400-351 VCE | 2017 Latest Cisco 400-351 VCE Exam Questions And Answers

Question No : 1
You are implementing a WLC at a remote site and want to make sure that you are able to sync up with the Cisco WCS at the central site. Which two statements about this process are true? (Choose two.)       The best Cisco https://www.lead4pass.com/400-351.html exam study guide and practice materials
A. If the WLC is behind a firewall, you must make sure that UDP ports 161 and 162 are open.
B. The Cisco WCS server does not need direct IP connectivity to the WLC.
C. Cisco WCS will not be able to communicate with the WLC if the WLC is behind a NAT device.
D. If the WLC is behind a NAT device, the WLC’s dynamic AP-manager interface must be configured with the external NAT IP address.
Answer: A,C

Question No : 2
While troubleshooting a failed central web authentication configuration on cisco WLC you discover that the Cisco WLC policy manager state is showing RUN For new client and not CENTRAL_WEB_AUTH what is most likely the issue.?
A. The WLAN Layer 2 security should be sent to WPA+WPA2
B. The WLAN NAC state should be set to RADIUS NAC
C. The web login page under the cisco WLC security should be set to external (redirect to external server)
D. The WLAN layer 3 security should be set to web page policy with condition web redirect.
Answer: B

Question No : 3
Refer to the exhibit which syslog logging facility and severity level is enabled on this AP ?
A. logging trap severity 6, logging syslog facility local7
B. logging trap severity 3,logging syslog facility sys 10
C. logging trap severity 5,logging syslog facility local14
D. logging trap severity 7, logging syslog facility local 7
E. Logging trap severity 9,logging syslog facility kernel
Answer: D

Question No : 4
Which two options are valid mobility roles in which a controller can operate in during a client mobility session? (Choose two.)
A. local
B. auto anchor
C. export anchor
D. mobility announcer
Answer: A,C

Question No : 5
Which statement about wireless LAN security in a Cisco 400-351 vce Unified Wireless Network VoWLAN deployment is false?
A. EAP-FAST, if available, is the recommended EAP type for use in VoWLAN deployments.
B. Although LEAP is considered secure for VoWLAN handsets when correctly deployed, it is recommended that a different EAP method (FAST, PEAP, TLS) is used, if available.
C. Dynamic WEP mitigates the security weaknesses in static WEP, making it a viable option that can be relied upon to secure a VoWLAN deployment.
D. When using EAP authentication, the EAP-Request timeout value should be adjusted based only on the advice of the VoWLAN handset vendor.
E. When using WPA Personal, strong keys should be used to avoid a dictionary attack.
Answer: D

Question No : 6
Which port does cisco JSE use by default to send RADIUS CoA messages to the Cisco WLC?
A. UDP 3799
B. UDP 1813
C. UDP 1700
D. TCP 1812
Answer: C

Question No : 7
When creating a guest account on Cisco identity Services Engine .Which option in the sponsor portal allows for the guest credentials to be used for RADIUS authentication without requiring the guest user to log into the guest portal?
A. Set the Guest role to Guest
B. Set the Guest role to Activated guest
C. Set the Time Profile to Radius 1Day
D. Check the box to send email not send email notification id the guest user name is based on the email address.
Answer: B

Question No : 8
Your customer has a Cisco unified Wireless Network running AireOS 8.0 and wants to learn about the FlexConnect mode that is available on his APs which two statementsare true?(choose two)   400-351 vce
A. When an AP is changed from localmode to FlexConnect mode a reboot is required.
B. A newly connected AP can be booted in FlexConnect mode
C. When an AP IS changed from local mode to FlexConnect mode a reboot IS not required.
D. Cisco Centralized Key Management require the use of FlexConnect group
Answer: C,D

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How To Pass 210-065 Exam With Latest Cisco 210-065 Exam Practice Questions

Question No : 1
Management wants to modify Cisco TMS to allow users to configure the Cisco  https://www.lead4pass.com/210-065.html exam call behavior with their associated devices and dial from a single ID. Which feature needs to be enabled and configured?
A. Smart Scheduler
B. Low-touch Provisioning
C. FindMe
D. CMR Provisioning
Answer: C

Question No : 2
A technician is tasked with performing a room readiness assessment in preparation for an immersive video endpoint. What are three Cisco best practices regarding lighting recommendations for the room? (Choose three.)
A. The bulb temperature should be between 4000 and 4100K.
B. Key lighting should be between 200 and 400 Lux with the endpoint powered on.
C. Shoulder lighting should not exceed two times the facial lighting values with the endpoint off.
D. Use direct lighting fixtures.
E. Within the camera field of view, the lighting for all parts of the room should not fluctuate more than 100 Lux.
F. Avoid using dimming light control systems.
Answer: A,C,E

Question No : 3
Refer to the exhibit
Which configuration item shown in the exhibit should be used to assign the 210-065 pdf internal and external video communication server address for this group of users?
A. User Settings > Video Address pattern
B. Administrative Tools > User Settings
C. Configuration Template > Edit Template
D. User Import > Configuration
Answer: C

Question No : 4
Which four features are provided by Cisco TelePresence Management Suite? (Choose four.)
A. Scheduling of video conference calls
B. Built-in-bridge functionality for multiparty video conferences
C. SIP-H.323 protocol interworking
D. Centralized management of conference resources
E. SMTP email event notification
F. Endpoint configuration backup and restore
G. Cisco TelePresence endpoint automated redundancy
H. Automated resource optimization
Answer: A,D,E,F

Question No : 5
Which two protocols can be used with the Cisco TelePresence Content Server to allow users to share content from their laptops? (Choose two.)
B. H.239
D. Switched Presentation
Answer: A,B

Question No : 6
A network engineer wants to automate the monitoring of Cisco 210-065 vce TelePresence TX systems.
Which step should the engineer take first?
A. Configure Cisco TMS on the codec.
B. Configure Medianet on the codec.
C. Configure NTP on the codec.
D. Configure Multiway on the codec.
E. Configure SNMP on the codec.
Answer: E

Question No : 7
Which four features are supported by Cisco TelePresence Server for all hardware models in remotely managed mode? (Choose four.)
A. auto-attendant
B. ClearPath
C. Cluster sizes of more than 5 servers
D. Cascading
E. Active presence for all devices
F. Support for Conductor
G. Native scheduling capabilities
Answer: B,D,E,F

Question No : 8
Which three features does Cisco VCS provide? (Choose three.)
A. native Cisco SCCP telephony integration
B. SIP-H.323 interworking functionality
C. native scheduling
D. SIP trunk integration with Cisco Unified Communications Manager
E. third-party standards-based H.323 and SIP device registration
F. reverse proxy functionality
Answer: B,D,E

Question No : 9
An engineer is creating a system backup on a Cisco 210-065 dumps VCS. Which two options describe characteristics of Cisco VCS backups? (Choose two.)
A. The backup can be sent to the remote SFTP server.
B. The backup can be encrypted with a password.
C. The backup can be sent to additional servers in the cluster.
D. The backup is valid for 30 days.
E. The backup is stored in Cisco TMS.
F. The backup is only downloadable locally.
Answer: B,F

Question No : 10
A Cisco TelePresence VCS displays this alarm: “Root password is set to default.” How can this security warning be addressed?
A. Use the Cisco TelePresence VCS web user interface, choose Administration > User Settings, and change the root password.
B. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Administrator and issue the command xconfig root set passwd.
C. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Root, issue the command set password, and enter the new password when prompted.
D. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Root, issue the command passwd, and enter the new password when prompted.
E. Use the Cisco TelePresence VCS web user interface, choose Administration > System Settings, and change the root password.
Answer: D

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Pass Salesforce ADM-211 Exam With Latest ADM-211 Practice Exam Questions

AW Computing needs to track the Salesforce ADM-211 practice exam manufacturer and model for specific computers and laptops. How can the system administrator ensure that manufacturer selected influences the values available for model.
A. Create a multi-select picklist field that includes both manufacturers and models.
B. Create a lookup field from the manufacturer object to the model object
C. Create a manufacturer field as a controlling picklist and the model as a dependent picklist
D. Create a manufacturer field as the dependent picklist and the model as the controlling picklist.
Correct Answer: C
Which of the following are true about formula fields?
A. They are read-only
B. They will not display on record edit pages
C. They will not display on record detail pages
D. They are not searchable
E. They will not display on reports
Correct Answer: ABD

Which of the ADM-211 following objects support business processes?
A. Cases
B. Opportunities
C. Campaigns
D. Knowledge
Correct Answer: AB

The system administrator has been asked to create a way to track Shipments of products to customers. Shipments should be closely tied to the Opportunity record and there may be more than one shipment record per Opportunity and the ADM-211 Opportunity should be required (i.e. Users cannot save a Shipment record without associating it to an Opportunity). The system administrator should create.
A. A cross object formula displaying Opportunity ID on the Shipment record
B. A Master – Detail relationship on the Shipment object to the Opportunity object
C. A lookup relationship on the Opportunity object to the Shipment object
D. A lookup relationship with a lookup filter from Opportunity to Shipment
Correct Answer: B

You will need a security token to access Salesforce via (choose all that apply)
A. Import Wizard
B. Data Loader
C. Salesforce for Outlook
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: BC

What should a system administrator consider before importing a set of records into Salesforce.
A. The import file should include a record owner for each record
B. Validation rules are not triggered when importing data using the import wizard
C. Data should be de-duplicated in the import file prior to import
D. Currency field values will default to the personal currency of the record owner
Correct Answer: AC
Which of the following can be used to ADM-211 create a back up of data from Salesforce?
A. Weekly Data Export
B. Data Loader
C. Import Wizard
D. Reports
E. Dashboards
Correct Answer: ABD

Which statement about custom summary formulas is true?
A. Reports can be grouped by a custom summary formula result
B. Custom summary formulas can reference a formula field within a report
C. Custom summary formulas can reference another custom summary formula
D. Custom summary formulas can be used in a report built from a custom report type
Correct Answer: BD

A Dashboard is a visual representation of data from ADM-211 multiple reports and (choose all that apply)
A. Is comprised of up to 20 components
B. Displays data from standard reports
C. Has a running user to determine what data is visible
D. Displays data as of the last time the dashboard was refreshed
E. Always shows up to date data
F. Can be scheduled to be refreshed and emailed automatically
Correct Answer: ACDF

The support team has asked the System Administrator to automate the notification of a customer’s support plan ending – they would like for the ADM-211 Customer Support Rep to receive an email 30 days before the Support Plan Expires (Support Plan Expiration Date is on the Account record). What will the system administrator do?
A. Create a workflow rule with a time-based trigger to fire 30 days before the Support Plan Expiration Date and use an email action to notify the assigned Support Rep
B. Create a workflow rule with an immediate action to email the Support rep but with a due date of 30 days before the Support Expiration Date
C. Create an Apex trigger to fire 30 days before Support Plan Expiration Date and use an email action to notify the assigned Support Rep
D. This cannot be done
Correct Answer: A

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Latest Juniper JN0-643 Dumps Exam Free Update With High Pass Rate

New question on multicast similar to the all PIM routers but the answers did contain subnet masks and different answers. Otherwise very good dump with almost 100% correct answers, much better than any other https://www.lead4pass.com/jn0-643.html dumps Please be careful that there are some questions changed. You need to read them carefully.

Referring to the JN0-643 dumps exhibit, which three actions would summarize these routes to a BGP peer? (Choose three.)
A. Create a policy that accepts the more specific contributing routes.
B. Create a route to with a next hop of under the [edit routing- options static] hierarchy.
C. Create a policy that rejects the more specific contributing routes.
D. Create a policy to accept aggregate routes.
E. Create a route under the [edit routing-options aggregate] hierarchy.
Correct Answer: CDE

Click the Exhibit button.
AS4 is using the JN0-643 exam default path to get to AS1. This path is not modified by any of the ASs shown in the exhibit. AS1 wants to influence this path so that traffic from AS4 comes through AS3.
Where do you apply the policy shown in the exhibit?
A. AS1
B. AS2
C. AS3
D. AS4
Correct Answer: A

Your company asks you to configure multicast routing on a Junos device. They tell you that the router at IP address is the root of the shared multicast delivery tree.
Which command allows you to configure the Junos device as a non-RP router for PIM?
A. set protocols pim rp local family inet disable
B. set protocols pim rp local address
C. set protocols pim rp static address
D. set protocols pim rp auto-rp announce
Correct Answer: C

Click the Exhibit button.
You are the administrator for the network shown in the exhibit. R1 receives the route from routers R2, R3, and R4. Local preference values have not been modified in this network. You are asked to ensure that R1 prefers the path through AS 3149 for traffic destined to
Which two methods will accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. Configure a lower local preference on R3.
B. Configure as-path-prepend on R2 and R4.
C. Configure local-as on R3.
D. Configure always-compare-med on R1.
Correct Answer: BD

Referring to the output shown in the JN0-643 vce exhibit, which three statements are true about the PIM implementation on R1? (Choose three.)
A. R1 is receiving multicast traffic over the RPT.
B. R1 is receiving multicast traffic over the SPT.
C. Interface ge-0/0/10 provides the shortest path to the source.
D. The multicast stream flows from to
E. Interface ge-0/0/6 provides the shortest path to the source.
Correct Answer: BDE

Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, the JN0-643 pdf RPT from R3 towards R2 is established.
What happens if the multicast source connected to R1 starts sending multicast traffic towards R1?
A. R1 encapsulates the multicast packets into a PIM register multicast packet.
B. R1 encapsulates the multicast packets into PIM join unicast messages.
C. R1 forwards the multicast packets on the (S,G) tree towards the RP.
D. R1 tunnels the multicast packets in PIM register messages towards the RP.
Correct Answer: D

Which two statements are true about MSDP mesh groups? (Choose two.)
A. The MSDP mesh group was originally designed to limit SA flooding.
B. SA messages received from a mesh group member flood these messages to all peers that are not members of this mesh group.
C. SA messages received from a peer not in any mesh group do not flood to all peers.
D. SA messages received from a peer not in any mesh group perform a peer-RPF check and, if successful, flood to all peers (except the advertising router).
Correct Answer: AB

Which multicast group is used for all PIM routers?
Correct Answer: B

When enabling MVRP for dynamic VLAN registration JN0-643, which three timers would be configured on an interface? (Choose three.)
A. hello-interval
B. join-timer
C. leave-timer
D. max-age
E. leaveall-timer
Correct Answer: BCE

Which two statements are correct about L2PT? (Choose two.)
A. L2PT requires 802.1Q tunneling enablement to effectively tunnel L2 protocols.
B. 802.1Q tunnels all L2 protocols by default.
C. L2PT encapsulates L2 PDUs by enabling the ingress switch to rewrite the PDUs’ source MAC addresses before forwarding them onto the service provider network.
D. You cannot enable L2PT and VLAN translation on the same VLAN.
Correct Answer: AD

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2017 Latest Oracle 1Z0-052 Dumps Exams Practice Questions And Youtube

Vendor: Oracle
Exam Code: 1Z0-052 dumps
Exam Name: Oracle Database 11g: Administrator I
Version: Demo

Question No : 1
You notice that the performance of the database has degraded because of frequent checkpoints.
Which two actions resolve the issue? (Choose two.)
A. Disable automatic checkpoint tuning
B. Check the size of the redo log file size and increase the size if it is small
C. Set the FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET parameter as per the advice given by the MTTR Advisor
D. Decrease the number of redo log members if there are more than one redo log members available in each redo log group
Answer: B,C


Question No : 2
Identify the memory component from which memory may be 1z0-052 allocated for: Session memory for the shared serverBuffers for I/O slavesOracle Database Recovery Manager (RMAN) backup and restore operations
A. Large Pool
B. Redo Log Buffer
C. Database Buffer Cache
D. Program Global Area (PGA)
Answer: A

Question No : 3
You executed the following command to 1z0-052 pdf create a tablespace called SALES_DATA:
Which two statements are true about the SALES_DATA tablespace? (Choose two)
A. The database automatically determines the extent-sizing policy for the tablespace.
B. The segments are automatically shrunk when the contents are removed from them.
C. The allocation of extents within the tablespace is managed through the dictionary tables.
D. The space utilization description of the data blocks in segments is recorded in bitmap blocks.
E. The space utilization description of the data blocks in segments is managed through free lists.
Answer: A,D

Question No : 4
In which of the scenario 1z0-052 will the DBA perform recovery? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The alert log file is corrupted
B. A tablespace is accidentally dropped
C. One of the redo log members is corrupted
D. A database user terminates the session abnormally
E. The hard disk on which the data files is stored is corrupted
Answer: B,E

Question No : 5
You want to enable archiving on your database. Presently, the database is running in NOARCHIVELOG mode.
Given below are the steps to accomplish the task in random order:
1. Shut down the instance.
2. Execute the ALTER DATABASE ARCHIVELOG command.
3. Start up the instance and mount the database.
4. Set the DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST initialization parameter to $ORACLE_HOME/dest_1.
5. Open the database.
Which is the correct sequence of steps for accomplishing the task?
A. 4, 1, 3, 2, 5
B. 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
C. 1, 3, 2, 5; 4 not required
D. 4, 1, 5, 2; 3 not required
E. 1, 3, 4, 5; 2 not required
Answer: C

Question No : 6
In your database instance, the 1z0-052 vce STATISTICS_LEVEL initialization parameter is set to BASIC.
What is the impact of this setting?
A. Optimizer statistics are collected automatically.
B. Only timed operating system (OS) statistics and plan execution statistics are collected.
C. The snapshots for the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) are not generated automatically.
D. Snapshots cannot be collected manually by using the DBMS_WORKLOAD_REPOSITORY package.
E. The Oracle server dynamically generates the necessary statistics on tables as part of query optimization.
Answer: C

Question No : 7
You have recently collected statistics on certain objects of 1z0-052 a schema in your database. But you observe suboptimal execution plans for the queries on these objects after two days of statistics collection. The optimizer statistics retention period is set to its default value.
Which action would help to use the previous set of statistics on the objects?
A. Restore statistics from statistics history.
B. Reduce the optimizer statistics retention period by 2 days.
D. Reduce the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) retention period by 2 days.
Answer: A

Question No : 8
Which three statements 1z0-052 regarding the server parameter file (SPFILE) are true? (Choose three.)
A. An SPFILE is a binary file
B. An SPFILE cannot reside on a client
C. An SPFILE cannot contain static parameters
D. An SPFILE can store changes persistently across instance restarts
E. An SPFILE can be read by the database server, but it is not written to by the server
F. An SPFILE must be created manually, before creating a database, even if you use the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) to create the database
Answer: A,B,D

Question No : 9
Your test database is configured to run in NOARCHIVELOG mode. One of the 1z0-052 exam data files in the USERS tablespace is lost due to a media failure. You notice that all the online redo logs have been overwritten since the last backup.
What would you do to recover the data file?
A. Take the USERS tablespace offline and re-create the lost data file
B. Shutdown the instance, restore the data file from the last consistent backup and restart the database instance
C. Shutdown the instance, restores all the database files from the last consistent backup and restart the database instance
D. Take the USERS tablespace offline, restore all the data files of the USERS tablespace from the last consistent backup and make the tablespace online
Answer: C

Question No : 10
The instance abnormally terminates 1z0-052 because of a power outage.
Which statement is true about redo log files during instance recovery?
A. Inactive and current redo log files are required to accomplish recovery
B. Online and archived redo files are required to accomplish instance recovery
C. All redo log entries after the last checkpoint are applied from redo log files to data files
D. All redo log entries recorded in the current log file until the checkpoint position are applied to data files
Answer: C

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Latest Microsoft Certification MB2-708 PDF Exam Practice Free Try – Youtube

Vendor: Microsoft
Exam Code: MB2-708
Exam Name: Microsoft Dynamics CRM Installation
Version: Demo

I passed CCDP with 986/1000. I only see DIANE dump for exam. 100% still valid. Two new Microsoft https://www.lead4pass.com/MB2-708.html exam questions. That questions you can find forum. Passed the exam 933/1000. today all the question from this dump,i got 3 sem problems 2 were from this dump and one from OSPF with 6 routers connected with WAN and ethernet .i did not get any question from ipv6,RIPv1 ,RIPv2.


You are deploying Dynamics CRM 2015. You configure the following settings:
Server Profile
Incoming Email
Outgoing Email
Users will not use Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook.
You need to identify a method to MB2-708 exam implement synchronization for appointments, contacts, and tasks.
What should you use?
A. Forward Mailbox
B. Smart Matching
C. Server-Side Synchronization
D. Email Router
Correct Answer: B

You recently upgraded a deployment of Dynamics CRM to Dynamics CRM 2015. All client computers have the following configurations:
Windows 7
Internet Explorer 10
Microsoft Outlook 2007
Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5.1
Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013 for Outlook
You need to upgrade all of the Microsoft MB2-708 Dynamics CRM for Outlook installations to Dynamics CRM 2015.
What should you upgrade before you install Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook?
A. Windows 7
B. Outlook 2007
C. Internet Explorer 10
D. .NET Framework 3.5.1
Correct Answer: C

You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that has 50 users.
A user named User1 has Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook installed.
User1 plans to manage another Dynamics CRM 2015 organization from Microsoft MB2-708 Outlook.
You need to add the second organization to Outlook.
What should you do?
A. Run the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook Configuration Wizard.
B. Add a Connected Service to the Office Account of User1.
C. Modify the URL of the Discovery Web Service server role.
D. Reinstall Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook.
Correct Answer: B

You plan to deploy Dynamics CRM 2015 for a customer.
The customer requires that the Email Router component be used.
You need to identify to the MB2-708 customer which email solutions are supported by the Email Router.
Which three email solutions should you identity? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
B. Exchange ActiveSync
C. A Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) server for outgoing email
D. Microsoft Exchange Online
E. A Post Office Protocol 3 (POP3) server for incoming email
Correct Answer: ABC

You are using the Dynamics CRM 2013 Email Router to transfer email to a Dynamics CRM 2015 server.
Users report that email is tracked, but tasks, appointments, and contacts are not tracked.
You need to ensure that the MB2-708 vce tasks, appointments, and contacts are tracked.
What should you do?
A. Modify the file system permissions for the users.
B. Deploy Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook.
C. Upgrade the Email Router.
D. Modify the configuration of the Email Router.
Correct Answer: B

You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that contains one organization. You need to create a copy of the organization within the same deployment. What should you do first?
A. Disable the organization.
B. Back up the organization database.
C. Restore the organization database.
D. Disable the server.
Correct Answer: A

Which statement correctly describes the Microsoft Dynamics CRM for MB2-708 Outlook client application?
A. The Dynamics CRM 2013 French language pack can be upgraded to the Dynamics CRM 2015 English language pack.
B. Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook can be used in online mode when connected to Dynamics CRM 2011.
C. Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook can be used in offline mode or online mode when connected to Dynamics CRM 2013.
D. Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013 for Outlook can be used in online mode when connected to Dynamics CRM 2015.
Correct Answer: A

You install Microsoft MB2-708 Dynamics CRM for Outlook on 50 client computers.
You need to configure Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook to use the URL for the Discovery Web Service.
What should you do?
A. Run setupclient.exe and specify the /A parameter.
B. Run microsoft.crm.application.outlook-configwizard.exe and specify the/xo parameter.
C. Run microsoftcrm.application.outlook-configwizard.exe and specify the/i parameter.
D. Run setupclient.exe and specify /targetdir parameter.
Correct Answer: A

You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015.
A manager at your company uses Microsoft MB2-708 dumps Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook.
The manager stores a large amount of offline data, but the new data is NOT available offline. You need to ensure that the new data added to Dynamics CRM 2015 is available to the manager offline.
What should you do?
A. Upgrade to Microsoft SQL Server Express 2014.
B. Defragment the hard disk drive of the manager’s computer.
C. Modify the Offline Synchronization Filters for Outlook.
D. Modify the Outlook Synchronization Filters.
Correct Answer: B

You need to create a relationship between email and records by using information that is stored in the email message header, such as the MB2-708 sender and the recipient.
What should you use?
A. The tracking token
B. The Email Router
C. Server-side synchronization
D. Smart matching
Correct Answer: A

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2017 Latest PMI-001 PDF PMI Certification Online Free Download

Assumptions are factors that, for PMI pmi-001 pdf planning purposes, are considered to be ______.
A. True, real, or certain
B. True, real, or uncertain
C. Real
D. Verbal
Correct Answer: A
PMBOK describes assumptions as “factors that, for planning purposes, are considered to be true, real, or certain.”


Which one of the following comes first in the pmi-001 project plan?
A. Scope Statement
B. Quality Plan
D. Development Plan
Correct Answer: A
Scope statement comes first in the project plan. Scope statement is the pmi-001 exam written statement of project. It contains: Project objectives, Project justification, Project deliverables.

You are project manager of a project. During the process of selecting the sellers, you reject one vendor because it doesn’t have the pmi-001 manufacturing capability. This is an example of which selection tool?
A. Weighting system
B. Screening system
C. Seller rating system
D. Expert judgment
Correct Answer: B
A screening system rejects sellers that does not meet minimum requirements for the project.

______________ provides details about how the pmi-001 project scope may be changed.
A. Control Scope system
B. VeiirV Scope
C. Scope Charter
D. Scope Management plan
Correct Answer: D Explanation
The scope management plan provides details about how the project scope may be changed.

Which of the following technique to identify the underlying cause of a problem and take steps to prevent further occurrence?
A. Root cause analysis
B. Quality audits
C. Project audits
D. Risk audits
Correct Answer: A
Root cause analysis: A technique to identify the pmi-001 underlying cause of a problem and take steps to prevent further occurrence.

Which of the following provides the least accurate in estimating?
A. Rough order of magnitude
B. Budget estimate
C. WBS estimate
D. Definitive estimate
Correct Answer: A
The rough order of magnitude is the pmi-001 dumps least accurate approach, as it may vary from -25 percent to +75 percent.

Who has the responsibility for informing the final deliverable to all stakeholders?
A. Project Manager
B. Sponsor
C. Team Lead
D. Management
Correct Answer: A
Project Manager has the responsibility for informing the final deliverable to all stakeholders.

What is a corrective action?
A. An action that brings future pmi-001 project events Into alignment with the project plan
B. An action to correct something in the project
C. An action to prevent something in the project
D. Corrective action is not related to project
Correct Answer: A
Corrective action: An action that brings future project events into alignment with the project plan.

A contract cannot contain _____________.
A. Illegal activities
B. deadline for the completion of the work
C. Penalties and fines for disclosure of intellectual rights
D. Al1 of the above
Correct Answer: A
A contract cannot contain illegal activities. A pmi-001 vce contract can contain other options available.

A complete set of indexed pmi-001 project records is called __________.
A. Project archives
B. Index
C. sow
D. Project History
Correct Answer: A
A complete set of indexed project records for archiving by the appropriate parties.

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Latest CompTIA SY0-401 Exam Practice Questions And Answers Free Download

Vendor: CompTIA
Exam Code: SY0-401 exam
Exam Name: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam
Version: Demo


A security administrator is notified that users attached to a particular switch are having intermittent connectivity issues. Upon further research, the administrator finds evidence of an ARP spoofing attack. Which of the following could be SY0-401 utilized to provide protection from this type of attack?
A. Configure MAC filtering on the switch.
B. Configure loop protection on the switch.
C. Configure flood guards on the switch.
D. Configure 802.1x authentication on the switch.
Correct Answer: C Explanation

Ann is a member of the SY0-401 vce Sales group. She needs to collaborate with Joe, a member of the IT group, to edit a file. Currently, the file has the following permissions: Ann: read/write
Sales Group: read
IT Group: no access
If a discretionary access control list is in place for the files owned by Ann, which of the following would be the BEST way to share the file with Joe?
A. Add Joe to the Sales group.
B. Have the system administrator give Joe full access to the file.
C. Give Joe the appropriate access to the file directly.
D. Remove Joe from the IT group and add him to the Sales group.
Correct Answer: C Explanation

A company would like to take electronic orders from a partner; however, they are concerned that a non-authorized person may send an order. The legal department asks if there is a solution that SY0-401 provides non-repudiation. Which of the following would meet the requirements of this scenario?
A. Encryption
B. Digital signatures
C. Steganography
D. Hashing
E. Perfect forward secrecy
Correct Answer: B Explanation

The Chief Security Officer (CSO) is contacted by a first responder. The SY0-401 pdf CSO assigns a handler. Which of the following is occurring?
A. Unannounced audit response
B. Incident response process
C. Business continuity planning
D. Unified threat management
E. Disaster recovery process
Correct Answer: B Explanation

An organization must implement controls to protect the confidentiality of its most sensitive data. The company is currently using a central storage system and group based access control for its sensitive information. Which of the following controls can further secure the data in the central storage system?
A. Data encryption
B. Patching the system
C. Digital signatures
D. File hashing
Correct Answer: A Explanation

A network administrator, Joe, arrives at SY0-401 his new job to find that none of the users have changed their network passwords since they were initially hired. Joe wants to have everyone change their passwords immediately. Which of the following policies should be enforced to initiate a password change?
A. Password expiration
B. Password reuse
C. Password recovery
D. Password disablement
Correct Answer: A Explanation

Ann, a security administrator at a call center, has been experiencing problems with users intentionally installing unapproved and occasionally malicious software on their computers. Due to the SY0-401 dumps nature of their jobs, Ann cannot change their permissions. Which of the following would BEST alleviate her concerns?
A. Deploy a HIDS suite on the users’ computers to prevent application installation.
B. Maintain the baseline posture at the highest OS patch level.
C. Enable the pop-up blockers on the users’ browsers to prevent malware.
D. Create an approved application list and block anything not on it.
Correct Answer: D Explanation

Which of the SY0-401 following should be used to authenticate and log connections from wireless users connecting with EAP-TLS?
A. Kerberos
Correct Answer: D Explanation

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Download Free Cisco 200-125 Exam PDF Practice Questions And Answers

Download Free Cisco https://www.lead4pass.com/200-125.html  Exam PDF Practice Questions And Answers

A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?
A. application
B. presentation
C. session
D. transport
E. internet
F. data link
Correct Answer: A Explanation
FTP belongs to Application layer and it is also the highest layer of the OSI model.


A network interface port has collision detection and carrier 200-125 exam sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Modern Ethernet networks built with switches and full-duplex connections no longer utilize CSMA/CD. CSMA/CD is only used in obsolete shared media Ethernet (which uses repeater or hub).

A receiving host computes the 200-125 checksum on a frame and determines that the frame is damaged. The frame is then discarded. At which OSI layer did this happen?
A. session
B. transport
C. network
D. data link
E. physical
Correct Answer: D Explanation
The Data Link layer provides the physical transmission of the data and handles error notification, network topology, and flow control. The Data Link layer formats the message into pieces, each called a data frame, and adds a 200-125 vce customized header containing the hardware destination and source address. Protocols Data Unit (PDU) on Datalink layer is called frame. According to this question the frame is damaged and discarded which will happen at the Data Link layer.

Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data 200-125 encapsulation process? (Choose two.)
A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.
B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.
C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses and protocol-related control information.
D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.
E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.
Correct Answer: AC Explanation

The Application Layer (Layer 7) refers to communications services to applications and is the interface between the network and the application. Examples include. Telnet, HTTP, FTP, Internet browsers, NFS, SMTP gateways, SNMP, X.400 mail, and FTAM.
The Presentation 200-125 dumps Layer (Layer 6) defining data formats, such as ASCII text, EBCDIC text, binary, BCD, and JPEG. Encryption also is defined as a presentation layer service. Examples include. JPEG, ASCII, EBCDIC, TIFF, GIF, PICT, encryption, MPEG, and MIDI.
The Session Layer (Layer 5) defines how to start, control, and end communication sessions. This includes the control and management of multiple bidirectional messages so that the application can be notified if only some of a series of messages are completed. This allows the presentation layer to have a seamless view of an incoming stream of data. The presentation layer can be presented with data if all flows occur in some cases. Examples include. RPC, SQL, NFS, NetBios names, AppleTalk ASP, and DECnet SCP.

The Transport Layer (Layer 4) defines several functions, including the choice of protocols. The most important Layer 4 functions are error recovery and flow control. The 200-125 transport layer may provide for retransmission, i.e., error recovery, and may use flow control to prevent unnecessary congestion by attempting to send data at a rate that the network can accommodate, or it might not, depending on the choice of protocols. Multiplexing of incoming data for different flows to applications on the same host is also performed. Reordering of the incoming data stream when packets arrive out of order is included. Examples include. TCP, UDP, and SPX.

The Network Layer (Layer 3) defines end-to-end delivery of packets and defines logical addressing to accomplish this. It also defines how routing works and how routes are learned; and how to fragment a packet into smaller packets to 200-125 accommodate media with smaller maximum transmission unit sizes. Examples include. IP, IPX, AppleTalk DDP, and ICMP. Both IP and IPX define logical addressing, routing, the learning of routing information, and end-to-end delivery rules. The IP and IPX protocols most closely match the OSI network layer (Layer 3) and are called Layer 3 protocols because their functions most closely match OSI’s Layer 3.
The Data Link Layer (Layer 2) is concerned with getting data across one particular link or medium. The data link protocols define delivery across an individual link. These protocols 200-125 pdf are necessarily concerned with the type of media in use. Examples includE. IEEE 802.3/802.2, HDLC, Frame Relay, PPP, FDDI, ATM, and IEEE 802.5/802.2.

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2017 Latest LPi 117-101 Exam Test Practise Questions And Answers

It is a best choice to accelerate your career as a professional in the Information Technology industry. We are proud of our reputation of helping people clear the Lpi 117-101 exam Level 1 Exam 101(with rpm) LPIC-1 test in their very first attempts. Our success rates in the past two years have been absolutely impressive, thanks to our happy customers who are now able to propel their careers in the fast lane. Fly LPi 117-101 dumps is the number one choice among IT professionals, especially the ones who are looking to climb up the hierarchy levels faster in their respective organizations.

Lpi 117-101 is omnipresent all around the world, and the business and software solutions provided by them are being embraced by almost all the companies. They have 117-101 helped in driving thousands of companies on the sure-shot path of success. Comprehensive knowledge of Lpi 117-101 products is considered a very important qualification, and the professionals certified by them are highly valued in all organizations.


On a default Linux system, what file system type 117-101 vce does the dump command act upon?
A. Ext2
E. ReiserFS
Correct Answer: A Explanation

Your machine has two 117-101 working NIC’s with proper addresses. You want to split your network into two new subnets. What single command will accomplish this?
A. ifconfig
B. route
C. default
D. netstat
E. None of the choices
Correct Answer: A Explanation

Which file system should 117-101 pdf never be backed up, and therefore never have to be restored?
A. ufs
B. usr
C. tmp
D. home
E. swap
Correct Answer: E Explanation

Which directory tree is ordinarily the least likely to be backup or restore?
A. /tmp
B. /var
C. /proc
D. /usr
E. /usr
Correct Answer: C Explanation

What command will verify the 117-101 syntax of a hosts.allow and hosts.deny file combination?
A. tcpdchk
B. verify –tcp
C. ipswitch
D. tcpdump
E. tcpdmatch
Correct Answer: A Explanation

How can you enable onscreen (non-printing) numbers in a vi session?
A. :set num
B. :se nu
C. :set -o number
D. :set +o num
E. None of the choices
Correct Answer: B Explanation

Kevin Durant had 26 points, nine rebounds and seven assists, and Golden State turned an ugly start into an easy finish in a 117-101 victory over the Brooklyn Nets on Thursday night. Each objective is assigned a weighting value. The weights indicate the relative importance of each objective on the exam. Objectives 117-101 with higher weights will be covered in the exam with more questions.

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