[2018 New Version] Cisco Proctored Exams for Validating Knowledge 700-501 Dumps Exam Practice Files Youtube Free Try (Q1-Q30)

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: Proctored Exams for Validating Knowledge
Exam Name: SMB Specialization for Engineers
Exam Code: 700-501
Total Questions: 50 Q&As
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Cisco Proctored Exams for Validating Knowledge 700-501 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
When you design a customer network that is composed only of a pure Layer 2 switch and a router, which feature should you enable to support communication among VLANs?
A. VLANs cannot communicate when only a router and a Layer 2 switch are used in the design.
B. Spanning Tree on the Layer 2 switch
C. Static routes on the Layer 2 switch
D. Trunking between the Layer 2 switch and the router
E. Uplink port aggregation on the router
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which statement about Cisco CleanAir technology is true?
A. It features chiplevel proactive and automatic interference mitigation.
B. It features chiplevel proactive and automatic electronic beam forming.
C. It features automatic advanced radio frequency shaping.
D. It is a feature of the Cisco Aironet 1600 Series AP.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which three options can be connected directly to a Cisco Nexus switch? (Choose three.)
A. Token ring network
B. Storage area network
C. Server cluster
D. Local area network
E. 4G network
F. Wide area network
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 4
Which two product portfolios help make up the FlexPod Express solution? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5000
B. Cisco ISR 1900, 2900, and 3900 Series
C. Cisco UCS ESeries Servers
D. Cisco Nexus 3048 Switch
E. Cisco ISR 2900 and 3900 Series
F. Cisco UCS CSeries Server
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 5
Which three options are pillars of the Cisco Security Intelligence Operations? (Choose three.)
A. Dynamic updates
B. OpenBTS Database
C. Cloud base
D. Threat Operations Center
E. Sensor base
F. Manual updates
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 6
Which Cisco web tool should partners consult who want presales advice on planning and deploying Cisco Unified Computing deployments?
A. Cisco Plan Design Manage Help Desk
B. Cisco Customer Success Stories
C. Cisco TAC
D. Cisco Validated Designs
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which three components are in Cisco ExpressPod? 700-501 dumps (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Application Server Engine
B. Cisco UCS CSeries Servers
C. EMC Storage
D. HP Servers
E. NetApp Storage
F. Cisco Nexus Switches
G. Fujitsu Storage
Correct Answer: BEF

QUESTION 8
Which option is a competitive advantage of Cisco security solutions?
A. Lowest priced offering
B. Stateful firewall capability
C. SpeedNet services
D. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which three options are business benefits of increased reliability? (Choose three)
A. Protects revenue streams
B. Enhances career paths
C. Promotes independence
D. Increases business resilience
E. Reduces maintenance and network operation costs
F. Validates business decisions
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 10
Your customer is considering migrating to a Cisco Borderless Routing solution from their current vendor.
Which best practice can close the sale?
A. Demonstrate how the Cisco solution saves money by consolidating devices and integrating management.
B. Mention that promotions and incentives are available through Cisco
C. Go through a check list and compare the performance capabilities between Cisco and the other vendor.
D. Show the customer a Cisco television commercial.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which Cisco tool provides scripted, repeatable presentations, and customized pilots in real time with real equipment?
A. FindIt
B. Cisco Commerce Workspace
C. Cisco Partner Education Connection
D. Cisco dCloud
E. Cisco Network Discovery
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which two Cisco ISR series are needed to support a Cisco ServicesReady Engine to deploy services on demand? (Choose two.)
A. 2900 Series
B. 2800 Series
C. 3900 Series
D. 800 Series
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 13
Which two benefits will customers achieve if they upgrade to a properly configured Cisco Borderless Network? (Choose two.)
A. New application and service deployment is completely automated.
B. Network availability increases and downtime decreases
C. Security becomes less difficult to achieve.
D. All potential failures will be eliminated.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 14
Which three options are customer benefits of implementing a Cisco Borderless switching solution? (Choose three.)
A. Spanning Tree
B. Smart Install
C. Auto SmartPorts
D. Smart CallHome
E. Solarpowered
F. Uninterruptable power
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 15
Which three options are competitive advantages of Cisco wireless solutions? (Choose three.)
A. Improved WLAN reliability is provided
B. Integrated security with wireless threat detection and mitigation is provided.
C. Access points support only the centralized deployment model.
D. Simplified and intuitive WLAN management and troubleshooting are provided.
E. Access points support only the distributed deployment model
F. Management and administration via Cisco SIO make deployment easy.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 16
Which three options are opportunities for partners to introduce Cisco Meraki products to existing or prospective customers? (Choose three.)
A. Free Cisco Meraki refurbished equipment
B. Cisco Meraki roadshow
C. Cisco Meraki equipment rental program
D. Webinars with a free AP for qualified attendees
E. Free mobile device management with Systems Manager
F. Free product trials
Correct Answer: DEF

QUESTION 17
Which wireless access point series supports Cisco ClientLink 2.0 and Cisco CleanAir, but does not support clustering? 700-501 dumps
A. 300 Series
B. 1600 Series
C. 700 Series
D. 2600 Series
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which design practice is the best to reduce wireless CCI?
A. Place adjacent access points on different channels.
B. Place adjacent access points on the same channel.
C. Eliminate all signal overlap between access points.
D. Configure access points with the lowest supported data rate.
E. Place adjacent access points on nonoverlapping channels.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 19
Which two characteristics describe a successful mobility installation? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Telepresence EX90 JS.
B. Growasyougo deployment.
C. Access to information by any user, from any location, from any device.
D. SMARTnet on every device.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 20
Which three decision makers should you focus on when proposing Cisco architectural solutions? (Choose three.)
A. Individual contributors
B. Operations managers
C. Purchasing officers
D. Technical decision makers
E. Business decision makers
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 21
Which three competitive advantages does the Cisco Unified Computing System provide? (Choose three.)
A. Ease of planning via the CSIM capacity modeling tool.
B. Supports only rack server models to reduce cost.
C. Greater virtual desktop density without performance impact.
D. Supports only blade server models to reduce system complexity.
E. Lower cost for compute plus network infrastructure.
F. Simple operation; start in minutes, scale in seconds.
Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 22
Which two customer characteristics indicate an opportunity for Cisco Meraki cloudmanaged networks? (Choose two.)
A. Moving applications to the cloud.
B. Having distributed sites and a lean IT staff.
C. Requiring a high degree of flexibility and customization.
D. Having networking experts on site.
E. Implementing data center or large campus deployments.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 23
Which two benefits are delivered by Cisco Telepresence? (Choose two.)
A. Collaboration Experience is integrated.
B. Large files can be delivered between locations.
C. User experiences are unified.
D. Any endpoint can be used.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 24
Which option describes server virtualization?
A. Consolidation of multiple server workloads onto a smaller number of more powerful servers.
B. The aggregation of server workloads onto a smaller number of servers by running multiple server operating systems directly on the shared hardware.
C. Reduction of onpremises server requirements through the elimination of low utilization servers and the transition to a SaaS solution.
D. Consolidation of multiple server interface cards into a single network card that supports a large number of virtual interfaces.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
When LAN connectivity is designed which option increases high availability and minimizes network administration?
A. integrated switch in WAN router
B. stacked switch design
C. multiple switch design
D. single external switch design
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Which three switching technology components distinguish Cisco from competing products? 700-501 dumps (Choose three.)
A. Gigabit Ethernet
B. Flexible NetFlow
C. Medianet
D. Universal PoE
E. RSTP 802.1w
F. Multiprotocol Label Switching
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 27
Which best practice should be used to calculate PoE requirements for Cisco collaboration endpoints?
A. Attach all endpoints first and then use a power reporting tool to document the power requirements.
B. Assume that all ports with PoE endpoints attached will require 7 watts.
C. Assume that all ports will require 15.4 watts regardless of attached endpoints.
D. Select the endpoint device that requires the most power and assume that all endpoint devices will require the same amount.
E. Determine the power requirements of each of your endpoints and plan to support that amount.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which option is a function of the Cisco MultiGigabit Fabric in a Cisco ISR router?
A. Provides connectivity between Cisco EHWIC, PVDM3, SM, and ISM modules through the Backplane.
B. Provides connectivity only to the Cisco EHWIC modules.
C. Provides connectivity to the Cisco Nexus fabric switch through the uplink.
D. Provides connectivity to legacy interface modules.
E. Provides connectivity to the Cisco Enhanced EtherSwitch Service Module uplink ports.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Which three customer challenges do Cisco architectures help to solve? (Choose three.)
A. Increase ROI
B. Reduce independence
C. Provide creative solutions
D. Lower costs
E. Boost productivity
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 30
Which two options are benefits of the Cisco ASA 5500X Series over the Cisco ASA 5500 Series? (Choose two.)
A. Firewall throughput up to 12 Gb/s is provided.
B. The Cisco Content Security does not require an additional hardware module.
C. Cisco IPS throughput up to 650 Mb/s is provided
D. The Cisco IPS does not require an additional hardware module.
Correct Answer: BD

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[2018 New Version] 100% Pass Latest Cisco CCNP Service Provider 642-883 Dumps Exam Questions Update Youtube Demo (Q1-Q30)

The best useful Cisco CCNP Service Provider 642-883 dumps exam questions and answers free download from lead4pass. Newest helpful Cisco CCNP Service Provider 642-883 dumps pdf materials and vce youtube demo update free shared. “Deploying Cisco Service Provider Network Routing (SPROUTE)” is the name of Cisco CCNP Service Provider https://www.lead4pass.com/642-883.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. High quality Cisco CCNP Service Provider 642-883 dumps pdf training resources and study guides download free try, pass Cisco 642-883 exam test easily at the first time.

Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP Service Provider
Exam Name: Deploying Cisco Service Provider Network Routing (SPROUTE)
Exam Code: 642-883
Total Questions: 174 Q&As
642-883 dumps
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Cisco CCNP Service Provider 642-883 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
In comparing IS-IS with OSPF, a Level-1-2 IS-IS router is similar to which kind of OSPF router?
A. ASBR on a normal OSPF area
B. ASBR on NSSA
C. ABR on totally stubby OSPF area
D. ABR on stubby OSPF area
E. ABR on a normal OSPF area
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Refer to the topology diagram in the exhibit.
642-883 dumps
Which IS-IS feature could be implemented so that the return path for the packets from router Y in area 49.00AA to router X in area 49.00BB will use the more optimal path?
A. Enable route leaking to pass Level 2 information into the Level 1 routers.
B. Change the area 49.00AA type from a stub area to a regular area.
C. Change the IS-IS administrative distance on router Y in area 49.00AA.
D. Change the IS-IS metric type from narrow to wide on all IS-IS routers.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
642-883 dumps
Which two configuration options can be used to optimize the IS-IS network scenario? (Choose two.)
A. Change the R1 and R2 IS type to Level 2.
B. Change the R1 and R2 IS type to Level 1.
C. Change the gi0/0 interface IS-IS circuit type on R1 and R2 to Level 2 only.
D. Change the gi0/1 interface IS-IS circuit type on R1and R2 to Level 1.
E. Change the IS type for all the routers to Level-1-2.
F. Change the IS-IS network type for all the routers to point-to-point.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
The Cisco IOS XE Software summary-address router IS-IS configuration command can be used to send a summarized route into which IS-IS hierarchy?
A. Level 1 only
B. Level 2 only
C. Level-1-2 only
D. Level 1 or Level 2 or Level-1-2
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Refer to the Cisco IOS XE IS-IS configuration exhibit.
642-883 dumps
What are two problems with the configuration that are causing the IPv4, or the IPv6, or the IPv4 and IPv6 IS-IS operations to fail? (Choose two.)
A. The configuration is missing the interface gi0/0 and interface gi0/0 commands under router isis 1.
B. The configuration is missing the address-family ipv4 unicast and address-family ipv6 unicast commands under router isis 1.
C. IPv6 unicast routing has not been enabled globally on the Cisco IOS XE router.
D. The gi0/0 and gi0/1 interfaces are not participating in the router isis 1 routing instance.
E. Multitopology IS-IS must be enabled to support both IPv4 and IPv6.
F. Another router isis instance must be enabled to support IPv6.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 6
In which network environment is IS-IS adjacency check important?
A. in a multitopology environment where there are different instances of IS-IS running on the same router
B. in an IPv4/IPv6 environment and running single-topology IS-IS
C. when a level L1/L2 IS-IS router is neighboring with a Level 1 only or Level 2 only router
D. when IS-IS neighbors are in an NBMA environment like over Frame Relay
E. when IS-IS neighbors are in a broadcast environment like an Ethernet LAN
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Refer to the IS-IS configuration exhibit.
642-883 dumps
This is the typical IS-IS configuration of the routers in an AS using IS-IS as the IGP. This AS is in the transition phase of integrating IPv6 into the network. 642-883 dumps During this transition phase, some of the routers within the AS might be running IPv4 only, some might be running IPv6 only, and others might be running both IPv4 and IPv6. To avoid any black holes for the IPv6 traffic, which configuration change can be made?
A. Disable IS-IS adjacency checks.
B. Enable IPv6 adjacency over IPv4 IS-IS peering.
C. Enable multi-topology IS-IS.
D. Disable the IPv4 unicast address-family.
E. Enable IS-IS wide metric to support the single-topology mode.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
When implementing OSPF, which type of networks require DR/BDR election?
A. point-to-point networks
B. mutli-access broadcast networks
C. non-broadcast multi-access networks (Hub and Spoke Frame Relay) using point-to-multipoint OSPF network type
D. All networks type
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
The S bit in the MPLS header is used for what purpose?
A. To indicate the bottom level in the label stack
B. To indicate if LDP is sync to the IGP
C. To indicate if LDP is sync to the IGP
D. To indicate the status of the LSP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What are two purposes of the BGP scan-time command? (Choose two.)
A. to tune the BGP process which walks the BGP table and confirms the reachability of next hops
B. to allow faster detection of downed BGP peers
C. to improve BGP convergence time
D. to tune the BGP update interval
E. to decrease the effects of unstable routes by increasing the route suppression time
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 11
When using the show bgp ipv6 unicast summary command to verify the IPv6 BGP session status with the IPv6 BGP peers, you noticed the “St/PfxRcd” status for one of the IPv6 BGP peers is in the “Active” state. What does the “Active” state indicate?
A. The IPv6 BGP session has been established with the IPv6 BGP peer.
B. The router is in the process of sending BGP routing updates to the IPv6 BGP peer.
C. The router is in the process of establishing the IPv6 BGP session with the IPv6 BGP peer.
D. The router is exchanging BGP notification messages with its IPv6 BGP peer.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which three BGP configuration groupings are supported on Cisco IOS XR Software? (Choose three.)
A. peer-group
B. af-group
C. bgp-group
D. session-group
E. neighbor-group
F. as-group
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 13
Which AS path access list is used by a multihomed customer to only announce their own address space to their service providers to prevent the multihomed customer from becoming a transit AS?
A. ip as-path access-list permit.*
B. ip as-path access-list permit^$
C. ip as-path access-list permit _$
D. ip as-path access-list permit _^
E. ip as-path access-list permit local-asip as-path access-list deny *
F. ip as-path access-list deny.*ip as-path access-list permit *
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
What is recursive lookup in BGP and how does it work?
A. The router looks up the EBGP route and the EBGP next hop to reach a destination in the remote AS.
Then the router looks up the route to reach the EBGP next hop using the IBGP.
B. The router looks up the IBGP route and the IBGP next hop to reach a destination in the remote AS.
Then the router looks up the route to reach the IBGP next hop using the EBGP.
C. The router looks up the BGP route and the BGP next hop to reach a destination in the remote AS.
Then the router looks up the route to reach the BGP next hop using the IGP.
D. The router looks up the route and the next hop to reach a destination in the remote AS using the IGP. Then the router looks up the route to reach the next hop using BGP.
E. The router perform three routing lookups to determine the route to reach a destination in the remote AS. The first lookup is done using EBGP, the second lookup is done using IBGP, and the third lookup is done using the IGP.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which reserved AS number or range of numbers is used for backward compatibility between old BGP peers using 16-bit AS number and new BGP peers using 32-bit AS number?
A. AS 65001 to 65535
B. AS 65512 to 65535
C. AS 12345
D. AS 23456
E. AS 64001
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Which BGP attribute is a set of generic tags that can be used to signal various routing policies between BGP routers?
A. AS path
B. MED
C. weight
D. communities
E. route tags
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which of the following is a characteristic of dual-multihomed connectivity between an enterprise network and the service provider network or networks? 642-883 dumps
A. An enterprise network that is connected to two or more different service providers with two or more links per service provider and using BGP to exchange routing updates with the service providers.
B. Each service provider announces a default route on each of the links that connect to the customer with a different metric.
C. An enterprise network announces a default route to each service provider.
D. Load balancing can be achieved using the maximum-paths command.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
What are two ways to advertise networks into BGP? (Choose two.)
A. using the neighbor router BGP command
B. using a route policy in Cisco IOS XR Software or using a route map in Cisco IOS Software or Cisco IOS XE Software
C. using route redistribution into BGP
D. using the network router BGP command
E. enabling an interface to run BGP using the interface router BGP command
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 19
Refer to the network diagram in the exhibit.
642-883 dumps
Assuming the IBGP session within AS 64500 was established using the loopback 0 interface between the two routers, by default, what will be the next hop of the routes from AS 64501 when the routes appear on the router running IBGP only in AS 64500?
A. 192.168.101.11
B. 192.168.101.10
C. 10.1.1.1
D. 10.0.1.1
E. 10.1.10.1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
When configuring BGP on Cisco IOS XR Software, which address-family is enabled by default?
A. IPv4 unicast
B. IPv6 unicast
C. VPNv4
D. IPv4 unicast and IPv6 unicast
E. IPv4 unicast and IPv6 unicast and VPNv4
F. No address-family is enabled by default.
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 21
An engineer is using configuration blocks to build policy-based routing. All other traffic must not be affected and the policy must be applied to GigabitEthernet1/0. Which block correctly implements traffic that is destined for 10.10.10.0/24 using a next hop of 192.168.55.1?
A. access-list 110 permit ip any 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.255 route-map PBR permit 10
match ip address 110
set next-hop 192.168.55.1
interface GigabitEthernet1/0
ip policy route-map PBR
B. access-list 110 permit ip any 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.255 route-map PBR permit 10
match ip address 110
set next-hop 192.168.55.1
route-map PBR permit 20
interface GigabitEthernet1/0
ip policy route-map PBR
C. access-list 110 permit ip any 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.0 route-map PBR permit 10
match ip address 110
set next-hop 192.168.55.1
interface GigabitEthernet1/0
ip policy route-map PBR
D. access-list 110 permit ip any 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.0 route-map PBR permit 10
match ip address 110
set next-hop 192.168.55.1
route-map PBR permit 20
interface GigabitEthernet1/0
ip policy route-map PBR
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
An engineer is working on routers within AS 100. Which regular expression can be used in an AS path access list to match locally originated routes from AS 100?
A. ^100$
B. ^$
C. _100$
D. ^[0-9]*$
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Which option is a mechanism that can be implemented between two eBGP peers to communicate the routes each peer needs from the other?
A. ORF
B. ACL
C. prefix list
D. route map
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
A Cisco IOS XR router is a member in OSPF 1 and EIGRP 100 domains, and needs to redistribute OSPF learned routes into EIGRP. Which configuration achieves this goal?
A. router eigrp 100
address-family ipv4
redistribute ospf 1
B. router eigrp 100
redistribute ospf 1 route-policy OS_INTO_EIG
route-policy OS_INTO_EIG set eigrp-metric 100 10 255 1 155
C. router eigrp 100
address-family ipv4
redistribute ospf 1 route-policy OS_INTO_EIG
route-policy OS_INTO_EIG set eigrp-metric 100 10 255 1 155
D. router eigrp 100
default-metric 100 1 255 1 1500
redistribute ospf 1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
Which value must be configured when redistributing OSPFv2 into RIP?
A. metric
B. bandwidth
C. delay
D. MTU
E. reliability
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which option can a network specialist use to configure connected route redistribution inside VRF “TEST” on Cisco IOS XR and allow only the prefix 10.10.10.0/24?
A. route-policy ALLOW-CONN
if destination in PERMIT_PREFIX then
pass
else
drop
end-policy
prefix-set PERMIT_PREFIX
10.10.10.0/24
end-set
router bgp 65000
vrf TEST
rd 65000:10000
address-family ipv4 unicast
redistribute connected route-policy ALLOW-CONN
B. route-policy ALLOW-CONN
if source in PERMIT_PREFIX then
pass
else
drop
end-policy
prefix-set PERMIT_PREFIX
10.10.10.0/24
end-set
router bgp 65000
vrf TEST
rd 65000:10000
address-family ipv4 unicast
redistribute connected route-policy ALLOW-CONN
C. route-policy ALLOW-CONN
if protocol is connected and source in PERMIT_PREFIX then pass
else
drop
end-policy
prefix-set PERMIT_PREFIX
10.10.10.0/24
end-set
router bgp 65000
vrf TEST
rd 65000:10000
address-family ipv4 unicast
redistribute connected route-policy ALLOW-CONN”
D. route-policy ALLOW-CONN
if route-type is local and destination in PERMIT_PREFIX then pass
else
drop
end-policy
prefix-set PERMIT_PREFIX
10.10.10.0/24
end-set
router bgp 65000
vrf TEST
rd 65000:10000
address-family ipv4 unicast
redistribute connected route-policy ALLOW-CONN
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
A static default route has been inserted into the configuration of a Cisco IOS XE router. Which option redistributes the route into the local OSPF process?
A. router ospf 1
redistribute static subnets
B. router ospf 1
redistribute static
C. router ospf 1
redistribute static subnets
default-information originate always
D. router ospf 1
network 0.0.0.0 area 0
redistribute static subnets
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit.
642-883 dumps
Routers B and C in transit AS 200 are the exit points toward AS 100 and AS 300. Router B is running Cisco IOS XR and Router C IOS XE. Internally, AS 200 runs OPSF only for internal routing. 642-883 dumps Which two methods can an engineer use to ensure proper reachability between AS 100 and AS 300 for the needed routes? (Choose two.)
A. Router B:
router ospf 200
redistribute bgp 200 tag 20
router bgp 200
address-family ipv4 unicast
redistribute ospf 200 metric-type 2
B. Router B:
router ospf 200
redistribute bgp 200
router bgp 200
address-family ipv4 unicast
redistribute ospf 200
C. Router C:
router ospf 200
redistribute bgp 200 metric-type 1 subnets tag 200 router bgp 200
address-family ipv4
redistribute ospf 200
D. Router C:
router ospf 200
redistribute bgp 200 metric-type 1 subnets tag 200 router bgp 200
address-family ipv4
redistribute ospf 200 match external 2
E. Router C:
router ospf 200
redistribute bgp 200 metric-type 1 subnets tag 200 router bgp 200
address-family ipv4
redistribute ospf 200 route-map match-tag match external route-map match-tag deny 10 match tag 200
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 29
Which two methods implement high availability in OSPF on Cisco IOS XR? (Choose two.)
A. NSF
B. NSR
C. BFD
D. fast hellos
E. sham-links
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 30
Nonstop Forwarding works with the Stateful Switchover feature in Cisco IOS and IOS XR software. Which three restrictions for OSPF are true? (Choose three.)
A. OSPF NSF for virtual links is not supported.
B. OSPF NSF for virtual links is supported.
C. OSPF NSF for sham links is not supported.
D. OSPF NSF for sham links is supported.
E. OSPF NSF supports NSF/SSO for IPv6 traffic only.
F. OSPF NSF supports NSF/SSO for IPv4 traffic only.
Correct Answer: ACF

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP Wireless
Exam Name: Implementing Advanced Cisco Unified Wireless Security (IAUWS) v2.0
Exam Code: 642-737
Total Questions: 207 Q&As
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Cisco CCNP Wireless 642-737 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
A lobby ambassador is creating guest access accounts. At which two locations can the accounts be stored? (Choose two.)
A. NAC guest server
B. Active directory
C. WLAN controller
D. WCS
E. ACS
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
An engineer is configuring a Cisco AnyConnect client. What module is selected to allow for reporting and diagnostics?
A. NAM
B. Posture
C. Telemetry
D. VPN
E. DART
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 3
MFP is enabled globally on a WLAN with default settings on a single controller wireless network. Older client devices are disconnected from the network during a deauthentication attack. What is the cause of this issue?
A. The client devices do not support CCXv5.
B. The client devices do not support WPA.
C. The NTP server is not configured on the controller.
D. The MFP on the WLAN is set to optional.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What does the eping mobility_peer_IP_address command do?
A. It tests EoIP connectivity via port 97 though the management interface.
B. It tests EoIP connectivity via port 97 though the AP manager interface.
C. It tests UDP connectivity via port 16666 through the management interface.
D. It tests UDP connectivity via port 16666 through the AP manager interface.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
When a supplicant and AAA server are configured to use PEAP, which mechanism is used by the client to authenticate the AAA server in Phase One?
A. PMK
B. shared secret keys
C. digital certificate
D. PAC
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
An engineer needs to block SSH traffic going to the WLC, which does not originate on the management interface. Where should the ACL be applied to accomplish this with the least configuration?
A. CPU
B. Management interface
C. WLAN interfaces
D. SSID
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
An engineer is troubleshooting a FlexConnect authentication to a local RADIUS server. 642-737 dumps What debug command can discover the issue on the controller?
A. debug lwapp reap
B. debug dot11 mgmtmsg
C. debug hreapaaa
D. debug lwapp reap mgmt
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
An engineer is configuring NAC on a Wireless LAN Controller. What two CLI commands are required to create NAC out-of-band integration for SSID Cisco? (Choose two.)
A. config interface quarantine vlan Cisco 10
B. config interface quarantine vlan Cisco 0
C. config wlan nac enable Cisco
D. config guest-lan nac enable Cisco
E. config wlan apgroup nac wlan Cisco
F. config wlan apgroup nac guest-lan Cisco
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
The Cisco WLC v7.0 is configured for external 802.1X and EAP by using the WPA2 association of wireless clients when using the Cisco Secure ACS v4.2. Which two items are required in the Cisco Secure ACS network configuration to enable correct AAA? (Choose two.)
A. AP IP address
B. WLC virtual IP address
C. WLC management IP address
D. WLC AP management IP address
E. hostname matching the WLC case-sensitive name
F. authentication using RADIUS
G. authentication using TACACS+
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 10
An engineer has narrowed down an authentication issue to the client laptop. What three items should be verified for EAP-TLS authentication? (Choose three.)
A. The user account is the same in the certificate.
B. The Subject Key Identifier is configured correctly.
C. The client certificate is formatted as X.509 version 3.
D. Validate server certificate is disabled.
E. The supplicant is configured correctly.
F. The client certificate has a valid expiration date.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 11
An engineer is going to enable EAP on a new WLAN and is ensuring he has the necessary components. What component uses EAP and 802.1x to pass user authentication to the authenticator?
A. AP
B. Controller
C. Supplicant
D. AAA Server
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.
642-737 dumps
Why is the client failing to authenticate with the AAA server?
A. excessive number of authentication attempts for username
B. incorrect read/write credentials for username
C. incorrect IP address being sent by client
D. incorrect authentication for username
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
A Cisco WLC v7.0 has been only initially configured through the console setup CLI wizard. A new AP has just finished association with the controller. What is the default mode of remote access to the AP?
A. HTTPS
B. HTTP
C. SSH
D. Telnet
E. access is disabled
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 14
Which two firewall protocol port(s) need open access for secure management access to an anchor WLC for guest access? (Choose two.)
A. TCP 22
B. TCP 23
C. TCP 80
D. TCP 8080
E. TCP 443
F. UDP 123
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 15
Which option verifies that a wireless client has authenticated to a WLAN when performing NAC using the Cisco NAC Appliance Manager and Server?
A. Cisco CAM OOB Management > Devices > Discovered Clients
B. Cisco CAS OOB Management > Devices > Discovered Clients
C. Cisco CAM Monitor > View Online Users
D. Cisco CAS Monitor > View Online Users
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which two fast roaming algorithms will allow a WLAN client to roam to a new AP and re- establish a new session key without a full reauthentication of the WLAN client? (Choose two.)
A. PMK
B. PTK
C. MIC
D. GTK
E. CKM
F. PKC
Correct Answer: EF

QUESTION 17
Customer wants to configure Wireless client authentication using digtial certificates with PKI. What happens after the signer encrypts the hash with the private key of the signer during the certification signature process?
A. The verifier obtains the public key of the signer.
B. The encrypted hash is appended to the document as the signature.
C. The verifier decrypts the signature of the signer using the public key.
D. The verifier makes a hash of the received document and compares it to the decrypted signature hash.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
What is the default authentication protocol that is used for web authentication?
A. MD5-CHAP
B. CHAP
C. PAP
D. LEAP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which option verifies that a wireless client has associated but is not yet authenticated to a WLAN when performing NAC using the Cisco NAC Appliance Manager and Server?
A. Cisco CAM OOB Management > Devices > Discovered Clients
B. Cisco CAS OOB Management > Devices > Discovered Clients
C. Cisco CAM Monitor > View Online Users
D. Cisco CAS Monitor > View Online Users
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Configuring the Cisco Secure ACS with a self-signed certificate supports which requirement?
A. when no user certificate is required
B. when a CA-signed certificate is required for the user
C. when a self-signed certificate Class 4 is required for the user
D. when a self-signed certificate Class 0 is required for the user
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Which type of attack is characterized by an evil twin?
A. DoS
B. man in the middle
C. jamming
D. eavesdropping
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Employees adjust their wireless laptop for work at the office and when away from the office. What are the two most likely security issues for an employee laptop when connected at the corporate WLAN? 642-737 dumps (Choose two.)
A. loading a freeware customer contact application
B. configuring a static IP address
C. updating the driver
D. adding a coffee shop wireless HotSpot
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 23
Which protocol port(s) need open access when deploying NAC appliances to communicate with the Cisco WLC v7.0 to move an authenticated user from the quarantine VLAN to the access VLAN?
A. UDP 16666
B. UDP 514
C. UDP 5246 and 5247
D. UDP 161 and 162
E. TCP 443
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which two considerations must a network engineer have when planning for voice over wireless roaming? (Choose two.)
A. Roaming with only 802.1x authentication requires full reauthentication.
B. Full reauthentication introduces gaps in a voice conversation.
C. Roaming occurs when e phone has seen at least four APs.
D. Roaming occurs when the phone has reached -80 dBs or below.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 25
An engineer would like to use an EAP supplicant that uses PKI to authenticate the WLAN network and client, as well as a client certificate. What EAP method can be used?
A. PEAPv1
B. PEAPv0
C. EAP-FAST
D. EAP-TLS
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
642-737 dumps
A client reports being unable to log into the wireless network, which uses PEAPv2. Which two issues appear in the output? (Choose two.)
A. There is a problem with the client supplicant.
B. The AP has the incorrect RADIUS server address.
C. The AP has lost IP connectivity to the authentication server.
D. The EAP client timeout value should be increased.
E. The authentication server is misconfigured on the controller.
F. The authentication server is misconfigured in the WLAN.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 27
Which option correctly lists the EAP protocol(s) that can be configured on an autonomous AP for local authentication?
A. MAC
B. LEAP and EAP-FAST
C. MAC, LEAP, and EAP-FAST
D. MAC, EAP-FAST, EAP-PEAP, and EAP-TLS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which three actions can be configured for EAP authentication on a Cisco 1200 Series AP? (Choose three.)
A. Specify the shared secret and ports.
B. Set the EAP Authentication type Priority 1 field to the server IP address under Default Server Priorities.
C. Set the EAP Authentication type Priority 5 field to the server IP address under Default Server Priorities.
D. Enter the IP address of the authentication server in the Server field.
E. Enter the IP address of the management IP address of the Cisco WLC.
F. Specify EAP account on server and ports.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 29
When using the Microsoft WLAN AutoConfig feature, which 802.1X authentication method is not supported natively by Windows 7?
A. EAP-TLS
B. EAP-FAST
C. PEAP with MS-CHAPv2
D. PEAP with GTC
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
Which device provides IDS and IPS protection in a Cisco Unified Wireless Network against wireless clients with viruses and worms?
A. Cisco NAC Guest Server
B. Cisco Secure Access Control System
C. Cisco WLC
D. Cisco WCS
E. Cisco NAC Appliance Manager
F. Cisco NAC Appliance Server
G. Cisco IPS Appliance
Correct Answer: G

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP Wireless
Exam Name: Conducting Cisco Unified Wireless Site Survey (CUWSS) v2.0
Exam Code: 642-732
Total Questions: 193 Q&As
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Cisco CCNP Wireless 642-732 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
What are the most appropriate channels for an 802.11a/n VoWLAN survey and deployment in the FCC domain?
A. 4 channels of UNII-1
B. 8 channels of UNII-1, and UNII-2
C. 8 channels of UNII-1, and UNII-3
D. 15 channels of UNII-2, and UNII-2 extended
E. 23 channels of UNII-1, UNII-2, UNII-2 extended, and UNII-3
F. 24 channels of UNII-1, UNII-2, UNII-2 extended, UNII-3, and ISM
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You have a multinational customer that would like you to perform a wireless site survey for a new manufacturing facility in Singapore. They have had a local vendor install a point-to- point wireless bridge link between two buildings 1 km apart.
The ground between the buildings is flat but because facilities are in the mountains, dense fog is an issue. There are no line of sight issues between the buildings. The link is experiencing errors and throughput issues. Currently the two radios are set to operate at 2.4 GHz and the transmit power is set to 7 dBm with 7 dBm antennas. What do you need to take into consideration when performing the site survey for this link?
A. Change the radio power to 17 dBm.
B. Change the radio power to 20 dBm and replace with a 16 dBm antenna.
C. Change the radio power to 29 dBm.
D. Change the radio power to 13 dBm.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which hop count is Cisco’s maximum recommended for a client in a wireless Mesh network?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which two statements best describe the Fresnel zone related to an outdoor RF point-to- point link? (Choose two.)
A. blocks no more than 20 percent
B. blocks no more than 40 percent
C. blocks no more than 60 percent
D. comprises a single zone to keep clear
E. comprises multiple zones of which the first inside zone is the most important to keep clear
F. comprises multiple zones of which the outside zone is the most important to keep clear
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 5
Given an AP that can transmit at 100 mW and the client at 40 mW, which power setting should be used for a site survey?
A. 10 mW
B. 20 mW
C. 40 mW
D. 60 mW
E. 80 mW
F. 100 mW
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
When ordering the software licenses for a Cisco WLAN project, what are the minimum software packages required if the location requires 390 lightweight APs, 100 of which will be used for location services, and a Cisco 3310 MSE?
A. One 500 AP single server license package for the WCS and one 3000 device license for the MSE.
B. One 1000 AP single server license package for the WCS and one 500 device license for the MSE.
C. One 1000 AP single server license package for the WCS and one 3000 device license for the MSE.
D. One 500 AP single server license package for the WCS and one 1000 device license for the MSE.
E. One 1000 AP single server license package for the WCS and one 2000 device license for the MSE.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which two statements best describe the Fresnel zone related to an outdoor RF point-to- point link? (Choose two.)
A. single elliptical area surrounding an RF line of sight
B. multiple elliptical areas surrounding an RF line of sight
C. extends vertically
D. extends horizontally
E. extends three-dimensionally
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 8
An engineer is conducting a site calibration using Cisco WCS. The current network has 802.11a, 802.11b, 802.11g, and 802.11n devices. How many times should the calibration be done?
A. once for each band
B. once for each protocol
C. once per deployment
D. once using each data collection type
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
An engineer is performing a data collection to validate wireless coverage. At what two locations should a linear point collection be performed? 642-732 dumps (Choose two.)
A. office cubicles
B. private offices
C. auditorium
D. warehouse
E. conference rooms
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 10
What three pieces of information should be included in an installation report? (Choose three.)
A. software versions of each AP
B. configuration files for each WLC
C. switch connection for each MAP
D. license file for each RAP
E. radio status for each AP
F. mobility group name for each WLC
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 11
A company has requested an indoor wireless survey in a multi-tenant building for 2.4GHz data and 5GHz voice services. Data clients will require three spatial streams and 4×4 MIMO technology. What is the Cisco recommended Access Point for performing this survey?
A. 600
B. 1600
C. 2600
D. 3600
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. During a post Mesh deployment survey, an engineer notices frame collisions occurring when MAP-1 and MAP-3 talk to RAP-2. Which type of issue is the engineer observing?
642-732 dumps
A. hidden node
B. exposed node
C. co-channel interference
D. CSMA-CA
E. backhaul latency
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You have a customer that is renovating a historic building for a new headquarters. The building was once an old manufacturing plant. It is constructed of brick with heavy timber beams. What type of RF issues do you expect to see while performing the site survey?
A. The RF signal will be reflected by the brick walls.
B. The RF signal will be absorbed by the brick walls and wooden beams and floors.
C. The RF signal will be diffused by the brick walls and wooden beams and floors.
D. The brick walls and wooden beams and floors will cause the RF signal to be diffracted.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
An engineer notes that some areas of a floor fail when using the Location Readiness Tool in Cisco WCS. What criteria must be met for a point to be considered location ready?
A. one AP in each quadrant, with three less than 70 feet away
B. one AP in three quadrants, with two less than 70 feet away
C. one AP in each quadrant, with two less than 70 feet away
D. one AP in three quadrants, with one less than 70 feet away
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
You have a customer that operates a large open pit coal mine in the western United States. They need to deploy a wireless point-to-point bridge link across the mine. The distance of the link is 1.5 miles. Which three things do you need to consider prior to performing the site survey for this bridge link? (Choose three.)
A. What specific EPA training will be required prior to entering the customer site?
B. Is a specific Mine Safety and Health Administration training course and certificate required prior to entering the customer site?
C. What specific FCC training will be required prior to entering the customer site?
D. Will any specialized equipment or clothing will be required to perform the site survey?
E. Will customer escorts be needed during the site survey?
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 16
What are the best practice minimum and recommended signal level values for a Location Services Survey?
A. minimum: -65dBm; recommended: 60 dBm
B. minimum: -70dBm; recommended: -68 dBm
C. minimum: -75dBm; recommended: -72dBm
D. minimum: -80dBm; recommended: -78dBm
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which three post-installation checks should an engineer perform after a new wireless installation? (Choose three.)
A. Check for co-channel interference.
B. Check for adequate signal levels as surveyed.
C. Conduct a passive survey of 802.11a and 802.11b.
D. Conduct a passive and active survey of each media type in use.
E. Verify that the minimum data rate is 24 Mbps.
F. Verify that the cell overlap is 20%.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.
642-732 dumps
A company requires a multi-point bridge solution with Cisco 1400 series bridges. The central bridge (B1) is set to 10 dBm, the manufacturing remote bridge (B2) is set to 20 dBm, the inventory remote bridge (B3) is set to 20 dBm, and the shop remote bridge (B4) is set to 10 dBm. Which option is the maximum allowed power setting for all four bridges?
A. B1=12dBmB2=12dBmB3=12dBmB4=12dBm
B. B1=12dBmB2=24dBmB3=24dBmB4=24dBm
C. B1=24dBmB2=12dBmB3=12dBmB4=12dBm
D. B1=24dBmB2=24dBmB3=24dBmB4=24dBm
E. B1=20dBmB2=20dBmB3=20dBmB4=20dBm
F. B1=10dBmB2=24dBmB3=24dBmB4=24dBm
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
In performing a post-deployment audit, you are concerned by significant changes in measured RSSI and SNR values taken on a wireless client in one location. How do you explain the differences in these values?
A. The differences in the RSSI and SNR values are a result of signal diffusion in the environment.
B. The differences in the RSSI and SNR values are a result of multipath in the environment.
C. The differences in the RSSI and SNR values are a result of signal absorption in the environment.
D. The differences in the RSSI and SNR values are a result of signal diffraction in the environment.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Which tool can best provide throughput verification?
A. WLC > Monitor > Clients > LinkTest
B. WaveDeploy
C. InSSIDer
D. Xirrus Wi-Fi Inspector
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
An engineer is surveying a customer site for additional wireless coverage. What two menus will an engineer navigate to in order to determine the maximum number of supported APs? (Choose two.)
A. Monitor – Summary
B. Controller – Inventory
C. Management – Summary
D. Wireless – Access Points
E. Monitor – Access Points
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 22
Which two details are specified in the Executive Summary section of the Site Survey Report? (Choose two.)
A. proposed location for each AP
B. customer and site surveyor contact details
C. total number of APs
D. expressed requirements set by customer
E. coverage map
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 23
Which two options describes the vertical RF coverage pattern of an antenna? (Choose two.)
A. View from the side
B. View from above
C. Azimuth
D. H-plane
E. E-plane
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 24
How many location points are needed to validate both 802.11b/g and 802.11a in the Cisco WCS Calibration?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200
E. 300
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 25
What document must be kept current when a customer is conducting network maintenance? 642-732 dumps
A. installation report
B. survey report
C. readiness report
D. technical report
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
642-732 dumps
After performing a Layer 1 survey using Cisco Spectrum Expert, what is the result indicated by the visual screen?
A. Normal 802.11g activity
B. Microwave oven interference
C. Video camera interference
D. Bluetooth device interference
E. RF jammer
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.
642-732 dumps
After performing a Layer 1 survey using Cisco Spectrum Expert, what is the result indicated by the visual screen?
A. Normal 802.11b activity
B. Normal 802.11g activity
C. Microwave oven interference
D. Video camera interference
E. Bluetooth device interference
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
Aside from software applications, which two tools will be important to have when performing a WLAN site survey? (Choose two.)
A. Measuring tools
B. Temporary attachment devices (tie-wraps, clamps, duct tape)
C. Architectural design drawings
D. Different sizes and types of wrenches and pliers
E. Portable battery packs to power WLAN clients
F. Flag tape to outline wireless cell dimensions
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 29
What is the attenuation of a wireless signal that passes through a cider block wall?
A. 3 dB
B. 4 dB
C. 6 dB
D. 12 dB
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
Which two pieces of physical infrastructure information should be included in the installation report presented to the customer? (Choose two.)
A. A list of router and switch models, serial numbers and locations.
B. The total square footage of the customer’s facility.
C. An analysis of the facility exterior wall and roof construction materials.
D. The cable scan results for the entire customer facility.
E. An installation inventory of all controllers and APs in the WLAN coverage area.
Correct Answer: DE

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Cloud
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cloud Fundamentals
Exam Code: 210-451
Total Questions: 82 Q&As

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Cisco CCNA Cloud 210-451 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
Which description of the elasticity of a Cloud-based infrastructure is true?
A. provides dynamic on-demand provisioning of services in near real time
B. enables sharing of resources and costs across a large pool of users
C. multisite architecture to reduce impact from outages in any one site
D. provides a security posture that is manageable from a single point of control
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which characteristic is an inoperative attribute of a private Cloud deployment?
A. self service and on demand
B. shared by many companies
C. highly scalable
D. metered for reporting or billing purposes
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which option is one essential characteristic of Cloud computing?
A. It must use virtualization.
B. It must provide load balancing services.
C. It must provide on-demand self service.
D. It must run on open source software.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
What are the five specific characteristics common to the Cloud environments?
A. on-demand usage, ubiquitous access, multi-tenancy, measured usage, resiliency
B. on-demand usage, ubiquitous access, tiered-tenancy, measured usage, resiliency
C. on-demand usage, autonomous access, multi-tenancy, measured usage, resiliency
D. dynamic usage, ubiquitous access, multi-tenancy, measured usage, resiliency
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which best describes a SaaS Cloud model?
A. infrastructure that presents the user with an operating system allowing programming language execution environment for testing database and web servers
B. infrastructure that virtualizes server functions on a hypervisor
C. infrastructure that provides elastic storage and computing resources
D. a platform that provides access to application software or database resources
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
210-451 dumps IaaS is an acronym for what type of Cloud?
A. Instances as a Service
B. Infrastructure as a Service
C. Internet as a Service
D. Images as a Service
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which Cloud service model is appropriate for a physical data center move to the Cloud?
A. Infrastructure as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Compute as a Service
D. Software as a Service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which statement defines Cloud Service Models?
A. infrastructure as a service, software as a service, platform as a service
B. internet as a service, software as a service, platform as a service
C. infrastructure as a service, big data as a service, platform as a service
D. infrastructure as a service, software as a service, grid as a service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which best describes a Cloud deployment model that relies on interoperability between Cloud providers?
A. Hybrid Cloud
B. Multi-Cloud
C. InterCloud
D. Community Cloud
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which three options are considered Cloud deployment models? (Choose three.)
A. Public Cloud
B. Hybrid Cloud
C. Open Cloud
D. Private Cloud
E. Stack Cloud
F. Distributed Cloud
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 11
Company ABC hosts all their applications internally. During one day of the month, the demand for their applications far exceeds the capacity of their datacenter. Which Cloud model should Company ABC consider using?
A. Community
B. Private
C. Hybrid
D. Public
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which option lists the Cloud deployment models?
A. public, community, private, hybrid
B. cluster, community, private, hybrid
C. public, performance, private, hybrid
D. public, community, secure, hybrid
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
What is an invalid Cloud deployment model?
A. distributed
B. private
C. community
D. hybrid
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which three options are Common Cloud characteristics? 210-451 dumps (Choose three.)
A. single tenancy
B. elasticity
C. ubiquitous network access
D. metered service
E. QoS
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 15
Which description of Cisco vPath is true?
A. a protocol that provides end-to-end path assurance for Cloud-based systems
B. an embedded intelligence in Cisco VEM that provides abstracted control and forward plane functionality
C. a service that provides forwarding plane abstraction for inline redirection of traffic for vServices
D. a vService that allows for security policy enforcement through transparent bridging
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which description of RAID6 is true?
A. block-level striping of data with double distributed parity
B. drive-level striping of data with double distributed parity
C. block-level striping of data with single distributed parity
D. block-level mirroring of data with double distributed parity
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which Cloud storage technology would be accessed via the following URL?
https://cloud.example.com/v1/account/container/object
A. pNFS
B. WebDAV
C. Cinder
D. Swift
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which of the following protocols are considered to be “file based”?
A. NFS, FCoE, iSCSI, CIFS
B. iSCSI, NFS, CIFS
C. NFS or CIFS
D. FCoE or NFS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which of the following two storage technologies would require that its’ block device be attached to an instance before you can perform any filesystem commands? (Choose two.)
A. SCSI LUN
B. Cinder Volume
C. NFS Filesystem Meta-Volume
D. Direct Object Block Device
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 20
Which type of zoning is represented?
zone name zone1 vsan 10 member pwwn 20:00:00:55:a5:00:00:04 member pwwn 50:00:d3:10:00:18:e1:05 member pwwn 50:00:d3:10:00:18:e1:06
A. Single Initiator Multi Target
B. Multi Initiator Single Target
C. Single Target Single Initiator
D. Multi Initiator Multi Target
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
What are two characteristics of a LUN? (Choose two.)
A. A LUN must be fully comprised of one physical disk
B. A LUN handles file system creation
C. A LUN can be comprised of multiple physical disks
D. A LUN is a unique identifier
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 22
In an Openstack Cloud deployment which has a fibre channel SAN providing the block storage, which two options are valid fibre channel zone member types? (Choose two.)
A. FCID
B. DomainID
C. WWPN
D. OpenStack Volume ID
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 23
Which option describes what the use of no_root_squash does in an NFS environment?
A. It causes the NFS share to be mounted by a non-root user and is required for hypervisors that utilize RBAC for users.
B. It allows a NFS share to be mounted and written to as the root user by the hypervisor.
C. It allows a NFS share to be mounted by root, but all subsequent writes are as a non-root user.
D. It allows a NFS share to be mounted by a non-root user and all subsequent writes are as a non-root user.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Which two options are characteristics of NAS? (Choose two.)
A. NAS provides block-based storage only.
B. NAS provides storage and filesystems.
C. NAS requires no authentication.
D. SMB is a protocol that can be used for NAS.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 25
Which /etc/exports line will allow you to enable read-only access from the NFS client 192.168.1.100?
A. /images 192.168.1.100 (ro,async)
B. /images 192.168.1.100 (755,async)
C. /images 192.168.1.1/24 (755,no_root_squash,async)
D. /images 192.168.1.1/27 (ro,async)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Refer to the command line display below:
vsan database
vsan 1000 name FCoE
vlan 1000
fcoe vlan 1000
int e1/1
switchport mode trunk
switchport trunk allowed vlan 1000
no shut
int vfc10
bind interface e1/1
switchport trunk allowed vsan 1000
no shut
On which line does the error occur that prevents FCoE from operating correctly in a Cisco Nexus switch?
A. fcoe vlan 1000
B. switchport trunk allowed vsan 1000
C. int vfc10
D. bind interface e1/1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
210-451 dumps Which Cisco product can provide an iSCSI target for an iSCSI initiator?
A. Cisco MDS 9710
B. Cisco Nexus 7010
C. Cisco UCS Invicta
D. Cisco Nexus 9510
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which Cisco product is outside of a Vblock?
A. Cisco Nexus 1k
B. Cisco C-Series UCS
C. Cisco Nexus 3k
D. Cisco UCS Central
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
Which integrated infrastructure rely on OpenStack technology?
A. FlexPod
B. Vblock
C. VSPEX
D. OpenBlocks
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
Which platform is ideally used to orchestrate a FlexPod from a single management platform?
A. Cisco UCS Manager
B. Cisco UCS Director
C. Cisco Prime Cloud Automation Manager
D. Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure Manager
Correct Answer: B

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[2018 New Version] High Pass Rate Newest Cisco CCNA Security 210-260 Dumps Exam Files Update Youtube Free Demo (Q13-Q40)

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Security
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Exam Code: 210-260
Total Questions: 329 Q&As

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Cisco CCNA Security 210-260 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (Q13-Q40)

QUESTION 13
Which two features are commonly used CoPP and CPPr to protect the control plane? (Choose two.)
A. QoS
B. traffic classification
C. access lists
D. policy maps
E. class maps
F. Cisco Express Forwarding
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 14
What is one requirement for locking a wired or wireless device from ISE?
A. The ISE agent must be installed on the device.
B. The device must be connected to the network when the lock command is executed.
C. The user must approve the locking action.
D. The organization must implement an acceptable use policy allowing device locking.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which three statements are characteristics of DHCP Spoofing? (choose three)
A. Arp Poisoning
B. Modify Traffic in transit
C. Used to perform man-in-the-middle attack
D. Physically modify the network gateway
E. Protect the identity of the attacker by masking the DHCP address
F. can access most network devices
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 16
Which statement correctly describes the function of a private VLAN?
A. A private VLAN partitions the Layer 2 broadcast domain of a VLAN into subdomains
B. A private VLAN partitions the Layer 3 broadcast domain of a VLAN into subdomains
C. A private VLAN enables the creation of multiple VLANs using one broadcast domain
D. A private VLAN combines the Layer 2 broadcast domains of many VLANs into one major broadcast domain
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
which feature allow from dynamic NAT pool to choose next IP address and not a port on a used IP address?
A. next IP
B. round robin
C. Dynamic rotation
D. Dynamic PAT rotation
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Which type of encryption technology has the broadcast platform support?
A. Middleware
B. Hardware
C. Software
D. File-level
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
When an IPS detects an attack, which action can the IPS take to prevent the attack from spreading?
A. Deny the connection inline.
B. Perform a Layer 6 reset.
C. Deploy an antimalware system.
D. Enable bypass mode.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which four tasks are required when you configure Cisco IOS IPS using the Cisco Configuration Professional IPS wizard? 210-260 dumps (Choose four.)
A. Select the interface(s) to apply the IPS rule.
B. Select the traffic flow direction that should be applied by the IPS rule.
C. Add or remove IPS alerts actions based on the risk rating.
D. Specify the signature file and the Cisco public key.
E. Select the IPS bypass mode (fail-open or fail-close).
F. Specify the configuration location and select the category of signatures to be applied to the selected interface(s).
Correct Answer: ABDF

Explanation:
Step 11. At the `Select Interfaces’ screen, select the interface and the direction that IOS IPS will be applied to, then click `Next’ to continue.
210-260 dumps
Step 12. At the `IPS Policies Wizard’ screen, in the `Signature File’ section, select the first radio button “Specify the signature file you want to use with IOS IPS”, then click the “…” button to bring up a dialog box to specify the location of the signature package file, which will be the directory specified in Step 6. In this example, we use tftp to download the signature package to the router.
210-260 dumps
Step 13. In the `Configure Public Key’ section, enter `realm-cisco.pub’ in the `Name’ text field, then copy and paste the following public key’s key-string in the `Key’ text field. This public key can be downloaded from Cisco.com.
210-260 dumps
QUESTION 21
Which ports need to be active for AAA server and a Microsoft server to permit Active Directory authentication?
A. 445 and 389
B. 888 and 3389
C. 636 and 4445
D. 363 and 983
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
DRAG DROP
Drag the hash or algorithm from the left column to its appropriate category on the right.
Select and Place:
210-260 dumps
Correct Answer:
210-260 dumps
QUESTION 23
If a switch receives a superior BPDU and goes directly into a blocked state, what mechanism must be in use?
A. root guard
B. EtherChannel guard
C. loop guard
D. BPDU guard
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which two are valid types of VLANs using PVLANs? 210-260 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Backup VLAN
B. Secondary VLAN
C. Promiscuous VLAN
D. Community VLAN
E. Isolated VLAN
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 25
Which two are the default settings for port security? (Choose two.)
A. Violation is Protect
B. Maximum number of MAC addresses is 1
C. Violation is Restrict
D. Violation is Shutdown
E. Maximum number of MAC addresses is 2
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
Which area represents the data center?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
A network security administrator checks the ASA firewall NAT policy table with the show nat command.
Which statement is false?
A. First policy in the Section 1 is dynamic nat entry defined in the object configuration.
B. There are only reverse translation matches for the REAL_SERVER object.
C. NAT policy in Section 2 is a static entry defined in the object configuration.
D. Translation in Section 3 is used when a connection does not match any entries in first two sections.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Which two are characteristics of RADIUS? (Choose two.)
A. Uses TCP ports 1812/1813
B. Uses UDP port 49
C. Encrypts only the password between user and server
D. Uses TCP port 49
E. Uses UDP ports 1812/1813
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 29
Which two types of firewalls work at layer 4 and above? (Choose two.)
A. Application level firewall
B. Circuit-level gateway
C. Static packet filter
D. Network Address Translation
E. Stateful inspection
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 30
When setting up a site-to-site VPN with PSK authentication on a Cisco router, which two elements must be configured under crypto map? (Choose two.)
A. nat
B. peer
C. pfs
D. reverse-route
E. transform-set
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 31
Which two commands are used to implement Resilient IOS Configuration? (Choose two.)
A. copy flash:/ios.bin tftp
B. copy running-config tftp
C. copy running-config startup-config
D. secure boot-image
E. secure boot-config
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 32
Which two events would cause the state table of a stateful firewall to be updated? 210-260 dumps (Choose two.)
A. when a connection’s timer has expired within the state table
B. when a connection is created
C. when rate-limiting is applied
D. when a packet is evaluated against the outbound access list and is denied
E. when an outbound packet is forwarded to the outbound interface
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 33
Which IPSec mode is used to encrypt traffic directly between a client and a server VPN endpoint?
A. transport mode
B. tunnel mode
C. aggressive mode
D. quick mode
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 34
On an ASA, the policy that indicates that traffic should not be translated is often referred to as which of the following?
A. NAT zero
B. NAT forward
C. NAT null
D. NAT allow
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 35
What is true of an ASA in transparent mode?
A. It requires a management IP address
B. It allows the use of dynamic NAT
C. It requires an IP address for each interface
D. It supports OSPF
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 36
Which component offers a variety of security solutions, including firewall, IPS, VPN, antispyware, antivirus, and antiphishing features?
A. Cisco IOS router
B. Cisco ASA 5500-X Series Next Gen. Security appliance
C. Cisco 4200 series IPS appliance
D. Cisco ASA 5500 series security appliance
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 37
How does a zone pair handle traffic if the policy definition of the zone pair is missing?
A. It permits all traffic without logging.
B. It drops all traffic.
C. It inspects all traffic.
D. It permits and logs all traffic.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 38
Which command do you enter to configure your firewall to conceal internal addresses?
A. no ip logging facility
B. no ip directed-broadcast
C. no ip inspect
D. no proxy-arp
E. no ip source-route
F. no ip inspect audit-trail
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 39
Which IOS command do you enter to test authentication against a AAA server?
A. aaa authentication enable default test group tacacs+
B. dialer aaa suffix password C. ppp authentication chap pap test
D. test aaa-server authentication dialergroup username password Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 40
210-260 dumps Which technology can block a non-malicious program that is run from a local computer that has been disconnected from the network?
A. antivirus software
B. firewall
C. host IPS
D. network IPS
Correct Answer: C

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[2018 New Version] High Quality Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-065 Dumps Exam Practice Materials Youtube Update (Q11-Q30)

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Collaboration
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices v1.0
Exam Code: 210-065
Total Questions: 311 Q&As

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Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-065 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (Q11-Q30)

QUESTION 11
Which desktop endpoint support 802.3af PoE?
A. DX70
B. DX80
C. DX90
D. DX650
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
An engineer is backing up a VCS configuration. Which two methods can be used? (Choose two.)
A. FTP
B. SFTP
C. SSH
D. web administration
E. local
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 13
An engineer sees a video camera icon on the Cisco IP phone screen status line. Which meaning of this icon is true?
A. The Cisco VT camera is connected to the PC, and the PC is connected to the Cisco IP phone.
B. The Cisco IP phone has web access.
C. The Cisco IP phone is receiving a video call.
D. The Cisco IP phone is configured with video capabilities.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
A company just acquired a Cisco MCU 5300 for multi videoconferencing. The networking engineer must create a conference. To which tab does the engineer go to create a conference?
A. Endpoints
B. Conferences
C. Network
D. Settings
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
In this tutorial the instruction `Go to Conferences > Move participants’ means click the Conferences link on the menu bar and then click the Move participants tab.

QUESTION 15
Which option is the Cisco recommended minimum viewing distance for a 52″ monitor installed in a video conferencing room?
A. 1.5 m
B. 3.0 m
C. 2.5 m
D. 2.0 m
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
210-065 dumps Which effect of the CLI set audio aec enable command on the immersive Cisco Telepresence system is true?
A. Echo cancellation is enabled.
B. Call economy quality feature is enabled.
C. Noise cancellation is enabled.
D. AEC audio codec is enabled.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
What is the process for resetting a Cisco VCS control appliance back to initial default configuration?
A. Push down and hold the reset button on the back of the VCS appliance for 10 seconds and power cycle the device.
B. Log onto the CLI console as root and initiate the defaults-reset command.
C. Log into the GUI interface as administrator, choose System Settings, select Restore, select Factory Reset.
D. Log onto the CLI console as root and initiate the factory-reset command.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which two Cisco TelePresence endpoints support hosting embedded multisite conferences? (Choose two.)
A. sx20
B. MX800
C. DX70
D. DX80
E. Jabber Video for Cisco TelePresence
Correct Answer: AB

Explanation:
For reference, the below endpoints support Multisite:
MX200/300 G2
MX700/800
SX20/80

QUESTION 19
Which option is the Cisco recommended layout if cascading is being used?
A. Enhanced Continuous Presence
B. Full Participant
C. Continuous Presence
D. Active Speaker
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
When an administrator schedules a conference, which three devices are part of the process? (Choose three.)
A. endpoint
B. Cisco Prime Collaboration Manager
C. Cisco TelePresence Management Suite
D. Cisco Communications Manager
E. MCU appliance
F. Cisco TelePresence Content Server
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 21
An engineer is configuring a Cisco TelePresence MX300 for registration to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager system. What should Network1>DHCP RequestTFTPServerAddress be set to on the endpoint, in order to receive option 150?
A. DHCP
B. 150
C. On
D. TFTP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Which option is an immersive endpoint?
A. Cisco TelePresence EX90
B. Cisco TelePresence TX9000
C. Cisco TelePresence SX10
D. Cisco TelePresence DX70
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
An engineer is using a cascading feature with Cisco TelePresence Conductor and Cisco TelePresence Servers. Which two limitations will the engineer likely encounter? (Choose two.)
A. Ad-hoc conferencing cascading is not supported.
B. Only single-screen endpoints are supported through cascading links.
C. Multiple-screen endpoints are supported only with three or more Cisco TelePresence Servers.
D. Scheduled conferencing is not supported.
E. Ad-hoc conferencing cascading is supported only with three or more Cisco TelePresence Servers.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 24
Which two features are available on a Cisco TelePresence Server that are not available on a Cisco TelePresence MCU? (Choose two.)
A. auto-attendant conference menu
B. automatic lecture mode
C. virtualization
D. multiscreen endpoint support
E. multiple layouts
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 25
210-065 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. When a user cannot log into the Cisco Jabber client, the log file from a Windows Jabber client on an internal network is shown. 210-065 dumps Which SRV must the DNS administrator create to resolve the problem?
A. _collab-edge
B. _cisco-uds
C. _sip
D. _sips
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which technology can be used to pair an iPad with a Cisco room-based video collaboration endpoint?
A. Bluetooth
B. Wi-Fi
C. Cisco Intelligent Proximity
D. Zigbee
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
210-065 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. An SX80 endpoint has been deployed using dual screens and a third display is being added. To which connector must the third display be connected?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
F. F
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
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When the Cisco Jabber usertries to call extension 3501, Cisco Jabber never places the call No errors or messages are seen and no reordertone is heard. Assuming that the Cisco Jabber calling search space is configured correctly in Cisco Unified Communications Manager, which of these could be causing this issue?
A. CTI for the end user must be enabled.
B. Cisco Jabber must be reconfigured for desktop mode.
C. The username or password is misconfigured in Cisco Jabber.
D. The Cisco Jabber Advanced Phone Settings are misconfigured.
E. Cisco Jabber does not have the correct phone button template and hence has not registered to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
F. The called user presence status is unknown.
G. The called user has not been added as a contact in Cisco Jabber.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
Refer to the exhibits. An administrator needs to perform a factory reset on a C-Series endpoint. What are two valid ways to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D
E. Exhibit E
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 30
A customer is looking for a video conference solution that includes video streaming. What are the two devices that when used together, provide streaming capability? 210-065 dumps (Choose two.)
A. VCS
B. TCS
C. TS
D. MCU 4500
E. TMS
Correct Answer: BD

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300-360 dumps

Newest Cisco CCNP Wireless 300-360 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-12)

QUESTION 1
An engineer would like to calibrate the RF environment to improve accuracy.
Which wireless attribute is added to the foor-level calculation by calibrating the foor?
A. attenuation
B. TX power
C. multipath
D. SNR
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
An engineer is performing a predictive wireless design for a Parts Distribution Center which requires data and location services. Which three requirements are inputs to the design? (Choose three.)
A. access points with directional antennas
B. continuous -67 dBm coverage from one access point
C. overlapping -75 dBm coverage from three access points
D. overlapping -67 dBm coverage from two access points
E. access points in IPS mode
F. continuous -72 dBm coverage from one access point
G. accesspointsincornersandalongperimeters
Correct Answer: BCG

QUESTION 3
A customer is deploying a Greenfield 802.11ac network on a foor that will support approximately 300 wireless devices.
Which setting needs to be changed on Prime Infrastructure Planning Tool in order to predict the amount of access points the customer needs to service the new foor?
A. Data Coverage Support Margin
B. Demand Settings
C. Add AP Field
D. 802.11n Protocol Support
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which two options describe best practices that must be completed after a wireless installation is finished? 300-360 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Make sure that there are no spaces between the devices on the rack that the Wireless Lan Controller isinstalled.
B. Consult with the customer to ensure that the IT staff has a complete set of design and installationdocuments.
C. Make sure the customer is aware that they should consider purchasing a support contract immediately afterthe installationis complete.
D. Spend time with the customer to show them the controller GUI and inform them how they can reach the Cisco TAC if they have any problems.
E. Test all the customer’s wireless devices and applications to ensure they are working properly.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 5
An engineer is preparing for an outdoor wireless survey to mesh connect a distant remote building to a connected building.
Which two types of antennas are appropriate for this application? (Choose two.)
A. circular polarized
B. patch
C. dish
D. Yagi
E. omni
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
300-360 dumps
While testing the post-deployment WLAN network you discover that an AP has been placed in a difficult area. The AP cannot be moved easily because of various requirements. The client performance of various Apple and Microsoft operating system-based products does not meet expectations.
Which two options can help mitigate the performance issue? (Choose two.)
A. Add additional APs.
B. Increase the AP power level to maximum.
C. Rotate the AP 90 degrees to change antenna polarity.
D. Replace the AP with an AP and external antenna.
E. Change the AP location to one that is less RF hostile.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 7
An engineer is tuning RRM parameters to improve client connectivity. Which channel band results in the best 802.11n client compatibility?
A. UNII-2
B. UNII-2e
C. UNII-3
D. UNII
E. UNII-1
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8
An engineer is installing a wireless network in an industrial area with extreme temperatures and a significant amount of dust. Which enclosure should be used to protect the APs?
A. ACU
B. ADU
C. NEMA
D. WLSE
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
What are two advantages of conducting an active survey versus a passive survey when verifying RF coverage? (Choose two.)
A. verifies packet loss
B. verifies roaming
C. verifies SNR
D. verifies signal level
E. verifies interferers
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
An engineer is deploying an outdoor Mesh network. Which four major factors should be considered? (Choose four.)
A. power
B. buildings
C. traffic lights
D. satellite dishes
E. line of sight
F. network connectivity
G. power lines
H. mounting
Correct Answer: AEHF

QUESTION 11
A customer has deployed an N+N redundant wireless infrastructure. In this deployment the access points have been salt and peppered between controllers. 300-360 dumps
What configuration would be necessary to cut down on the use of mobility tunnels for voice clients?
A. mobility anchor
B. KIS based CAC
C. media session snooping
D. re-anchor roamed voice clients
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which two steps are associated with the active portion of the audit when a post-installation audit is performed with an auditing tool such as Ekahau? (Choose two.)
A. Check for co-channel interference by standing near an access point on one channel and watching for other access points that are on the same channel.
B. Verify smooth roaming.
C. Check to see if the signal level on other access points that are heard on the same channel is at least 19dBm weaker than the access point that you are next to.
D. Check that all channels are supported by the APs regardless of client capabilities.
E. Verify that the network traffic of physical data rate and packet loss meets user requirements.
Correct Answer: BE

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300-115 dumps
QUESTION 1
RSPAN has been configured on a Cisco Catalyst switch; however, traffic is not being replicated to the remote switch. Which type of misconfiguration is a cause?
A. The RSPAN designated VLAN is missing the remote span command.
B. The local and remote RSPAN switches are configured using different session IDs.
C. The local RSPAN switch is replicating only Rx traffic to the remote switch.
D. The local switch is overloaded with the amount of sourced traffic that must be replicated to the remote switch.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which two statements about SPAN source and destination ports during an active session are true? (Choose two.)
A. The source port can be only an Ethernet physical port.
B. The source port can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions.
C. Thedestination port can be destination in multiple SPAN sessions.
D. The destination port does not participate in STP.
E. You can mix individual source ports and source VLANs within a single session.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
A network engineer changed the port speed and duplex setting of an existing EtherChannel bundle that uses the PAgP protocol. Which statement describes what happens to all ports in the bundle?
A. PAgP changes the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle.
B. PAgP drops the ports that do not match the configuration.
C. PAgP does not change the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle until the switch is rebooted.
D. PAgP changes the port speed but notthe duplex for all ports in the bundle.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A network engineer is installing a switch for temporary workers to connect to. The engineer does not want this switch participating in Spanning Tree with the rest of the network; however, end user connectivity is still required. 300-115 dumps Which spanning-tree feature accomplishes this?
A. BPDUblock
B. BPDUfilter
C. BPDUignore
D. BPDUguard
E. BPDUdisable
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
An EtherChannel bundle has been established between a Cisco switch and a corporate web server. The network administrator noticed that only one of the EtherChannel links is being utilized to reach the web server. What should be done on the Cisco switch to allow for better EtherChannel utilization to the corporate web server?
A. Enable Cisco Express Forwarding to allow for more effective traffic sharing over the EtherChannel bundle.
B. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on destination IP addresses.
C. Disable spanning tree on all interfaces that are participating in the EtherChannel bundle.
D. Use link-state tracking to allow for improved load balancing of traffic upon link failure to the server.
E. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on source IP addresses.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 6
Enablement of which feature puts the port into err-disabled state when the port has PortFast enabled and it receives BPDUs?
A. BPDU filtering
B. BackboneFast
C. EtherChannel
D. BPDU guard
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
When a Layer 2 EtherChannel is configured, which statement about placement of the IP address is true?
A. The IP address is placed on the highest numbered member port.
B. The IP address is placed on the port-channel logical interface.
C. The IP address is placed on the lowest numbered member port.
D. The IP address is assigned via DHCP only.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Ferris Plastics, Inc. is a medium sized company, with an enterprise network (access, distribution and core switches) that provides LAN connectivity from user PCs to corporate servers. The distribution switches are configured to use HSRP to provide a high availability solution.
DSW1 -primary device for VLAN 101 VLAN 102 and VLAN 105
DSW2 – primary device for VLAN 103 and VLAN 104
A failure of GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on primary device should cause the primary device to release its status as the primary device, unless GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on backup device has also failed.
Troubleshooting has identified several issues. Currently all interfaces are up. Using the running configurations and show commands, you have been asked to investigate and respond to the following question.
300-115 dumps
What is the priority value of the VLAN 105 HSRP group on DSW2?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which two statements about SPAN source and destination ports during an active session are true? 300-115 dumps (Choose two.)
A. The source port can be only an Ethernet physical port.
B. The source port can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions.
C. The destination port can be destination in multiple SPAN sessions.
D. The destination port does not participate in STP.
E. You can mix individual source ports and source VLANs within a single session.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
Which two options are two results of using the command spanning-tree vlan 50 root primary within a spanning-tree network under global configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Spanning tree determines the priority of the current root for VLAN 50 and reduces the priority of the local switch to a lower value.
B. The priority value for VLAN 50 is set to 4094 on the root while the local switch priority is set to 32768.
C. The spanning-tree timers are reduced to improve the convergence time for VLAN 50.
D. All ports that are configured on the current switch with VLAN 50 transition to designated ports.
E. The switchport that is configured for VLAN 50 is the primary connection to the spanning-tree root switch.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 11
Your customer has asked you to come in and verify the operation of routers R1 and R2 which are configured to use HSRP. They have questions about how these two devices will perform in the event of a device failure.
300-115 dumps
What issue is causing Router R1 and R2 to both be displayed as the HSRP active router for group 2?
A. The HSRP group number mismatch
B. The HSRP group authentication is misconfigured
C. The HSRP Hello packets are blocked
D. The HSRP timers mismatch
E. The HSRP group priorities are different
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
An enterprise network has port security sticky enabled on all access ports. A network administrator moves a PC from one office desk to another. After the PC is moved, the network administrator clears the port security on the new network switch port connecting to the PC, but the port keeps going back into errdisabled mode. Which two factors are possible causes of this issue? (Choose two)
A. Port security sticky exists on the new network switch port
B. Port security sticky is disabled on the new network switch port
C. Port security must be disabled on all access ports
D. Port security is still enabled on the older network switch port
E. Port security sticky is still enabled on the older network switch port
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands ensure that DSW1 becomes root bridge for VLAN 10 and 20? 300-115 dumps (Choose two)
A. spanning-tree mstp 1 priority 0
B. spanning-tree mst 1 root primary
C. spanning-tree mst vlan 10,20 priority root
D. spanning-tree mst 1 priority 4096
E. spanning-tree mst 1 priority 1
F. spanning-tree mstp vlan 10,20 root primary
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 14
Which database is used to determine the validity of an ARP packet based on a valid IP-to- MAC address binding?
A. DHCP snooping database
B. dynamic ARP database
C. dynamic routing database
D. static ARP database
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
A switch is added into the production network to increase port capacity. A network engineer is configuring the switch for DHCP snooping and IP Source Guard, but is unable to configure ip verify source under several of the interfaces.
Which option is the cause of the problem?
A. The local DHCP server is disabled prior to enabling IP Source Guard.
B. The interfaces are configured as Layer 3 using the no switchport command.
C. No VLANs exist on the switch and/or the switch is configured in VTP transparent mode.
D. The switch is configured for sdm prefer routing as the switched database management template.
E. The configured SVIs on the switch have been removed for the associated interfaces.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
What is the default port security violation
A. log
B. shutdown
C. no change
D. error-disable
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
RSPAN has been configured on a Cisco Catalyst switch; however, traffic is not being replicated to the remote switch.
Which type of misconfiguration is a cause?
A. The RSPAN designated VLAN is missing the remote span command.
B. The local and remote RSPAN switches are configured using different session IDs.
C. The local RSPAN switch is replicating only Rx traffic to the remote switch.
D. The local switch isoverloaded with the amount of sourced traffic that must be replicated to the remote switch.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which will identify the master switch in stack wise?
A. lower priority
B. higher priority
C. lower id
D. higher id
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
A Cisco Catalyst switch that is prone to reboots continues to rebuild the DHCP snooping database. 300-115 dumps What is the solution to avoid the snooping database from being rebuilt after everydevice reboot?
A. A DHCP snooping database agent should be configured.
B. Enable DHCP snooping for all VLANs that are associated with the switch.
C. Disable Option 82 for DHCP data insertion.
D. Use IP Source Guard to protect the DHCP binding table entries from being lost upon rebooting.
E. Apply ip dhcp snooping trust on all interfaces with dynamic addresses.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which statement about Layer 2 protocol participation of ports involved m a SPAN session is true?
A. Neither a SPAN source nor SPAN destination participates m any Layer 2 protocols.
B. A SPAN source does not participate n any Layer 2 protocols
C. A SPAN destination does not participate n any Layer 2 protocols
D. Both SPAN source and SPAN destination participate in any Layer 2 protocols
Correct Answer: C

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300-175 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which statement about Layer 2 protocol participation of ports involved m a SPAN session is true?
A. Neither a SPAN source nor SPAN destination participates m any Layer 2 protocols.
B. A SPAN source does not participate n any Layer 2 protocols
C. A SPAN destination does not participate n any Layer 2 protocols
D. Both SPAN source and SPAN destination participate in any Layer 2 protocols
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Afterport security is deployed throughout an enterprise campus, the network team has been overwhelmed with port reset requests. They decide to configure the network to automate the process of re-enabling user ports.
Which command accomplishes this task?
A. switch(config)# errdisable recovery interval 180
B. switch(config)# errdisable recovery cause psecure-violation
C. switch(config)# switchport port-security protect
D. switch(config)# switchport port-security aging type inactivity
E. switch(config)# errdisablerecovery cause security-violation
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which three functions does Dynamic ARP Inspection perform with invalid IP-to MAC address bindings? (Choose there.)
A. accepts
B. deletes
C. discards
D. bypasses
E. intercepts
F. logs
Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 4
Whichfour LACP components are used to determine which hot-standby links become active after an interface failure within an EtherChannel bundle? 300-175 dumps (Choose four.)
A. LACP system priority
B. LACP port priority
C. interface MAC address
D. system ID
E. port number
F. hot-standby link identification number
G. interface bandwidth
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 5
Which command globally enables AAA on a device?
A. aaa new-model
B. aaa authentication
C. aaa authorization
D. aaa accounting
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What is the default interval at which Cisco devices send Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisements?
A. 30 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. 120 seconds
D. 300 seconds
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
RSPAN has been configured on a Cisco Catalyst switch; however, traffic is not being replicated to the remote switch.
Which type of misconfiguration is a cause?
A. The RSPAN designated VLAN is missing the remote span command
B. The local and remote RSPAN switches are configured using different session IDs.
C. The local RSPAN switch is replicating only Rx traffic to the remote switch.
D. The local switch isoverloaded with the amount of sourced traffic that must be replicated to the remote switch.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Enablement of which feature puts the port into err-disabled state when the port has PortFast enabled and it receives BPDUs?
A. BPDU filtering
B. BackboneFast
C. EtherChannel
D. BPDU guard
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
When using EtherChannel misconfiguration guard, 300-175 dumps which technology is used to prevent this type of misconfiguration from affecting the network?
A. STP
B. port security
C. LACP
D. PAgP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
An EtherChannel bundle has been established between a Cisco switch and a corporate web server. The network administrator noticed that only one of the EtherChannel links is being utilized to reach the web server. What should be done on the Cisco switch to allow for better EtherChannel utilization to the corporate web server?
A. Enable Cisco Express Forwarding to allow for more effective traffic sharing over the EtherChannel bundle.
B. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on destination IP addresses.
C. Disable spanning tree on all interfaces that are participating in the EtherChannel bundle.
D. Use link-state tracking to allow for improved load balancing of traffic upon link failure to the server.
E. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on source IP addresses.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 11
A network engineer changed the port speed and duplex setting of an existing EtherChannel bundle that uses the PAgP protocol. Which statement describes what happens to all ports in the bundle?
A. PAgP changes the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle.
B. PAgP drops the ports that do not match the configuration.
C. PAgP does not change the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle until the switch is rebooted.
D. PAgP changes the port speed but notthe duplex for all ports in the bundle.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which two statements about SPAN source and destination ports during an active session are true? (Choose two.)
A. The source port can be only an Ethernet physical port.
B. The source port can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions.
C. Thedestination port can be destination in multiple SPAN sessions.
D. The destination port does not participate in STP.
E. You can mix individual source ports and source VLANs within a single session.
Correct Answer: BD

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