hour
Recovery Time Objective. Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-redundancy-grs https://azure.microsoft.com/enus/support/legal/sla/site-recovery/v1_0/

 

QUESTION 2
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com that contains two administrative user
accounts named Admin1 and Admin2.
You create two Azure virtual machines named VM1 and VM2.
You need to ensure that Admin1 and Admin2 are notified when more than five events are added to the security log of
VM1 or VM2 during a period of 120 seconds. The solution must minimize administrative tasks.
What should you create?
A. two action groups and one alert rule
B. one action group and one alert rule
C. five action groups and one alert rule
D. two action groups and two alert rules
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
You plan to create an Azure Cosmos DB account that uses the SQL API. The account will contain data added by a web
application. The web application will send data daily. You need to recommend a notification solution that meets the
following requirements:
1.
Sends an email notification when data is received from IoT devices.
2.
Minimizes compute costs.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Deploy an Azure logic app that has the Azure Cosmos DB connector configured to use a SendGrid action.
B. Deploy a function app that is configured to use the Consumption plan and a SendGrid binding.
C. Deploy an Azure logic app that has a SendGrid connector configured to use an Azure Cosmos DB action.
D. Deploy a function app that is configured to use the Consumption plan and an Azure Event Hubs binding.
E. Deploy an Azure logic app that has a webhook configured to use a SendGrid action.
Correct Answer: B
You can send an email by using SendGrid bindings in Azure Functions. Azure Functions supports an output binding for
SendGrid.
Note: When you\\’re using the Consumption plan, instances of the Azure Functions host are dynamically added and
removed based on the number of incoming events.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-functions/functions-bindings-sendgrid
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-functions/functions-scale#consumption-plan

 

QUESTION 4
You plan to move several apps that handle critical line-of-business (LOB) services to Azure.
Appropriate personnel must be notified of any critical resources that become degraded or unavailable.
You need to design a monitoring and notification strategy that can handle up to 100 notifications per hour.
Which three actions should you recommend to be performed in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from
the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
NOTE: More than one order of answer choices is correct. You will receive credit for any of the correct orders you select.
Select and Place:latestvce az-301 questions q4

Correct Answer:

latestvce az-301 questions q4-1

Step 1: Create a resource group containing critical resources.
In step 2 the action group should be created within this Resource Group.
Step 2: Create an action group for alerts to email addresses.
You configure an action to notify a person by email or SMS, they receive a confirmation indicating they have been
added to the action group.
The rate limit thresholds are:
SMS: No more than 1 SMS every 5 minutes.
Voice: No more than 1 Voice call every 5 minutes.
Email: No more than 100 emails in an hour.
Step 3: Monitor service health for incidents and action required notifications
An action group is a collection of notification preferences defined by the owner of an Azure subscription. Azure Monitor
and Service Health alerts use action groups to notify users that an alert has been triggered.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/platform/alerts-rate-limiting

 

QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
Your on-premises network contains a file server named Server1 that stores 500 GB of data.
You need to use Azure Data Factory to copy the data from Server1 to Azure Storage.
You add a new data factory.
What should you do next? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:latestvce az-301 questions q5

Box 1: Install a self-hosted integration runtime
The Integration Runtime is a customer-managed data integration infrastructure used by Azure Data Factory to provide
data integration capabilities across different network environments.
Box 2: Create a pipeline
With ADF, existing data processing services can be composed into data pipelines that are highly available and
managed in the cloud. These data pipelines can be scheduled to ingest, prepare, transform, analyze, and publish data,
and ADF
manages and orchestrates the complex data and processing dependencies
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/team-data-science-process/move-sql-azure-adf

 

QUESTION 6
A company named Contoso, Ltd. has an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant that is integrated with Microsoft
Office 365 and an Azure subscription.
Contoso has an on-premises identity infrastructure. The infrastructure includes servers that run Active Directory Domain
Services (AD DS), Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS), Azure AD Connect, and Microsoft Identity Manager
(MIM).
Contoso has a partnership with a company named Fabrikam, Inc. Fabrikam has an Active Directory forest and an Office
365 tenant. Fabrikam has the same on-premises identity infrastructure as Contoso.
A team of 10 developers from Fabrikam will work on an Azure solution that will be hosted in the Azure subscription of
Contoso. The developers must be added to the Contributor role for a resource in the Contoso subscription.
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that Contoso can assign the role to the 10 Fabrikam developers. The solution must ensure that the Fabrikam developers use their existing credentials to access resources.
What should you recommend?
A. Configure an AD FS relying on party trust between the Fabrikam and Contoso AD FS infrastructures.
B. Configure an organization relationship between the Office 365 tenants of Fabrikam and Contoso.
C. In the Azure AD tenant of Contoso, create guest accounts for the Fabrikam developers.
D. Configure a forest trust between the on-premises Active Directory forests of Contoso and Fabrikam.
Correct Answer: D
Trust configurations – Configure trust from managed forests(s) or domain(s) to the administrative forest
1.
A one-way trust is required from the production environment to the admin forest.
2.
Selective authentication should be used to restrict accounts in the admin forest to only logging on to the appropriate
production hosts.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/identity/securing-privileged-access/securing-privilegedaccess-reference-material

 

QUESTION 7
Note: This question is a part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You have an Azure subscription that contains a resource group named RG1.
You create an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) group named ResearchUsers that contains the user accounts of all
researchers.
You need to recommend a solution that meets the following requirements:
1.
The researchers must be allowed to create Azure virtual machines.
2.
The researchers must only be able to create Azure virtual machines by using specific Azure Resource Manager
templates.
Solution: Create an Azure DevOps Project. Configure the DevOps Project settings.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Instead: On RG1, assign the Contributor role to the ResearchUsers group. Create a custom Azure Policy definition and
assign the policy to RG1.

 

QUESTION 8
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com that contains several administrative user
accounts. You need to recommend a solution to identify which administrative user accounts have NOT signed in during
the previous 30 days. Which service should you include in the recommendation?
A. Azure AD Identity Protection
B. Azure Activity Log
C. Azure Advisor
D. Azure AD Privileged Identity Management (PIM)
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
You plan to create a new web app named WebApp8.
You need to ensure that all the resources for WebApp8 run in the West US location.
What should you do first?
NOTE: To answer this question, sign in to the Azure portal and explore the Azure resource groups.
A. Modify the homepage 11234827 Azure App Service
B. Modify the Azure App Service plan of the home page
C. Deploy Azure Traffic Manager
D. Create a new Azure App Service plan
Correct Answer: D
In-App Service, an app runs in an App Service plan. An App Service plan defines a set of computing resources for a web
app to run.
When you create an App Service plan in a certain region (for example, West Europe), a set of computing resources is
created for that plan in that region.
Incorrect Answers:
B: You cannot change the location of an app service plan, regardless of subscription type. You simply need to create a
new app service plan in the region you want
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/app-service/overview-hosting-plans

 

QUESTION 10
You have an Azure Storage account that contains the data shown in the following exhibit.latestvce az-301 questions q10

You need to identify which files can be accessed immediately from the storage account. Which files should you
identify?
A. File1.bin only
B. File2.bin only
C. File3.bin only
D. File1.bin and File2.bin only
E. File1.bin, File2.bin, and File3.bin
Correct Answer: D
Hot – Optimized for storing data that is accessed frequently.
Cool – Optimized for storing data that is infrequently accessed and stored for at least 30 days.
Archive – Optimized for storing data that is rarely accessed and stored for at least 180 days with flexible latency
requirements (on the order of hours).
Note: Lease state of the blob. Possible values: available|leased|expired|breaking|broken
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/storage-blob-storage-tiers

 

QUESTION 11
HOTSPOT
You plan to deploy the backup policy shown in the following exhibit.latestvce az-301 questions q11

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

latestvce az-301 questions q11-1

Correct Answer:

latestvce az-301 questions q11-2

 

QUESTION 12
Your company has users who work remotely from laptops.
You plan to move some of the applications accessed by the remote users to Azure virtual machines. The users will
access the applications in Azure by using a point-to-site VPN connection. You will use certificates generated from an
on-premises-based certification authority (CA).
You need to recommend which certificates are required for the deployment.
What should you include in the recommendation? To answer, drag the appropriate certificates to the correct targets.
Each certificate may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or
scroll
to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:latestvce az-301 questions q12

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Microsoft MS-300 exam questions, MS-300 dumps easy to prepare for passing exams

Exam MS-300: Deploying Microsoft 365 Teamwork (beta)” Exam MS-300.
The Teamwork administrator is involved with decisions regarding governance and works with other administrators to implement many of the decisions made by governance bodies. The Teamwork administrator collaborates with the Messaging Administrator to configure options and security related to email tasks, the Voice Administrator to integrate voice capabilities in organizations, and the Security Administrator to ensure an end to end security.

Candidates for this exam have a fundamental understanding of integration points with the following apps and services: Office, PowerApps, Flow, Yammer, Microsoft Graph, Stream, Planner, and Project. The administrator understands how to integrate third-party apps and services including line-of-business applications. Candidates also have an understanding of SQL Server management concepts, Azure Active Directory, PowerShell, networking, Windows server administration, Domain Name System (DNS), Active Directory mobile device management, and alternative operating systems

Here you can get the latest free Microsoft MS-300 exam exercise questions and answers for free and easily improve your skills!

MS-300 exam:

Candidates for this exam are Teamwork Administrators who are responsible for configuring, deploying and managing Office 365 and Azure workloads that focus on efficient and effective collaboration and adoption. Teamwork Administrators manage apps, services, and supporting infrastructure to meet business requirements. The Teamwork administrator must be able to deploy, manage, migrate, and secure SharePoint (online, on-premises, and hybrid), OneDrive, and Teams. Follow the link to find more information about https://www.lead4pass.com/ms-300.html exam.

Watch the Microsoft MS-300 video tutorial online

Table of Contents:

Latest Microsoft MS-300 pdf

[PDF] Free Microsoft MS-300 pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=17zl3DinkybfIPoKeBLPoF8Z5-sEg89NS

Exam MS-300: Deploying Microsoft 365 Teamwork (beta):https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-ms-300.aspx

Free Microsoft MS-300 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
You are a Microsoft Teams administrator for your company.
The company creates a new Teams app named App1. A developer packages App1 as a ZIP file.
You need to ensure that App1 can be uploaded as a ZIP package to Teams.
Which Apps setting should you turn on?
A. Allow side loading of external apps
B. Allow external in Microsoft Teams
C. Enable default apps
D. Enable new external apps by default
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoftteams/admin-settings

QUESTION 2
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription.
The company plans to use Office 365 groups and Microsoft Yammer. However, there might be users who do not have a
corresponding Yammer identity.
You need to verify which users are only Yammer users. The solution must minimize administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Export the users from Yammer. Export the active users from Microsoft 365. Compare the user names.
B. From the Microsoft 365 admin center, view the usage reports.
C. Run the Get-MSOLUser cmdlet and filter the results by License.
D. Run the Get-TeamUser cmdlet and filter the results by GroupId.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You have an Active Directory user named User1.
You need to ensure that User1 can view usage reports for Microsoft Teams. The solution must limit the ability of user1
to make changes to Microsoft 365 services.
Which role should you assign to User1?
A. Teams Communication Support Specialist
B. Teams Service Administrator
C. Reports reader
D. Message center reader
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You have a distribution list named Finance.
You need to ensure that you can use Finance to create a team in Microsoft Teams.
Solution: From the Microsoft 365 admin center, you modify the distribution list. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Your company is moving an on-premises Microsoft SharePoint Online.
The on-premises SharePoint deployment uses structural navigation with security trimming. After testing the same
navigation approach in SharePoint Online, the company identifies the following requirements for the SharePoint Online
deployment:
Display an access denied page when users lack permissions to see a given page.
Populate the navigation links based on a predefined company taxonomy.
Display the same set of links to all users.
Which navigation approach should you recommend?
A. structural navigation without security trimming
B. a Custom navigation provider with security trimming
C. managed navigation without security trimming
D. search-driven navigation with security trimming
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
What should you configure to meet the licensing requirements for Admin1?
A. Add Admin1 to the App Catalog site owners group of the App Requests list.
B. Assign Admin1 the SharePoint administrators of the App Catalog site
C. Add Admin1 to the site collection administrators of the App Catalog site
D. Add Admin1 as a License Manager of the apps.
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sharepoint/administration/manage-the-app-catalog

QUESTION 7
You have a Microsoft 365 tenant.
Guest users report that they cannot access files or Microsoft OneNote from Microsoft Teams. The guest users can
access channels, chats, and conversations.
You need to ensure that the guest users can access the files and OneNote from Teams.
For what should you configure external sharing?
A. Microsoft SharePoint Online
B. Microsoft Yammer
C. Microsoft OneDrive for Business
D. Microsoft Teams
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
SharePoint administrators open several Microsoft support tickets.
You need to view the status of the support tickets.
Solution: From the Microsoft 365 admin center, you select Health, and then you select Message center.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You need to add a user named Admin1 as an administrator of the Microsoft One Drive for Business site of a user
named User1.
What should you do?
A. From the SharPoint admin center, select user profiles, and then select Manage User Profiles.Select User1, and then
select Manage site collection owners.
B. From the SharePoint admin center, select user profiles, and then select Mange User Properties.
C. From the SharePoint admin center, select user profiles, and then select Mange User Permissions.
D. From Setup My Sites, add a secondary administrator.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You need to block the media files to meet the technical requirements. What should you do?
A. From the OneDrive admin center, modify the Compliance settings.
B. From the SharePoint admin center, modify the properties of the OneDrive for Business site collection.
C. From the OneDrive admin center, modify the Sync settings.
D. From the SharePoint admin center, modify the Access control settings.
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/onedrive/block-file-types

QUESTION 11
You need to recommend an identity model that meets the technical requirements. Which identity model should you
recommend?
A. Cloud Identity
B. Synchronized Identity
C. Federated identity.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You need to add a user named Admin1 as an administrator of the Microsoft OneDrive for Business site of a user named
User1.
What should you do?
A. Run the Set-SPOSite (site URL) – owner Admin1 command.
B. From the SharePoint admin center, select user profiles, and then select Manage User Permissions.
C. Add Admin1 to the Site owners group.
D. From the SharePoint admin center, select user profiles, and then select Manage User Profiles. Select User1, and
then select Manage site collection owners.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You need to prevent all users except for a user named User1 from uploading video to Microsoft Stream channels and
creating Stream channels. User1 must be able to create a channel and upload video to the created channel.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Turn on Restrict companywide channel creation and add User1 as an unrestricted user.
B. Turn on Restrict video uploads and add User1 as an unrestricted user.
C. Turn on Restrict companywide channel creation and add the Office 365 group associated to the channel as an
unrestricted user.
D. Add user1 to the Office 365 group associated to the channel.
E. Turn on Restrict video uploads and add the Office 365 group associated to the channel as an unrestricted user.
Correct Answer: AB
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/stream/restrict-companywide-channels https://docs.microsoft.com/en-
us/stream/restrict-uploaders

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[2017 New Version] 100% Pass With Latest RedHat EX300 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Youtube Update

Get the best RedHat RHCE certification EX300 dumps pdf and vce practice materials from lead4pass, high quality RedHat RHCE certification EX300 dumps exam questions and answers free download. https://www.lead4pass.com/ex300.html dumps pdf practice files. Latest RedHat RHCE certification EX300 dumps pdf training materials and study guides update free try, pass RedHat EX300 exam test easily.

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Vendor: RedHat
Certifications: RHCE certification
Exam Name: Red Hat Certified Engineer (RHCE)
Exam Code: EX300
Total Questions: 36 Q&As
EX300 dumps
QUESTION 1
Write a script / root / program, the requirements when the input parameter kernel to the script, the script returns the user, the input parameters to the script user, the script returns the kernel. While the script no parameters or parameter error, the output from the standard error output usage: / root / the program kernel | user

Answer:
vim /root/program
#!/bin/bash
if [ “$1” == “kernel”];then
echo “user”
elif [“$1” == “user”];then
echo “kernel”
else
echo “usage:/root/program kernel|user”
fi
Test:
chmod a+x /root/program
.root/program kernel
./root/program user
./root/program lll

QUESTION 2
Please visit iscsi shared storage, storage server address is 172.24.30.100, ceded 1500M space, formatted with the ext3 file system, mount / mnt / data, and boot automatically mount.

Answer:
yum install ‐y iscsi*
chkconfig iscsid on
chkconfig iscsi on
iscsiadm ‐m discovery ‐t st ‐p 172.24.30.100:3260
iscsiadm ‐m node ‐T iqn.2011 ‐p 172.24.30.100 ‐|
service iscsi restart
fdisk ‐|
fdisk /dev/sda
partx ‐a /dev/sda
partx ‐a /dev/sda
mkfs.ext3 /dev/sad1
yum ‐y install tree
cd /var/lib/iscsi
tree . view iqn
cd /mnt
mkdir data
blkid /dev/sda1 (View UUID, UUID mount)
vim /etc/fstab
UUID=XXX /mnt/data ext3 default, _netdev 0 0
mount ‐a

QUESTION 3
Configuring the NFS service that will /mnt /storage directory with read‐only shared to the example.com domain user when the client as the root user will also have access to the root directory permissions to read‐only shared to cracker.org domain users. EX300 dumps

Answer:
# vim /etc/exports
/mnt/storage *.example.com(ro,sync,no_root_squash)
/mnt/storage *.cracker.org(ro,sync)
QUESTION 18
Example.com only allows access to the local SSH.
Answer:
# vim /etc/hosts.allow
sshd: .example.com
# vim /etc/hosts.deny
sshd: ALL

QUESTION 4
Configure cron as follow:
Clients tom should NOT have access to cron
Answer:
useradd tom
vim /etc/cron.deny
tom
Effective immediately save and exit.

QUESTION 5
Configure Kernel parameters rhelblq=1 and enable /proc/cmdline to verify your Kernel parameters.

Answer:
Vim /etc/grub.conf
Write the end of the kernel line
To see after restart
cat /proc/cmdline

QUESTION 6
Configure an email server domian30.example.com, and it requests to send and receive emails from the local server or the user harry can send or receive emails from network. The email of user harry is /var/spool/mail/harry.
Please note: the DNS server has already been MX record.

Answer:
yum install ‐y postfix
chkconfig postfix on
vim /etc/postfix/main.cf
inet_interfaces = all
mydestination = example.com, domain30.example.com, localhost
mynetworks = 172.16.30.0/24, 127.0.0.1/8
services postfix restart
Test:
netstat ‐tulnp |grep 25
hostname
echo hello |mail ‐s “test”[email protected]
cat /var/spool/mai/harry

QUESTION 7
Connect to mail server and send email to admin, ensure that user harry can revive it.

Answer:
vim /etc/aliases
admin: harry
newaliases

QUESTION 8
Samba configuration requirements are as follows:
1. The Working Group called RHCE
2. Types of user authentication
3. Shared / mnt / storage directory share name for the share
4. The shared directory allows user1 and user2 user has write permissions to other users are read‐only, if you need password are redhat
5. only allows the user to access the shared directory domain example.com

Answer:
# yum install ‐y samba
# vim /etc/samba/smb.conf
[global]
workgroup = RHCE
security = user
[share]
path = /mnt/storage
write list = user1 user2
hosts allow = .example.com
# ( echo redhat ; echo redhat ) | smbpasswd ‐s ‐a user1
# ( echo redhat ; echo redhat ) | smbpasswd ‐s ‐a user2
# service smb start; chkconfig smb on

QUESTION 9
Establish vsftp server, so that only allow user1 user access, and cannot jump out of home directories only allow users to upload and download example domain, allowing only example domains can be accessed. EX300 dumps

Answer:
# yum ‐y install vsftpd
# vim /etc/vsftpd/vsftpd.conf
userlist_deny=NO
userlist_file=/etc/vsftpd/vsftpd.user_list
chroot_list_enable=YES
chroot_list_file= /etc/vsftpd/vsftpd.chroot_list
anon_upload_enable=YES
anonymous_enable=YES
# mkdir ‐p /var/ftp/incoming; chmod 777 /var/ftp/incoming
# chcon ‐t public_content_rw_t /var/ftp/incoming
# setsebool ‐P allow_ftpd_anon_write 1
# setsebool ‐P ftp_home_dir 1
# vim /etc/vsftpd/vsftpd.user_list
user1
# vim /etc/vsftpd/vsftpd.chroot_list
user1
# service vsftpd start; chkconfig vsftpd on
# vim /etc/hosts.deny
vsftpd: ALL EXCEPT .example.com

QUESTION 10
Create new mail server, the following:
1. Allow localhost and remote hosts can access
2. Allow example.com users can relay to refuse remote test
3. All mail sent to the user3 will be sent to user2
4. Confirm / var/spool/mail/user1 exist
5. Example.com domain only allows the user to receive mail via pop3

Answer:
# yum install postfix ‐y
# alternatives ‐‐set mta (Choose postfix)
# service sendmail stop; chkconfig sendmail off
# cd /etc/postfix
# vim main.cf
myhostname = stationX.example.com
mynetworks_style = subnet
mydestination = $ myhostname
myorigin = $ myhostname
relay_domains = example.com, $mydestination
inet_interfaces = all
smtpd_client_restrictions =
check_client_access hash:/etc/postfix/access,
check_sender_access hash:/etc/postfix/access,
check_recipient_access hash:/etc/postfix/access,
permit_auth_destination,
permit_mynetworks,
# vim /etc/postfix/access
remote.test REJECT
# vim /etc/aliases
user3: user2
# postalias /etc/aliases
# postmap hash:/etc/postfix/access
# touch /var/spool/mail/user1 (Generally exist by default)
# chown user1:mail /var/spool/mail/user1
# chcon ‐‐reference=/var/spool/mail/root /var/spool/mail/user1
# chmod 660 /var/spool/mail/user1
# Reject remote.test domains can use iptables.
# iptables ‐A INPUT ‐p tcp ‐‐dport 25 ‐s remote.test(Written IP network segment) ‐j
REJECT
# service postfix start; chkconfig postfix on
# yum install dovecot
# vim /etc/dovecot.conf
protocols = pop3
# service dovecot start; chkconfig dovecot on
# iptables ‐A INPUT ‐p tcp ‐‐dport 110 ‐s 192.168.0.0/24 ‐j
ACCEPT
# iptables ‐A INPUT ‐p tcp ‐‐dport 110 ‐j REJECT
# service iptables save; chkconfig iptables on

QUESTION 11
Open system kernel forwarding packets function:

Answer:
vim /etc/sysctl.conf
net.ipv4.ip_forward = 1
sysctl ‐w (Effective immediately)
The following commands should executed without sysctl.conf option:
sysctl ‐a |grep net.ipv4
sysctl ‐P net.ipv4.ip_forward = 1
sysctl ‐w

QUESTION 12
Configure NFS server to share /common directory with domain30.example.com.
Authenticate the clients devices have the access to it as root user. EX300 dumps

Answer:
yum install ‐y nfs
chkconfig nfs on
chkconfig rpcbind on
vim /etc/exports
/common 172.24.30.0/255.255.255.0 (rw,no_root_squash)
showmount ‐e 172.16.30.5
mount ‐t nfs 172.16.30.5:/common /mnt

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Latest Juniper JN0-643 Dumps Exam Free Update With High Pass Rate

New question on multicast similar to the all PIM routers but the answers did contain subnet masks and different answers. Otherwise very good dump with almost 100% correct answers, much better than any other https://www.lead4pass.com/jn0-643.html dumps Please be careful that there are some questions changed. You need to read them carefully.

QUESTION 1
Referring to the JN0-643 dumps exhibit, which three actions would summarize these routes to a BGP peer? (Choose three.)
A. Create a policy that accepts the more specific contributing routes.
B. Create a route to 10.200.16.0/21 with a next hop of 172.16.36.1 under the [edit routing- options static] hierarchy.
C. Create a policy that rejects the more specific contributing routes.
D. Create a policy to accept aggregate routes.
E. Create a 10.200.16.0/22 route under the [edit routing-options aggregate] hierarchy.
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 2
jn0-643
Click the Exhibit button.
AS4 is using the JN0-643 exam default path to get to AS1. This path is not modified by any of the ASs shown in the exhibit. AS1 wants to influence this path so that traffic from AS4 comes through AS3.
Where do you apply the policy shown in the exhibit?
A. AS1
B. AS2
C. AS3
D. AS4
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Your company asks you to configure multicast routing on a Junos device. They tell you that the router at IP address 192.168.1.4 is the root of the shared multicast delivery tree.
Which command allows you to configure the Junos device as a non-RP router for PIM?
A. set protocols pim rp local family inet disable
B. set protocols pim rp local address 192.168.1.4
C. set protocols pim rp static address 192.168.1.4
D. set protocols pim rp auto-rp announce
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
jn0-643
Click the Exhibit button.
You are the administrator for the network shown in the exhibit. R1 receives the 196.15.4.0/24 route from routers R2, R3, and R4. Local preference values have not been modified in this network. You are asked to ensure that R1 prefers the path through AS 3149 for traffic destined to 196.15.4.0/24.
Which two methods will accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. Configure a lower local preference on R3.
B. Configure as-path-prepend on R2 and R4.
C. Configure local-as on R3.
D. Configure always-compare-med on R1.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
Referring to the output shown in the JN0-643 vce exhibit, which three statements are true about the PIM implementation on R1? (Choose three.)
A. R1 is receiving multicast traffic over the RPT.
B. R1 is receiving multicast traffic over the SPT.
C. Interface ge-0/0/10 provides the shortest path to the source.
D. The multicast stream flows from 10.100.10.10 to 172.18.57.5.
E. Interface ge-0/0/6 provides the shortest path to the source.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 6
jn0-643
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, the JN0-643 pdf RPT from R3 towards R2 is established.
What happens if the multicast source connected to R1 starts sending multicast traffic towards R1?
A. R1 encapsulates the multicast packets into a PIM register multicast packet.
B. R1 encapsulates the multicast packets into PIM join unicast messages.
C. R1 forwards the multicast packets on the (S,G) tree towards the RP.
D. R1 tunnels the multicast packets in PIM register messages towards the RP.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two statements are true about MSDP mesh groups? (Choose two.)
A. The MSDP mesh group was originally designed to limit SA flooding.
B. SA messages received from a mesh group member flood these messages to all peers that are not members of this mesh group.
C. SA messages received from a peer not in any mesh group do not flood to all peers.
D. SA messages received from a peer not in any mesh group perform a peer-RPF check and, if successful, flood to all peers (except the advertising router).
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
Which multicast group is used for all PIM routers?
A. 224.0.0.22
B. 224.0.0.13
C. 224.0.0.1
D. 224.0.0.2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
When enabling MVRP for dynamic VLAN registration JN0-643, which three timers would be configured on an interface? (Choose three.)
A. hello-interval
B. join-timer
C. leave-timer
D. max-age
E. leaveall-timer
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 10
Which two statements are correct about L2PT? (Choose two.)
A. L2PT requires 802.1Q tunneling enablement to effectively tunnel L2 protocols.
B. 802.1Q tunnels all L2 protocols by default.
C. L2PT encapsulates L2 PDUs by enabling the ingress switch to rewrite the PDUs’ source MAC addresses before forwarding them onto the service provider network.
D. You cannot enable L2PT and VLAN translation on the same VLAN.
Correct Answer: AD

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2017 Latest Oracle 1Z0-052 Dumps Exams Practice Questions And Youtube

Vendor: Oracle
Exam Code: 1Z0-052 dumps
Exam Name: Oracle Database 11g: Administrator I
Version: Demo

Question No : 1
You notice that the performance of the database has degraded because of frequent checkpoints.
Which two actions resolve the issue? (Choose two.)
A. Disable automatic checkpoint tuning
B. Check the size of the redo log file size and increase the size if it is small
C. Set the FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET parameter as per the advice given by the MTTR Advisor
D. Decrease the number of redo log members if there are more than one redo log members available in each redo log group
Answer: B,C

1z0-052

Question No : 2
Identify the memory component from which memory may be 1z0-052 allocated for: Session memory for the shared serverBuffers for I/O slavesOracle Database Recovery Manager (RMAN) backup and restore operations
A. Large Pool
B. Redo Log Buffer
C. Database Buffer Cache
D. Program Global Area (PGA)
Answer: A

Question No : 3
You executed the following command to 1z0-052 pdf create a tablespace called SALES_DATA:
SQL> CREATE TABLESPACE sales_data
DATAFILE SIZE 100M
SEGMENT SPACE MANAGEMENT AUTO;
Which two statements are true about the SALES_DATA tablespace? (Choose two)
A. The database automatically determines the extent-sizing policy for the tablespace.
B. The segments are automatically shrunk when the contents are removed from them.
C. The allocation of extents within the tablespace is managed through the dictionary tables.
D. The space utilization description of the data blocks in segments is recorded in bitmap blocks.
E. The space utilization description of the data blocks in segments is managed through free lists.
Answer: A,D

Question No : 4
In which of the scenario 1z0-052 will the DBA perform recovery? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The alert log file is corrupted
B. A tablespace is accidentally dropped
C. One of the redo log members is corrupted
D. A database user terminates the session abnormally
E. The hard disk on which the data files is stored is corrupted
Answer: B,E

Question No : 5
You want to enable archiving on your database. Presently, the database is running in NOARCHIVELOG mode.
Given below are the steps to accomplish the task in random order:
1. Shut down the instance.
2. Execute the ALTER DATABASE ARCHIVELOG command.
3. Start up the instance and mount the database.
4. Set the DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST initialization parameter to $ORACLE_HOME/dest_1.
5. Open the database.
Which is the correct sequence of steps for accomplishing the task?
A. 4, 1, 3, 2, 5
B. 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
C. 1, 3, 2, 5; 4 not required
D. 4, 1, 5, 2; 3 not required
E. 1, 3, 4, 5; 2 not required
Answer: C

Question No : 6
In your database instance, the 1z0-052 vce STATISTICS_LEVEL initialization parameter is set to BASIC.
What is the impact of this setting?
A. Optimizer statistics are collected automatically.
B. Only timed operating system (OS) statistics and plan execution statistics are collected.
C. The snapshots for the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) are not generated automatically.
D. Snapshots cannot be collected manually by using the DBMS_WORKLOAD_REPOSITORY package.
E. The Oracle server dynamically generates the necessary statistics on tables as part of query optimization.
Answer: C

Question No : 7
You have recently collected statistics on certain objects of 1z0-052 a schema in your database. But you observe suboptimal execution plans for the queries on these objects after two days of statistics collection. The optimizer statistics retention period is set to its default value.
Which action would help to use the previous set of statistics on the objects?
A. Restore statistics from statistics history.
B. Reduce the optimizer statistics retention period by 2 days.
C. Set the OPTIMIZER_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to TRUE.
D. Reduce the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) retention period by 2 days.
Answer: A

Question No : 8
Which three statements 1z0-052 regarding the server parameter file (SPFILE) are true? (Choose three.)
A. An SPFILE is a binary file
B. An SPFILE cannot reside on a client
C. An SPFILE cannot contain static parameters
D. An SPFILE can store changes persistently across instance restarts
E. An SPFILE can be read by the database server, but it is not written to by the server
F. An SPFILE must be created manually, before creating a database, even if you use the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) to create the database
Answer: A,B,D

Question No : 9
Your test database is configured to run in NOARCHIVELOG mode. One of the 1z0-052 exam data files in the USERS tablespace is lost due to a media failure. You notice that all the online redo logs have been overwritten since the last backup.
What would you do to recover the data file?
A. Take the USERS tablespace offline and re-create the lost data file
B. Shutdown the instance, restore the data file from the last consistent backup and restart the database instance
C. Shutdown the instance, restores all the database files from the last consistent backup and restart the database instance
D. Take the USERS tablespace offline, restore all the data files of the USERS tablespace from the last consistent backup and make the tablespace online
Answer: C

Question No : 10
The instance abnormally terminates 1z0-052 because of a power outage.
Which statement is true about redo log files during instance recovery?
A. Inactive and current redo log files are required to accomplish recovery
B. Online and archived redo files are required to accomplish instance recovery
C. All redo log entries after the last checkpoint are applied from redo log files to data files
D. All redo log entries recorded in the current log file until the checkpoint position are applied to data files
Answer: C

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Latest CompTIA SY0-401 Exam Practice Questions And Answers Free Download

Vendor: CompTIA
Exam Code: SY0-401 exam
Exam Name: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam
Version: Demo

sy0-401

QUESTION 1
A security administrator is notified that users attached to a particular switch are having intermittent connectivity issues. Upon further research, the administrator finds evidence of an ARP spoofing attack. Which of the following could be SY0-401 utilized to provide protection from this type of attack?
A. Configure MAC filtering on the switch.
B. Configure loop protection on the switch.
C. Configure flood guards on the switch.
D. Configure 802.1x authentication on the switch.
Correct Answer: C Explanation

QUESTION 2
Ann is a member of the SY0-401 vce Sales group. She needs to collaborate with Joe, a member of the IT group, to edit a file. Currently, the file has the following permissions: Ann: read/write
Sales Group: read
IT Group: no access
If a discretionary access control list is in place for the files owned by Ann, which of the following would be the BEST way to share the file with Joe?
A. Add Joe to the Sales group.
B. Have the system administrator give Joe full access to the file.
C. Give Joe the appropriate access to the file directly.
D. Remove Joe from the IT group and add him to the Sales group.
Correct Answer: C Explanation

QUESTION 3
A company would like to take electronic orders from a partner; however, they are concerned that a non-authorized person may send an order. The legal department asks if there is a solution that SY0-401 provides non-repudiation. Which of the following would meet the requirements of this scenario?
A. Encryption
B. Digital signatures
C. Steganography
D. Hashing
E. Perfect forward secrecy
Correct Answer: B Explanation

QUESTION 4
The Chief Security Officer (CSO) is contacted by a first responder. The SY0-401 pdf CSO assigns a handler. Which of the following is occurring?
A. Unannounced audit response
B. Incident response process
C. Business continuity planning
D. Unified threat management
E. Disaster recovery process
Correct Answer: B Explanation

QUESTION 5
An organization must implement controls to protect the confidentiality of its most sensitive data. The company is currently using a central storage system and group based access control for its sensitive information. Which of the following controls can further secure the data in the central storage system?
A. Data encryption
B. Patching the system
C. Digital signatures
D. File hashing
Correct Answer: A Explanation

QUESTION 6
A network administrator, Joe, arrives at SY0-401 his new job to find that none of the users have changed their network passwords since they were initially hired. Joe wants to have everyone change their passwords immediately. Which of the following policies should be enforced to initiate a password change?
A. Password expiration
B. Password reuse
C. Password recovery
D. Password disablement
Correct Answer: A Explanation

QUESTION 7
Ann, a security administrator at a call center, has been experiencing problems with users intentionally installing unapproved and occasionally malicious software on their computers. Due to the SY0-401 dumps nature of their jobs, Ann cannot change their permissions. Which of the following would BEST alleviate her concerns?
A. Deploy a HIDS suite on the users’ computers to prevent application installation.
B. Maintain the baseline posture at the highest OS patch level.
C. Enable the pop-up blockers on the users’ browsers to prevent malware.
D. Create an approved application list and block anything not on it.
Correct Answer: D Explanation

QUESTION 8
Which of the SY0-401 following should be used to authenticate and log connections from wireless users connecting with EAP-TLS?
A. Kerberos
B. LDAP
C. SAML
D. RADIUS
Correct Answer: D Explanation

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Microsoft MS-201 exam questions, MS-201 dumps easy to prepare for passing exams

Exam MS-201: Implementing a Hybrid and Secure Messaging Platform” Exam MS-201. Messaging Administrators are responsible for managing hygiene, messaging infrastructure, hybrid configuration, migration, disaster recovery, high availability, and client access.

Messaging Administrators collaborate with the Security Administrator and Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrator to implement a secure hybrid topology that meets the business needs of a modern organization.

Here you can get the latest free Microsoft MS-201 exam exercise questions and answers for free and easily improve your skills!

MS-201 exam: Candidates for this exam are Messaging Administrators who deploy, configure, manage, troubleshoot, and monitor recipients, permissions, mail protection, mail flow, and public folders in both on-premises and cloud enterprise environments. Follow the link to find more information about https://www.lead4pass.com/ms-201.html exam.

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Exam MS-201: Implementing a Hybrid and Secure Messaging Platform:https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-ms-201.aspx

Free Microsoft MS-201 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. You have a universal security group named group1 that
contains three users named Admin1, Admin2, and Admin3.
You plan to make Admin1, Admin2, and Admin3 responsible for managing some of the Exchange objects in the
organization.
You run the following commands.lead4pass ms-201 exam question q1

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-201 exam question q1-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-201 exam question q1-2

References:
https://practical365.com/exchange-server/exchange-server-role-based-access-control-in-action/

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/built-in-management-roles-exchange-2013-help

QUESTION 2
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 hybrid deployment. You run the Get-HybridConfiguration cmdlet and
receive the output shown in the following exhibit.lead4pass ms-201 exam question q2

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-201 exam question q2-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-201 exam question q2-2

References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/federation-and-hybrid/sethybridconfiguration?view=exchange-ps

QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization and a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription. From the Microsoft 365
admin center, you open Data migration as shown in the following exhibit.lead4pass ms-201 exam question q3

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-201 exam question q3-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-201 exam question q3-2

References:
https://www.stellarinfo.com/blog/hybrid-migration-migrate-exchange-mailboxes-office-365/
https://www.kerneldatarecovery.com/blog/migrate-from-exchange-on-premises-to-exchangeonlinein-hybrid-environment/

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this scenario, you will NOT be able to
return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
Your company has a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 hybrid deployment that contains two Mailbox servers named
MBX1 and MBX2.
The company has the departments shown in the following table.lead4pass ms-201 exam question q4

From the on-premises organization, outbound email is sent directly to the internet by using DNS lookups. You are
informed that some sales department users send email messages that are identified as spam.
You need to automatically block the sales department users from repeatedly sending spam. Solution: You modify the
outbound spam filter policy in Exchange Online. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/configure-the-outbound-spampolicy

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
Your company named ADatum Corporation has a Microsoft 365 subscription.
ADatum acquires a company named Contoso, Ltd.
In the subscription, you create a new mailbox for each user at Contoso. You need to provide the Contoso users with a
global address list (GAL) that contains only their email addresses.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:lead4pass ms-201 exam question q5

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-201 exam question q5-1

Explanation/Reference:

lead4pass ms-201 exam question q5-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/address-books/address-lists/create-global-address-list https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/email-addresses-and-address-books/addresslists/address-lists?view=exchserver-2019

QUESTION 6
HOTSPOT
Your company has a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 hybrid deployment. The company has four departments that have
the mailboxes shown in the following table.lead4pass ms-201 exam question q6

The mailboxes are configured as shown in the following table.

lead4pass ms-201 exam question q6-1

You have two administrators named Admin1 and Admin2 that are assigned the permissions shown in the following
table.

lead4pass ms-201 exam question q6-2

For each of the following statement, select yes if the statement is true. otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-201 exam question q6-3

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-201 exam question q6-4

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/discovery-management-exchange-2013-help
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/mailboxes/searchmailbox?view=exchange-ps

QUESTION 7
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. Users access their email by using Microsoft Outlook 2019.
The users report that their address list in Outlook sometimes takes a full day to show new entries. You need to ensure
that
the address list updates within four hours.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Set-MailboxServer
B. Set-OfflineAddressBook
C. New-OfflineAddressBook
D. New-SettingOverride
Correct Answer: D
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/plan-and-deploy/post-installation-tasks/change-oabgenerationschedule?view=exchserver-2019

QUESTION 8
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 hybrid deployment. You plan to enable Hybrid Modern Authentication
(HMA). You run the Get-MapiVirtualDirectory cmdlet and receive the output shown in the following exhibit.lead4pass ms-201 exam question q8

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-201 exam question q8-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-201 exam question q8-2

References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/enterprise/configure-exchange-server-for-hybridmodernauthentication

QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization.
Two Edge Transport servers provide email hygiene.
You configure anti-spam filters to redirect email messages identified as spam to a quarantine mailbox.
You open the quarantine mailbox in Microsoft Outlook 2019 and discover that the from field of all quarantined messages
shows the postmaster address.
You need to ensure that the quarantined messages can be sorted by using the original sender address.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:lead4pass ms-201 exam question q9

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-201 exam question q9-1

Explanation/Reference:

lead4pass ms-201 exam question q9-2

References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/antispam-and-antimalware/antispam-protection/showquarantinedmessage-original-senders?view=exchserver-2019

QUESTION 10
Case Study : Litware,Inc.
Case Study
Overview
Litware, Inc. is food service supplier in Europe.
PhysicalLocations
Litware has a main office in Paris and branch offices in Munich, London, Brussels, Vienna, and Rome.
Each branch office has its own compliance officer.
ExistingEnvironment
The network contains one Active Directory forest named litware.com. The forest contains a single Active Directory
domain. Each office is configured as an Active Directory site. Each branch office is represented organizational unit (OU)
in an
OU named Offices in Active Directory.
Each branch office has a special Administrators group that contains the delegated administrators for that office. Each
Administrators group is named based on its location in a format of RegionalAdmins_Brussels,
RegionalAdmins_Munich,
RegionalAdmins_London, RegionalAdmins_Vienna and RegionalAdmins_Rome.
NetworkInfrastructure
Each office contains two domain controllers from the litware.com domain. All the domain controllers are configured as
DNS servers. All client computers connect only to the DNS servers in their respective office.
All offices have a high-speed connection to the Internet. Each office connects to the Internet by using a VPN appliance.
Each office has the following servers and client computers:
One reverse proxy appliance
One Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 server
One Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server
Computers that run Windows 10 and have Microsoft Office 2019 installed. The office in Brussels contains an Exchange
Server 2016 server that has the Unified Messaging role installed and hosted voicemail configured.
Mailboxes are hosted on all the Exchange servers. Public folders are hosted only on an Exchange server in the main
office. Litware uses a disjoint namespace to access the servers. Each user has an archive mailbox. Archiving is
configured
to use the default settings. Exchange services are published to the internet by using a reverse proxy in each office. A full
backup of Exchange is performed nightly. Incremental backups occur every six hours. All the users in the transport
department connect to network resources by using a connection in the main office.
Requirements
Planned Changes
Litware plans to implement the following changes:
Implement calendar sharing to partner companies.
Implement a solution that prevents malware from being delivered to end users. Use personal archives to eliminate the
need for PST files. Ensure the Brussels office and move all the users in the Brussels office to the main office. All the
mailboxes in the Brussels office will be moved to a server in the main office. Implement a compliance solution to ensure
that items deleted from public folders are retained. If an item in a public folder is modified, the original version of the
item
must be available.
TechnicalRequirements
Litware identifies the following technical requirements:
Minimize administrative effort.
Use the principle of least privilege.
Ensure that junk email is deleted automatically after 14 days. Ensure that sent items and deleted items are deleted
automatically after 30 days. Ensure that users in the customer service department can open multiple mailboxes. Ensure
that
all the former Brussels office users always maintain access to hosted voicemail. Ensure that the staff in the IT
department can manage the email environment without and-user involvement.
Ensure that users cannot recover email messages that are deleted from the Junk Email folder and the Deleted Items.
Ensure that if an email message has a spam confidence level (SCL) of 3 or higher, the message automatically moves to
the Junk Email folder.
Problemstatements
The transport department users report that accessing a public folder named TransportPF is sometimes very slow.
Users in the customer service department report that Microsoft Outlook sometimes hangs when many mailboxes are
open.
You need to recommend a solution to retain the items in the public folders. The solution must support the planned
changes.
What should you recommend?
A. Create an Outlook rule that forwards all the items in each public folder to a compliance mailbox.
B. Place an In-Place Hold on all the mailboxes of the public folders.
C. Increase the frequency of the backups.
D. Modify the public folder permissions.
Correct Answer: B
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/security-and-compliance/in-place-and-litigationholds#placingpublic-folders-on-hold

QUESTION 11
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. You need to ensure that all email is retained for one year,
and then moved to an archive mailbox. What should you use?
A. a default policy tag
B. a data loss prevention (DLP) policy
C. a personal tag
D. a retention policy tag
Correct Answer: D
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/policy-and-compliance/mrm/retention-tags-andretentionpolicies?view=exchserver-2019

QUESTION 12
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization.
You deploy a new mailbox server named EX01.
You need to ensure that EX01 can perform content filtering and sender filtering.
What should you run first?
A. Install-UnifiedCompliancePrequisite
B. Set-transportAgent
C. Install-AntiSpamAgents.ps1
D. Set-MailboxJunkEmailConfiguration
Correct Answer: C
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/antispam-and-antimalware/antispamprotection/antispam-onmailbox-servers?view=exchserver-2019

QUESTION 13
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this scenario, you will NOT be able to return to
it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription.
Several users in the finance department of the company recently accesses unsafe websites by clicking on links in email
messages. Users in the marketing department of the company report that they must be able to access all the links
embedded in email messages. You need to reduce the likelihood of the finance department users accessing unsafe
websites. The solution must affect only the finance department users.
Solution: You create a new safe attachments policy.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/atp-safe-attachments

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LatestVCE shares online exam exercise questions all year round! CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI LX0-104 exam “CompTIA Linux+ validates the competencies required of an early career system administrator supporting Linux systems” https://www.lead4pass.com/lx0-104.html (178 Q&As).Continue to study and we provide an updated cisco LX0-104 exam practice questions and answers. You can practice the test online!

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CompTIA Linux+ covers common tasks in major distributions of Linux, including the Linux command line, basic maintenance, installing and configuring workstations, and networking. Linux+ is comprised of two exams – LX0-103 and LX0-104. Candidates must pass LX0-103 before taking LX0-104.

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CompTIA Linux+ validates the skills of IT professionals with hands-on experience configuring, monitoring, and supporting servers running the Linux operating system. The new exam has an increased focus on the following topics: security, kernel modules, storage & visualization, device management at an enterprise level, git & automation, networking & firewalls, server-side & command line, server (vs. client-based) coverage, troubleshooting, and SELinux.

CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI LX0-104 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Instead of using specific host names or IP addresses, which string can be used in /etc/hosts.allow entries to cover any
remote host no matter of its name or address? (Specify the relevant string only without any additional options or
arguments.)
A. all
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What is the name of the simple graphical login manager that comes with a vanilla X11 installation? (Specify ONLY the
command without any path or parameters.)
A. xdm
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
What word will complete an if statement in bash such as the following: if [ -x “$file” ]; then echo $file _____ (Please
provide the missing word only)
Correct Answer: fi

QUESTION 4
Which of the following crontab entries will execute myscript at 30 minutes past every hour on Sundays?
A. 0 * * * 30 myscript
B. 30 * * * 6 myscript
C. 30 0 * * 0 myscript
D. 30 0-23 * * 0 myscript
E. 0 0-23 * * 30 myscript
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which of the following are commonly used Mail Transfer Agent (MTA) applications? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. Postfix
B. Procmail
C. Sendmail
D. Exim
E. SMTPd
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 6
Which of the following is a correct entry in the /etc/hosts file?
A. localhost 127.0.0.1 localhost.localdomain localhost 127.0.0.1
B. localhost.localdomain
C. localhost localhost.localdomain 127.0.0.1
D. 127.0.0.1 localhost.localdomain localhost
127.0.0.1 localhost
E. localhost.localdomain
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which port is the default server port for the HTTPS protocol? (Specify the port number using digits.)
Correct Answer: 443

QUESTION 8
Which of the following files holds the configuration for journald when running system?
A. /etc/system/journalctl.conf
B. /etc/systemd/journald.conf
C. /etc/system/systemd-journal.conf
D. /etc/systemd/systemd-journalctl.conf
E. /usr/lib/systemd/journalctl.conf
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
After adding a new email alias to the configuration, which command must be run in order to ensure the MTA knows
about it? (Specify the command without any path but including all required parameters.)
A. newaliases -or- sendmail -bi
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What is the purpose of the iconv command?
A. It converts bitmap images from one format to another such as PNG to JPEG.
B. It verifies that the root directory tree complies to all conventions from the Filesystem Hierarchy Standard (FHS).
C. It displays additional meta information from icon files ending in .ico.
D. It changes the mode of an inode in the ext4 file system.
E. It converts files from one character encoding to another.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 11
What output will the following command produce?
seq 1 5 20
A. 1
B. 1
C. 1
D. 2
E. 5
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
What is the purpose of the command mailq?
A. It fetches new emails from a remote server using POP3 or IMAP.
B. It is a multi-user mailing list manager.
C. It is a proprietary tool contained only in the qmail MTA.
D. It queries the mail queue of the local MTA.
E. It is a command-line based tool for reading and writing emails.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Given the following routing table:lead4pass LX0-104 exam question q13

How would an outgoing packet to the destination 192.168.2.150 be handled?
A. It would be passed to the default router 192.168.178.1 on wlan0.
B. It would be directly transmitted on the device eth0.
C. It would be passed to the default router 255.255.255.0 on eth0.
D. It would be directly transmitted on the device wlan0.
E. It would be passed to the router 192.168.1.1 on eth0.
Correct Answer: E

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