[2017 New Version] Best 200-105 Dumps Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 Materials And Youtube Demo

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND2
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-105
Total Questions: 204 Q&As
200-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which three challenges can the Cisco ACI integration of Layer 4 to Layer 7 services help a customer solve? (Choose three.)
A. Operational challenge of waiting on specialized administrators to configure individual devices
B. Limited device features
C. Chain of network services that includes multiple vendors
D. Costly and error-prone change control
E. Politics within an IT management organization
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 2
Which two functions are provided by the Cisco Application Policy Infrastructure Controller? (Choose two.)
A. Telemetry data for fabric operations
B. Policy repository
C. Distributed management plane
D. Control plane forwarding
E. Data plane forwarding
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
Your Certkiller trainee, Certkiller, asks you which of the following is a key objective of operations readiness assessment in the plan phase?
A. install and test system components in a nonproduction environment
B. assess the ability of site facilities to accommodate the proposed solution
C. assess the current state of operations and network management infrastructure, including people, processes, and tools, to identify issues and opportunities
D. assess existing network infrastructure and applications to verify its ability to support the proposed system
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
In the implement phase, solution implementation involves which of the following task? 200-105 dumps
A. perform preliminary Site Assessment
B. configure core products
C. execute test cases
D. analyze high-level design and technology requirements of the customer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which statement describes a bridge domain as it relates to the Cisco ACI?
A. Separates tenants
B. A separate routing instance
C. A container for IP subnets
D. A container for end points
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
200-105 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-105 dumps
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit
200-105 dumps
A packet with a source IP address of 192.168.2.4 and a destination IP address of 10.1.1.4 arrives at the AcmeB router. What action does the router take?
A. forwards the received packet out the Serial0/0 interface
B. forwards a packet containing an EIGRP advertisement out the Serial0/1 interface
C. forwards a packet containing an ICMP message out the FastEthemet0/0 interface
D. forwards a packet containing an ARP request out the FastEthemet0/1 interface
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
What is the function of the OpFlex protocol policy element?
A. Stores statistical information
B. Learns and knows every device in the network
C. Resolves policy and configures network hardware/software
D. Captures and stores the user intent in policy
E. Limits device features
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which action extends an EPG outside of the Cisco ACI fabric? 200-105 dumps
A. Enable a routing protocol on the border leaf.
B. Extend the bridge domain to an outside network.
C. Create a Layer 3 port.
D. Manually assign a port to a VLAN and map the VLAN to an EPG
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which three statements about a Cisco ACI Layer 3 connection to an external network are true? (Choose three.)
A. The Cisco ACI fabric is considered a transit network.
B. Routes learned from the outside are redistributed into ISIS.
C. Routes learned from the outside are redistributed into MP-BGP.
D. A leaf switch can peer with an external router.
E. A leaf switch cannot peer with an external router.
F. The Cisco ACI fabric is intended to be a stub network.
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 11
In which two ways can Layer 4 to Layer 7 services be integrated with Cisco ACI? (Choose two.)
A. A Layer 4 to Layer 7 appliance can program the Cisco APIC.
B. The Cisco APIC controls and automatically configures Layer 4 to Layer 7 services via device packages
C. Using traditional VLAN/VRF stitching.
D. The Cisco APIC does not integrate with third-party appliances.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 12
Which statement about when Cisco ACI is integrated with Microsoft Azure pack is true?
A. The application network profile is created in Windows Systems Center and pushed to the Cisco APIC.
B. The application profile is created in Windows Azure Pack Management Portal and pushed to the Cisco APIC.
C. The application network profile is created in the Cisco APIC and pushed to Windows Azure.
D. The application network profile is created in the Cisco APIC and pushed to Systems Center.
Correct Answer: B

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Vendor: RedHat
Certifications: RHCE certification
Exam Name: Red Hat Certified Engineer (RHCE)
Exam Code: EX300
Total Questions: 36 Q&As
EX300 dumps
QUESTION 1
Write a script / root / program, the requirements when the input parameter kernel to the script, the script returns the user, the input parameters to the script user, the script returns the kernel. While the script no parameters or parameter error, the output from the standard error output usage: / root / the program kernel | user

Answer:
vim /root/program
#!/bin/bash
if [ “$1” == “kernel”];then
echo “user”
elif [“$1” == “user”];then
echo “kernel”
else
echo “usage:/root/program kernel|user”
fi
Test:
chmod a+x /root/program
.root/program kernel
./root/program user
./root/program lll

QUESTION 2
Please visit iscsi shared storage, storage server address is 172.24.30.100, ceded 1500M space, formatted with the ext3 file system, mount / mnt / data, and boot automatically mount.

Answer:
yum install ‐y iscsi*
chkconfig iscsid on
chkconfig iscsi on
iscsiadm ‐m discovery ‐t st ‐p 172.24.30.100:3260
iscsiadm ‐m node ‐T iqn.2011 ‐p 172.24.30.100 ‐|
service iscsi restart
fdisk ‐|
fdisk /dev/sda
partx ‐a /dev/sda
partx ‐a /dev/sda
mkfs.ext3 /dev/sad1
yum ‐y install tree
cd /var/lib/iscsi
tree . view iqn
cd /mnt
mkdir data
blkid /dev/sda1 (View UUID, UUID mount)
vim /etc/fstab
UUID=XXX /mnt/data ext3 default, _netdev 0 0
mount ‐a

QUESTION 3
Configuring the NFS service that will /mnt /storage directory with read‐only shared to the example.com domain user when the client as the root user will also have access to the root directory permissions to read‐only shared to cracker.org domain users. EX300 dumps

Answer:
# vim /etc/exports
/mnt/storage *.example.com(ro,sync,no_root_squash)
/mnt/storage *.cracker.org(ro,sync)
QUESTION 18
Example.com only allows access to the local SSH.
Answer:
# vim /etc/hosts.allow
sshd: .example.com
# vim /etc/hosts.deny
sshd: ALL

QUESTION 4
Configure cron as follow:
Clients tom should NOT have access to cron
Answer:
useradd tom
vim /etc/cron.deny
tom
Effective immediately save and exit.

QUESTION 5
Configure Kernel parameters rhelblq=1 and enable /proc/cmdline to verify your Kernel parameters.

Answer:
Vim /etc/grub.conf
Write the end of the kernel line
To see after restart
cat /proc/cmdline

QUESTION 6
Configure an email server domian30.example.com, and it requests to send and receive emails from the local server or the user harry can send or receive emails from network. The email of user harry is /var/spool/mail/harry.
Please note: the DNS server has already been MX record.

Answer:
yum install ‐y postfix
chkconfig postfix on
vim /etc/postfix/main.cf
inet_interfaces = all
mydestination = example.com, domain30.example.com, localhost
mynetworks = 172.16.30.0/24, 127.0.0.1/8
services postfix restart
Test:
netstat ‐tulnp |grep 25
hostname
echo hello |mail ‐s “test”[email protected]
cat /var/spool/mai/harry

QUESTION 7
Connect to mail server and send email to admin, ensure that user harry can revive it.

Answer:
vim /etc/aliases
admin: harry
newaliases

QUESTION 8
Samba configuration requirements are as follows:
1. The Working Group called RHCE
2. Types of user authentication
3. Shared / mnt / storage directory share name for the share
4. The shared directory allows user1 and user2 user has write permissions to other users are read‐only, if you need password are redhat
5. only allows the user to access the shared directory domain example.com

Answer:
# yum install ‐y samba
# vim /etc/samba/smb.conf
[global]
workgroup = RHCE
security = user
[share]
path = /mnt/storage
write list = user1 user2
hosts allow = .example.com
# ( echo redhat ; echo redhat ) | smbpasswd ‐s ‐a user1
# ( echo redhat ; echo redhat ) | smbpasswd ‐s ‐a user2
# service smb start; chkconfig smb on

QUESTION 9
Establish vsftp server, so that only allow user1 user access, and cannot jump out of home directories only allow users to upload and download example domain, allowing only example domains can be accessed. EX300 dumps

Answer:
# yum ‐y install vsftpd
# vim /etc/vsftpd/vsftpd.conf
userlist_deny=NO
userlist_file=/etc/vsftpd/vsftpd.user_list
chroot_list_enable=YES
chroot_list_file= /etc/vsftpd/vsftpd.chroot_list
anon_upload_enable=YES
anonymous_enable=YES
# mkdir ‐p /var/ftp/incoming; chmod 777 /var/ftp/incoming
# chcon ‐t public_content_rw_t /var/ftp/incoming
# setsebool ‐P allow_ftpd_anon_write 1
# setsebool ‐P ftp_home_dir 1
# vim /etc/vsftpd/vsftpd.user_list
user1
# vim /etc/vsftpd/vsftpd.chroot_list
user1
# service vsftpd start; chkconfig vsftpd on
# vim /etc/hosts.deny
vsftpd: ALL EXCEPT .example.com

QUESTION 10
Create new mail server, the following:
1. Allow localhost and remote hosts can access
2. Allow example.com users can relay to refuse remote test
3. All mail sent to the user3 will be sent to user2
4. Confirm / var/spool/mail/user1 exist
5. Example.com domain only allows the user to receive mail via pop3

Answer:
# yum install postfix ‐y
# alternatives ‐‐set mta (Choose postfix)
# service sendmail stop; chkconfig sendmail off
# cd /etc/postfix
# vim main.cf
myhostname = stationX.example.com
mynetworks_style = subnet
mydestination = $ myhostname
myorigin = $ myhostname
relay_domains = example.com, $mydestination
inet_interfaces = all
smtpd_client_restrictions =
check_client_access hash:/etc/postfix/access,
check_sender_access hash:/etc/postfix/access,
check_recipient_access hash:/etc/postfix/access,
permit_auth_destination,
permit_mynetworks,
# vim /etc/postfix/access
remote.test REJECT
# vim /etc/aliases
user3: user2
# postalias /etc/aliases
# postmap hash:/etc/postfix/access
# touch /var/spool/mail/user1 (Generally exist by default)
# chown user1:mail /var/spool/mail/user1
# chcon ‐‐reference=/var/spool/mail/root /var/spool/mail/user1
# chmod 660 /var/spool/mail/user1
# Reject remote.test domains can use iptables.
# iptables ‐A INPUT ‐p tcp ‐‐dport 25 ‐s remote.test(Written IP network segment) ‐j
REJECT
# service postfix start; chkconfig postfix on
# yum install dovecot
# vim /etc/dovecot.conf
protocols = pop3
# service dovecot start; chkconfig dovecot on
# iptables ‐A INPUT ‐p tcp ‐‐dport 110 ‐s 192.168.0.0/24 ‐j
ACCEPT
# iptables ‐A INPUT ‐p tcp ‐‐dport 110 ‐j REJECT
# service iptables save; chkconfig iptables on

QUESTION 11
Open system kernel forwarding packets function:

Answer:
vim /etc/sysctl.conf
net.ipv4.ip_forward = 1
sysctl ‐w (Effective immediately)
The following commands should executed without sysctl.conf option:
sysctl ‐a |grep net.ipv4
sysctl ‐P net.ipv4.ip_forward = 1
sysctl ‐w

QUESTION 12
Configure NFS server to share /common directory with domain30.example.com.
Authenticate the clients devices have the access to it as root user. EX300 dumps

Answer:
yum install ‐y nfs
chkconfig nfs on
chkconfig rpcbind on
vim /etc/exports
/common 172.24.30.0/255.255.255.0 (rw,no_root_squash)
showmount ‐e 172.16.30.5
mount ‐t nfs 172.16.30.5:/common /mnt

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSE
Exam Name: Implementing an Advanced Server Infrastructure
Exam Code: 70-414
Total Questions: 243 Q&As
70-414 dumps
QUESTION 1
You need to recommend a solution for managing updates.The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. A System Center 2012 Configuration Manager management point in the main office and a WSUS downstream server in each office
B. A System Center 2012 Configuration Manager software update point in the main office and a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager distribution point in each office
C. A System Center 2012 Configuration Manager management point in the main office and a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager distribution point in each office
D. A WSUS upstream server in the main office and a WSUS downstream server in each office
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You need to recommend a solution that resolves the current file server issue. The solution must meet the business requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. BranchCache in hosted cache mode
B. BranchCache in distributed cache mode
C. A storage pool
D. Distributed File System (DFS)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You need to create a virtual machine template for the web servers used by the CRM application. 70-414 dumps The solution must meet the virtualization requirements.
What should you use?
A. An .iso image
B. A virtual machine
C. A Windows PowerShell script
D. A virtual hard disk (VHD)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
You need to ensure that Group1 can perform the required tasks. The solution must meet the visualization requirements.
What should you create?
A. A collection
B. A host group
C. An organizational unit (OU)
D. A site
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You need to recommend a solution that meets the technical requirements for DHCP.
What should you include in the recommendation for each office?
A. DHCP failover
B. Network Load Balancing (NLB)
C. DHCP server policies
D. IP Address Management (IPAM)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You need to create a service template for the web servers used by the CRM application.
What should you include in the service template?
A. A VIP template
B. A host profile
C. Guest OS profile
D. A capability profile
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You need to recommend a solution that manages the security events. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
Which configuration should you include in the recommendation?
A. Object access auditing by using a Group Policy object (GPO)
B. Event rules by using System Center 2012 Operations Manager
C. Event forwarding by using Event Viewer
D. Audit Collection Services (ACS) by using System Center 2012
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
You are planning the deployment of System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM). You need to identify which additional System Center 2012 product is required to meet the virtualization requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. App Controller
B. Operations Manager
C. Configuration Manager
D. Service Manager
Correct Answer: B
70-414 dumps
QUESTION 9
You need to recommend a solution for deploying the web servers for the CRM application. The solution must meet the visualization requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Network Load Balancing (NLB) without affinity
B. Failover Clustering with one active node
C. Failover Clustering with two active nodes
D. Network Load Balancing (NLB) with client affinity
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
You are planning the delegation for the virtualization environment. 70-414 dumps The delegation must meet the visualization requirements.
Which user role profile should you select for Group2?
A. Administrators
B. Read-Only Administrator
C. Self-Service User
D. Delegated Administrator
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You need to recommend a solution for updating the virtualization hosts. The solution must meet the visualization requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Cluster-Aware Updating
B. WSUS
C. System Center Updates Publisher 2011
D. System Center 2012 Configuration Manager
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
You need to recommend an automated remediation solution for the ReliableTimeSource registry value.
The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. A System Center 2102 Configuration Manager configuration baseline.
B. A System Center 2012 Operations Manager performance counter rule.
C. A System Center 2012 Configuration Manager maintenance task.
D. A System Center 2012 Operations Manager event rule.
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP Routing and Switching
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Exam Code: 300-135
Total Questions: 118 Q&As
300-135 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which two statements about the Cisco Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) are true? (Select two)
A. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) profile manager feature can create and manage only one profile for the wireless client adapter.
B. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can support only one wireless client adapter installed and used at a time.
C. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can be used to establish the association between the client adapter and the access point, manage authentication to the wireless network, and enable encryption.
D. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) and the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager can be used at the same time to configure the wireless client adapter.
Correct Answer: B,C

QUESTION 2
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. 300-135 dumps What is the next thing that should be checked?
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which three features are benefits of using GRE tunnels in conjunction with IPsec for building site-to-site VPNs? (Choose three.)
A. allows dynamic routing over the tunnel
B. supports multi-protocol (non-IP) traffic over the tunnel
C. reduces IPsec headers overhead since tunnel mode is used
D. simplifies the ACL used in the crypto map
E. uses Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI) to simplify the IPsec VPN configuration
Correct Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION 4
What is the result if you configure two devices with the ntp server command?
A. Nothing will happen until one of the devices is configured with the prefer parameter.
B. The NTP protocol will determine which server is most reliable and will synchronize to that server.
C. The device with the highest priority will become the active server and the other device will become the backup server.
D. The device with the lowest MAC address will become the active server and the other device will become the backup server.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Exhibit:
300-135 dumps
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RouterA, IP address 10.1.2.1, and RouterB, IP address 10.1.2.2. Given the debug output on RouterA, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched autonomous system numbers.
B. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
C. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched authentication parameters.
D. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms.
E. RouterA will form an adjacency with RouterB.
F. RouterA will not form an adjacency with RouterB.
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 6
Which three management categories are contained in the FCAPS network maintenance model? 300-135 dumps (Choose three.)
A. Config
B. Fault
C. Storage
D. Accounting
E. Redundancy
F. Telecommunications
Correct Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION 7
The following command is issued on a Cisco Router:
Router(configuration)#logging console warnings
Which alerts will be seen on the console?
A. Warnings only
B. debugging, informational, notifications, warnings
C. warnings, errors, critical, alerts, emergencies
D. notifications, warnings, errors
E. warnings, errors, critical, alerts
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
What is the result of configuring the logging console warning command?
A. Messages with a severity level of 4 and higher will be logged to all available TTY lines.
B. Only warning messages will be logged on the console.
C. Warning, error, critical, and informational messages will be logged on the console.
D. Warning, critical, alert, and emergency messages will be logged on the console.
E. The logging console warning command needs to be followed in the configuration with logging buffered byte size to specify the message buffer size for the console.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which statement is true about an IPsec/GRE tunnel?
A. The GRE tunnel source and destination addresses are specified within the IPsec transform set.
B. An IPsec/GRE tunnel must use IPsec tunnel mode.
C. GRE encapsulation occurs before the IPsec encryption process.
D. Crypto map ACL is not needed to match which traffic will be protected.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You want to enhance the security within the Company LAN and prevent VLAN hopping. What two steps can be taken to help prevent this? (Select two)
A. Enable BPD guard
B. Disable CDP on ports where it is not necessary
C. Place unused ports in a common unrouted VLAN
D. Prevent automatic trunk configuration
E. Implement port security
Correct Answer: C,D

QUESTION 11
Refer to the shown below. 300-135 dumps
%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up
%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up
What statement is correct regarding the output shown in the graphic?
A. These two log messages will not have a severity level. They are not errors but are just informational messages.
B. The first log message is categorized as a warning message.
C. These messages regarding interface status are normal output and will always be displayed when you exit config mode.
D. The first log message is an error message with a severity level of 3.
E. The second message would be shown if the logging console warning command had been issued.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
EIGRP is being used as the routing protocol on the Company network. While troubleshooting some network connectivity issues, you notice a large number of EIGRP SIA (Stuck in Active) messages. What causes these SIA routes? (Select two)
A. The neighboring router stops receiving ACK packets from this router.
B. The neighboring router starts receiving route updates from this router.
C. The neighboring router is too busy to answer the query (generally caused by high CPU utilization).
D. The neighboring router is having memory problems and cannot allocate the memory to process the query or build the reply packet.
Correct Answer: C,D

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft Specialist
Exam Name: Virtualizing Enterprise Desktops and Apps
Exam Code: 70-694
Total Questions: 112 Q&As
70-694 dumps
QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. Contoso.com is synchronized to a Microsoft Azure Active Directory. You have a Microsoft lntune subscription. Your company pLANs to implement a Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) policy. You will provide users with access to corporate data from their personal iOS devices.
You need to ensure that you can manage the personal iOS devices.
What should you do first?
A. lnstall the Company Portal app from the App1e App Store.
B. Create a device enrollment manager account.
C. Set a DNS alias for the enrollment server address.
D. Configure the lntune Service to Service Connector for Hosted Exchange.
E. Enroll for an App1e Push Notification (APN) certificate.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
You are an lT consultant for small and mid-sized business.
One of your clients wants to start using Virtual Smart Cards on its Windows 10 Enterprise laptops and tablets. Before implementing any changes, the client wants to ensure that the laptops and tablets support Virtual Smart Cards. You need to verify that the client laptops and tablets support Virtual Smart Cards. 70-694 dumps
What should you do?
A. Ensure that each laptop and tablet has a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chip of version l.2 or greater.
B. Ensure that Bitlocker Drive Encryption is enabled on a system drive of the laptops and tablets.
C. Ensure that each laptop and tablet can read a physical smart card.
D. Ensure that the laptops and tablets are running Windows 10 Enter prise edition.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You administer Windows 10 Enter prise desk top computers that are members of an Active Directory domain. You want to create an archived copy of user profiles that are stored on the desktops. You create a standard domain user account to run a backup task.
You need to grant the backup task user account access to the user profiles.
What should you do?
A. Add the backup task account to the Remote Management Users group on a domain controller.
B. Add the backup task account to the Backup Operators group on every computer.
C. Add the backup task account to the Backup Operators group on a domain controller.
D. Set the backup task account as NTFS owner on all the profiles.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You need to resolve the Windows update issue.
What should you do?
A. Modify the Group Policy objects (GPOs) in Active Directory.
B. Synchronize software updates from Configuration Manager.
C. Create an automatic deployment rule.
D. Add distribution points to each branch office.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You have a Microsoft lntune subscription.
You have three security groups named Security1, Security2 and Security3. Security1 is the parent group of Security2.
Security2 has l00 users.
You need to change the parent group of Security2 to be Security3.
What should you do first?
A. Edit the properties of Security1.
B. Edit the properties of Security2.
C. Delete security2.
D. Remove all users from Security2.
Correct Answer: C
70-694 dumps
QUESTION 6
You are the network administrator for Contoso, ltd. Many users have Windows 10 Enterprise laptops, and your lT department configures all of the to use Bit locker on all fixed drives. 70-694 dumps
Many users carry sensitive corporate data on their USB drives.
You need to enable Bitlocker for these USB drives.Which key protector option should you use?
A. a smartcard
B. a startup key
C. TPM+PlN
D. TPM+Password
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
You manage Microsoft lntune for a company named Contoso.lntune client computers run Windows 10 Enterprise.
You notice that there are 25 mandatory updates listed in the lntune administration console. You need to prevent users from receiving prompts to restart Windows following the installation of mandatory updates.
Which policy template should you use?
A. Microsoft lntune Agent Settings
B. Windows Configuration Policy
C. Microsoft lntune Center Settings
D. WindowsCustomPolicy(Windows 10andWindows 10Mobile)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You need to prepare Server11.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Create a file named No_sms_on_drive in the root of drive C.
B. From the Add Site System Roles Wizard, set the primary package share location to Automatic.
C. From the Add Site System Roles Wizard, set the primary content location to E.
D. From the Add Site System Roles Wizard, set the primary package share location to E.
E. Copy Prepdrv.inf to the root of drive C.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
You use a Windows 8.l tablet. The tablet receives Windows Update updates automatically from the lnternet. The tablet has Wi-Fi and is connected to a 3G mobile broadband Wi-Fi hot spot. You need to minimize data usage while connected to this hot spot.
What should you do?
A. Turn on AirpLANe Mode.
B. Disable File and Print Sharing for mobile broadband connections.
C. Configure the interfacemetricoflPsettings for Wi-Ficonnectionasl.
D. Edit the lnbound Rule of Windows Firewall, and then disable lnternet Control Message Protocol (lCMP) traffic.
E. Configure the broadband connection as a metered network.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 10
You have an Active Directory domain named contoso.com that contains a deployment of Microsoft System Center 20l2 Configuration Manager Service Pack 1 (SP1). 70-694 dumps You have a Microsoft lntune subscription that is synchronized to contoso.com by using the Microsoft Azure Active Directory Synchronization Tool (DirSync.) You need to ensure that you can use Configuration Manager to manage the devices that are registered to your Microsoft lntune subscription.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents a part of the solution.
A. ln Microsoft lntune, create a new device enrollment manager account.
B. lnstall and configure Azure Active Directory Synchronization Services (AAD Sync.)
C. ln Microsoft lntune, configure an Exchange Connector.
D. ln Configuration Manager, configure the Microsoft lntune Connector role.
E. ln Configuration Manager, create the Microsoft lntune subscription.
Correct Answer: DE

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[2017 New Version] 300-209 Dumps Latest Cisco PDF Practice Questions And Youtube Free Update

High quality latest Cisco CCNP Security 300-209 dumps exam questions and answers free download. The latest Cisco CCNP Security 300-209 dumps pdf training materials and study guides update from lead4pass. https://www.lead4pass.com/300-209.html dumps pdf practice files. Prepare for Cisco 300-309 exam with best Cisco CCNP Security 300-209 dumps pdf and vce training resources from lead4pass, pass Cisco 300-309 exam test easily.

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QUESTION 1
Which technology must be installed on the client computer to enable users to launch applications from a Clientless SSL VPN?
A. Java
B. QuickTime plug-in
C. Silverlight
D. Flash
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which command simplifies the task of converting an SSL VPN to an IKEv2 VPN on a Cisco ASA appliance that has an invalid IKEv2 configuration? 300-309 pdf
A. migrate remote-access ssl overwrite
B. migrate remote-access ikev2
C. migrate l2l
D. migrate remote-access ssl
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
When you troubleshoot Cisco AnyConnect, which step does Cisco recommend before you open a TAC case?
A. Show applet Lifecycle exceptions.
B. Disable cookies.
C. Enable the WebVPN cache.
D. Collect a DART bundle.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
300-209 dumps
The network administrator is adding a new spoke, but the tunnel is not passing traffic. 300-209 dumps What could cause this issue?
A. DMVPN is a point-to-point tunnel, so there can be only one spoke.
B. There is no EIGRP configuration, and therefore the second tunnel is not working.
C. The NHRP authentication is failing.
D. The transform set must be in transport mode, which is a requirement for DMVPN.
E. The NHRP network ID is incorrect.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which two types of authentication are supported when you use Cisco ASDM to configure site-to-site IKEv2 with IPv6? (Choose two.)
A. preshared key
B. webAuth
C. digital certificates
D. XAUTH
E. EAP
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
An internet-based VPN solution is being considered to replace an existing private WAN connecting remote offices. A multimedia application is used that relies on multicast for communication. Which two VPN solutions meet the application’s network requirement? (Choose two.)
A. FlexVPN
B. DMVPN
C. Group Encrypted Transport VPN
D. Crypto-map based Site-to-Site IPsec VPNs
E. AnyConnect VPN
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 7
Which application does the Application Access feature of Clientless VPN support?
A. TFTP
B. VoIP
C. Telnet
D. active FTP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which algorithm is replaced by elliptic curve cryptography in Cisco NGE? 300-209 dumps
A. 3DES
B. AES
C. DES
D. RSA
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which two GDOI encryption keys are used within a GET VPN network? 300-309 pdf (Choose two.)
A. key encryption key
B. group encryption key
C. user encryption key
D. traffic encryption key
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 10
Which command identifies an AnyConnect profile that was uploaded to the router flash?
A. crypto vpn anyconnect profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml
B. svc import profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml
C. anyconnect profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml
D. webvpn import profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
To change the title panel on the logon page of the Cisco IOS WebVPN portal, which file must you configure?
A. Cisco IOS WebVPN customization template
B. Cisco IOS WebVPN customization general
C. web-access-hlp.inc
D. app-access-hlp.inc
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A user is unable to establish an AnyConnect VPN connection to an ASA. 300-209 dumps When using the Real-Time Log viewer within ASDM to troubleshoot the issue, which two filter options would the administrator choose to show only syslog messages relevant to the VPN connection? (Choose two.)
A. Client’s public IP address
B. Client’s operating system
C. Client’s default gateway IP address
D. Client’s username
E. ASA’s public IP address
Correct Answer: AD

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[2017 New Version] Free Latest Cisco 100-105 Dumps PDF Materials And VCE Youtube Demo

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QUESTION 1
Which statements are TRUE regarding Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses? (Choose three.)
A. An IPv6 address is divided into eight 16-bit groups.
B. A double colon (::) can only be used once in a single IPv6 address.
C. IPv6 addresses are 196 bits in length.
D. Leading zeros cannot be omitted in an IPv6 address.
E. Groups with a value of 0 can be represented with a single 0 in IPv6 address.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 2
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
What is one requirement for interfaces to run IPv6? 100-105 pdf
A. An IPv6 address must be configured on the interface.
B. An IPv4 address must be configured.
C. Stateless autoconfiguration must be enabled after enabling IPv6 on the interface.
D. IPv6 must be enabled with the ipv6 enable command in global configuration mode.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
HostX is transferring a file to the FTP server. 100-105 dumps Point A represents the frame as it goes toward the Toronto router. What will the Layer 2 destination address be at this point?
A. abcd.1123.0045
B. 192.168.7.17
C. aabb.5555.2222
D. 192.168.1.1
E. abcd.2246.0035
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 5
Which transport layer protocol provides best-effort delivery service with no acknowledgment receipt required?
A. HTTP
B. IP
C. TCP
D. Telnet
E. UDP
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 6
A workstation has just resolved a browser URL to the IP address of a server. What protocol will the workstation now use to determine the destination MAC address to be placed into frames directed toward the server?
A. HTTP
B. DNS
C. DHCP
D. RARP
E. ARP
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 7
Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? 100-105 pdf (Choose two.)
A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method.
D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data.
E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
F. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each other prior to transmitting data.
Correct Answer: B,E

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
The output is from a router in a large enterprise. From the output, determine the role of the router.
A. A Core router.
B. The HQ Internet gateway router.
C. The WAN router at the central site.
D. Remote stub router at a remote site.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers? 100-105 dumps
A. Internet layer
B. transport layer
C. application layer
D. network access layer
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
What must occur before a workstation can exchange HTTP packets with a web server?
A. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
B. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
C. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
D. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
E. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
F. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
Correct Answer: D

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[2017 New Version] Download Free Latest Cisco 200-125 Dumps PDF Practice Questions And Youtube (Q11-20)

Latest Cisco CCNA 200-125 dumps pdf and vce training materials and study guides. High quality actual Cisco CCNA 200-125 dumps exam questions and answers free download at Lead4pass. https://www.lead4pass.com/200-125.html dumps pdf practice files. Practice tests with PDF and VCE format for Cisco CCNA 200-125 exam certification, 100% success and guarantee to pass Cisco 200-125 exam test easily.

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Question 11
You are in interface configuration mode of a Cisco router, and you want to assign an IP address of 172.16.1.1 /24 to the interfacE. 200-125 pdf Which of the following is the command you should enter?
A. Router1(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 /24
B. Router1(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 0.0.0.255
C. Router1(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.0
D. Router1(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 classful
Answer: C

Question 12
A Layer 2 Ethernet switch with 12 ports, where all ports belong to the same VLAN, has how many collision domains and how many broadcast domains?
A. 12 collision domains and 12 broadcast domains
B. 1 collision domain and 1 broadcast domain
C. 12 collision domains and 1 broadcast domain
D. 1 collision domain and 12 broadcast domains
Answer: C

Question 13
In the diagram below, Client A is sending a packet to Host 1. As the frame is coming into the Fa 0/0 interface on router R2, what is the destination MAC address in the frame’s header?  200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
A. Host 1’s MAC address
B. Client A’s MAC address
C. Router R1’s Fa 0/0 MAC address
D. Router R2’s Fa 0/0 MAC address
E. Router R2’s Fa 0/1 MAC address
Answer: D

Question 14
A traditional Ethernet switch operates at which layer of the OSI Model?
A. Transport
B. Data Link
C. Network
D. Physical
E. Session
Answer: B

Question 15
Which three of the following are components of a network secured using IEEE 802.1x? (Choose 3.)
A. Encryption Server
B. Supplicant
C. Authorization Server
D. Key Manager
E. Authenticator
F. Authentication Server
Answer: BEF

Question 16
What protocol allows multiple hosts to dynamically obtain IP addresses from a server?200-125 dumps
A. DNS
B. DHCP
C. WINS
D. ARP
E. ICMP
Answer: B

Question 17
You are connected to the console line of RouterA. From there, you connect to RouterB via Telnet. Without terminating the Telnet session, what key sequence could you enter to return to the RouterA prompt?
A. <CTRL-SHIFT-6> x
B. <CTRL-Break>
C. <CTRL-ALT-DELETE>
D. <CTRL-ALT-x>
Answer: A

Question 18
Which of the follow protocols is used to determine the MAC address for a known IP address? 200-125 pdf
A. DNS
B. DHCP
C. WINS
D. ARP
E. ICMP
Answer: D

Question 19
RIPv2 advertisements are sent to what multicast IP address?
A. 224.0.0.5
B. 224.0.0.6
C. 224.0.0.9
D. 224.0.0.10
Answer: C

Question 20
What file transfer protocol uses a connectionless Layer 4 transport protocol and does not required user authentication?200-125 dumps
A. TFTP
B. SFTP
C. FTP
D. SSH
E. Telnet
Answer: A

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[2017 New Version] High Quality Latest Cisco 810-403 Dumps PDF Questions And Youtube Free Download

Latest Cisco 810-403 dumps exam questions and answers online free download, the best and most updated Cisco Business Value Specialist 810-403 dumps pdf training materials and study guide free try. http://www.gotocert.com/810-403.html dumps pdf practice files. Cisco Business Value Specialist 810-403 dumps exam is the industry leader in information technology, pass 810-403 exam test easily at first attempt.

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QUESTION 1
CSFs define what an organization should be good at. Which two options are characteristics of CSFs? (Choose two.)
A. CSFs are quantitative in nature and focus stakeholder relationships
B. CSFs describe an element that is needed by an organization or project to reach its goal
C. CSFs help link business initiatives or processes with selling, designing, developing, and adopting solutions and services
D. CSFs should receive special and continual attention from management in order to help the organization be effective
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
In a cloud implementation scenario, what does the sales professional must take into consideration regarding the revenue of a business outcomes selling?
A. Revenue from this model could increase in 25%.
B. Revenue from this model is immediate.
C. Revenue from this model is realized over a longer period of time.
D. Revenue from this model is three times bigger than in the traditional product selling.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
According to Cisco and related to customers, which is the one and only outstanding reason and justification for business outcome-based sales approach? 810-403 pdf
A. Executives are interested in satisfying customers’ needs and requirements.
B. Managers and supervisors are committed to close the quality of service gap.
C. Stakeholders are interested in being considered when developing and assessing business outcomes.
D. Customers are interested in solutions and services that result in measurable outcomes.
Correct Answer: D
810-403 dumpsQUESTION 4                                   810-403 dumps
RACI model aids can be used to understand specific aspects of stakeholders’ involvement in businesses.
What does RACI stand for?
A. Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed
B. Reconciler, Accountable, Consulted, Independent
C. Responsible, Assertive, Consulted, Informed
D. Reconciler, Assertive, Consulted, Informed
E. Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Influenced
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Cisco solutions and services are related to every kind of outcomes. Which is the goal of business outcomes?
A. To enable CXOs or Line of Business leaders to grow revenues, lower operating costs and achieve strategic business objectives
B. To help customers establish new technology or evolve current functionality
C. To help customers operate, manage and optimize technology environment more effectively
D. To take advantage of new technology to increase business relevance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which two options are part of customer relationship management? (Choose two.)
A. Developing market research.
B. Moving the customer towards positive decisions about IT investments and initiatives
C. Classifying customer segments.
D. Identifying key stakeholders.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
Which options are two benefits of understanding the customer’s business model? (Choose two.) 810-403 dumps
A. Understanding the customer’s business model changes the way you interact with your customer.
B. Understanding the customer’s business model provides control and assessment of project challenges.
C. Understanding the customer’s business model helps track progress through outcomes.
D. Understanding the customer’s business model is used to address the sales force mindset.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
Which four aspects are considered by the Business Model Canvas? (Choose four.)
A. Finances
B. Business structure
C. Sales people
D. Business development teams
E. Business value proposition
F. Strategic Analysis
Correct Answer: ABCE

QUESTION 9
What should sales professionals do to ensure that business outcomes support what the customer brings to the market? 810-403 pdf
A. Make a list of the CSFs and KPIs of the organization.
B. Interview the different stakeholders and confirm with them.
C. Understand the customer’s services portfolio.
D. Understand the customer’s value proposition.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which one of the following solutions enables business outcomes in the financial industry?
A. Multilayer Switching
B. Remote Expert
C. Plant Floor Control Network
D. Internet of EverythingE. Medianet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
What is ROI?
A. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing present value from a technology solution by the cost of that technology solution.
B. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing total investment from a technology solution by the cost of that technology solution.
C. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing net return from a technology solution by the margin of that technology solution.
D. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing net return from a technology solution by the cost of that technology solution.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which are two reasons customers look for Cisco and its partners’ solutions and services? (Choose two.) 810-403 dumps
A. to explore how technology innovation yields new revenue and lowers costs
B. to help make a retailer aware of a restocking need while more quickly relying on human interaction
C. to help business more effectively deploy, absorb, and adopt technologies
D. to enable customers to complete marketing research as part of their investment funds
E. to help business reduce the total cost of ownership for IT
Correct Answer: AC

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810-502
QUESTION 1
CSFs define what an organization should be good at. Which two options are characteristics of CSFs? (Choose two.)
A. CSFs are quantitative in nature and focus stakeholder relationships
B. CSFs describe an element that is needed by an organization or project to reach its goal
C. CSFs help link business initiatives or processes with selling, designing, developing, and adopting solutions and services
D. CSFs should receive special and continual attention from management in order to help the organization be effective
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
What is ROI?
A. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing present value from a technology solution by the cost of that technology solution.
B. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing total investment from a technology solution by the cost of that technology solution.
C. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing net return from a technology solution by the margin of that technology solution.
D. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing net return from a technology solution by the cost of that technology solution.
Correct Answer: D
810-502
QUESTION 3        810-502 dumps
Which options are two benefits of understanding the customer’s business model? (Choose two.)
A. Understanding the customer’s business model changes the way you interact with your customer.
B. Understanding the customer’s business model provides control and assessment of project challenges.
C. Understanding the customer’s business model helps track progress through outcomes.
D. Understanding the customer’s business model is used to address the sales force mindset.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
Which four aspects are considered by the Business Model Canvas? (Choose four.)
A. Finances
B. Business structure
C. Sales people
D. Business development teams
E. Business value proposition
F. Strategic Analysis
Correct Answer: ABCE

QUESTION 5
What should sales professionals do to ensure that business outcomes support what the customer brings to the market?
A. Make a list of the CSFs and KPIs of the organization.
B. Interview the different stakeholders and confirm with them.
C. Understand the customer’s services portfolio.
D. Understand the customer’s value proposition.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which one of the following solutions enables business outcomes in the financial industry?
A. Multilayer Switching
B. Remote Expert
C. Plant Floor Control Network
D. Internet of EverythingE. Medianet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
According to Cisco and related to customers, which is the one and only outstanding reason and justification for business outcome-based sales approach?
A. Executives are interested in satisfying customers’ needs and requirements.
B. Managers and supervisors are committed to close the quality of service gap.
C. Stakeholders are interested in being considered when developing and assessing business outcomes.
D. Customers are interested in solutions and services that result in measurable outcomes.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
RACI model aids can be used to understand specific aspects of stakeholders’ involvement in businesses.
What does RACI stand for?
A. Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed
B. Reconciler, Accountable, Consulted, Independent
C. Responsible, Assertive, Consulted, Informed
D. Reconciler, Assertive, Consulted, Informed
E. Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Influenced
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Cisco solutions and services are related to every kind of outcomes. Which is the goal of business outcomes?
A. To enable CXOs or Line of Business leaders to grow revenues, lower operating costs and achieve strategic business objectives
B. To help customers establish new technology or evolve current functionality
C. To help customers operate, manage and optimize technology environment more effectively
D. To take advantage of new technology to increase business relevance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which two options are part of customer relationship management? (Choose two.) 810-502 dumps
A. Developing market research.
B. Moving the customer towards positive decisions about IT investments and initiatives
C. Classifying customer segments.
D. Identifying key stakeholders.
Correct Answer: BD

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