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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSE
Exam Name: Implementing an Advanced Server Infrastructure
Exam Code: 70-414
Total Questions: 243 Q&As
70-414 dumps
QUESTION 1
You need to recommend a solution for managing updates.The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. A System Center 2012 Configuration Manager management point in the main office and a WSUS downstream server in each office
B. A System Center 2012 Configuration Manager software update point in the main office and a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager distribution point in each office
C. A System Center 2012 Configuration Manager management point in the main office and a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager distribution point in each office
D. A WSUS upstream server in the main office and a WSUS downstream server in each office
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You need to recommend a solution that resolves the current file server issue. The solution must meet the business requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. BranchCache in hosted cache mode
B. BranchCache in distributed cache mode
C. A storage pool
D. Distributed File System (DFS)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You need to create a virtual machine template for the web servers used by the CRM application. 70-414 dumps The solution must meet the virtualization requirements.
What should you use?
A. An .iso image
B. A virtual machine
C. A Windows PowerShell script
D. A virtual hard disk (VHD)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
You need to ensure that Group1 can perform the required tasks. The solution must meet the visualization requirements.
What should you create?
A. A collection
B. A host group
C. An organizational unit (OU)
D. A site
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You need to recommend a solution that meets the technical requirements for DHCP.
What should you include in the recommendation for each office?
A. DHCP failover
B. Network Load Balancing (NLB)
C. DHCP server policies
D. IP Address Management (IPAM)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You need to create a service template for the web servers used by the CRM application.
What should you include in the service template?
A. A VIP template
B. A host profile
C. Guest OS profile
D. A capability profile
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You need to recommend a solution that manages the security events. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
Which configuration should you include in the recommendation?
A. Object access auditing by using a Group Policy object (GPO)
B. Event rules by using System Center 2012 Operations Manager
C. Event forwarding by using Event Viewer
D. Audit Collection Services (ACS) by using System Center 2012
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
You are planning the deployment of System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM). You need to identify which additional System Center 2012 product is required to meet the virtualization requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. App Controller
B. Operations Manager
C. Configuration Manager
D. Service Manager
Correct Answer: B
70-414 dumps
QUESTION 9
You need to recommend a solution for deploying the web servers for the CRM application. The solution must meet the visualization requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Network Load Balancing (NLB) without affinity
B. Failover Clustering with one active node
C. Failover Clustering with two active nodes
D. Network Load Balancing (NLB) with client affinity
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
You are planning the delegation for the virtualization environment. 70-414 dumps The delegation must meet the visualization requirements.
Which user role profile should you select for Group2?
A. Administrators
B. Read-Only Administrator
C. Self-Service User
D. Delegated Administrator
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You need to recommend a solution for updating the virtualization hosts. The solution must meet the visualization requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Cluster-Aware Updating
B. WSUS
C. System Center Updates Publisher 2011
D. System Center 2012 Configuration Manager
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
You need to recommend an automated remediation solution for the ReliableTimeSource registry value.
The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. A System Center 2102 Configuration Manager configuration baseline.
B. A System Center 2012 Operations Manager performance counter rule.
C. A System Center 2012 Configuration Manager maintenance task.
D. A System Center 2012 Operations Manager event rule.
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP Routing and Switching
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Exam Code: 300-135
Total Questions: 118 Q&As
300-135 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which two statements about the Cisco Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) are true? (Select two)
A. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) profile manager feature can create and manage only one profile for the wireless client adapter.
B. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can support only one wireless client adapter installed and used at a time.
C. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can be used to establish the association between the client adapter and the access point, manage authentication to the wireless network, and enable encryption.
D. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) and the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager can be used at the same time to configure the wireless client adapter.
Correct Answer: B,C

QUESTION 2
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. 300-135 dumps What is the next thing that should be checked?
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which three features are benefits of using GRE tunnels in conjunction with IPsec for building site-to-site VPNs? (Choose three.)
A. allows dynamic routing over the tunnel
B. supports multi-protocol (non-IP) traffic over the tunnel
C. reduces IPsec headers overhead since tunnel mode is used
D. simplifies the ACL used in the crypto map
E. uses Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI) to simplify the IPsec VPN configuration
Correct Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION 4
What is the result if you configure two devices with the ntp server command?
A. Nothing will happen until one of the devices is configured with the prefer parameter.
B. The NTP protocol will determine which server is most reliable and will synchronize to that server.
C. The device with the highest priority will become the active server and the other device will become the backup server.
D. The device with the lowest MAC address will become the active server and the other device will become the backup server.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Exhibit:
300-135 dumps
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RouterA, IP address 10.1.2.1, and RouterB, IP address 10.1.2.2. Given the debug output on RouterA, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched autonomous system numbers.
B. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
C. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched authentication parameters.
D. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms.
E. RouterA will form an adjacency with RouterB.
F. RouterA will not form an adjacency with RouterB.
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 6
Which three management categories are contained in the FCAPS network maintenance model? 300-135 dumps (Choose three.)
A. Config
B. Fault
C. Storage
D. Accounting
E. Redundancy
F. Telecommunications
Correct Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION 7
The following command is issued on a Cisco Router:
Router(configuration)#logging console warnings
Which alerts will be seen on the console?
A. Warnings only
B. debugging, informational, notifications, warnings
C. warnings, errors, critical, alerts, emergencies
D. notifications, warnings, errors
E. warnings, errors, critical, alerts
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
What is the result of configuring the logging console warning command?
A. Messages with a severity level of 4 and higher will be logged to all available TTY lines.
B. Only warning messages will be logged on the console.
C. Warning, error, critical, and informational messages will be logged on the console.
D. Warning, critical, alert, and emergency messages will be logged on the console.
E. The logging console warning command needs to be followed in the configuration with logging buffered byte size to specify the message buffer size for the console.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which statement is true about an IPsec/GRE tunnel?
A. The GRE tunnel source and destination addresses are specified within the IPsec transform set.
B. An IPsec/GRE tunnel must use IPsec tunnel mode.
C. GRE encapsulation occurs before the IPsec encryption process.
D. Crypto map ACL is not needed to match which traffic will be protected.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You want to enhance the security within the Company LAN and prevent VLAN hopping. What two steps can be taken to help prevent this? (Select two)
A. Enable BPD guard
B. Disable CDP on ports where it is not necessary
C. Place unused ports in a common unrouted VLAN
D. Prevent automatic trunk configuration
E. Implement port security
Correct Answer: C,D

QUESTION 11
Refer to the shown below. 300-135 dumps
%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up
%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up
What statement is correct regarding the output shown in the graphic?
A. These two log messages will not have a severity level. They are not errors but are just informational messages.
B. The first log message is categorized as a warning message.
C. These messages regarding interface status are normal output and will always be displayed when you exit config mode.
D. The first log message is an error message with a severity level of 3.
E. The second message would be shown if the logging console warning command had been issued.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
EIGRP is being used as the routing protocol on the Company network. While troubleshooting some network connectivity issues, you notice a large number of EIGRP SIA (Stuck in Active) messages. What causes these SIA routes? (Select two)
A. The neighboring router stops receiving ACK packets from this router.
B. The neighboring router starts receiving route updates from this router.
C. The neighboring router is too busy to answer the query (generally caused by high CPU utilization).
D. The neighboring router is having memory problems and cannot allocate the memory to process the query or build the reply packet.
Correct Answer: C,D

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft Specialist
Exam Name: Virtualizing Enterprise Desktops and Apps
Exam Code: 70-694
Total Questions: 112 Q&As
70-694 dumps
QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. Contoso.com is synchronized to a Microsoft Azure Active Directory. You have a Microsoft lntune subscription. Your company pLANs to implement a Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) policy. You will provide users with access to corporate data from their personal iOS devices.
You need to ensure that you can manage the personal iOS devices.
What should you do first?
A. lnstall the Company Portal app from the App1e App Store.
B. Create a device enrollment manager account.
C. Set a DNS alias for the enrollment server address.
D. Configure the lntune Service to Service Connector for Hosted Exchange.
E. Enroll for an App1e Push Notification (APN) certificate.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
You are an lT consultant for small and mid-sized business.
One of your clients wants to start using Virtual Smart Cards on its Windows 10 Enterprise laptops and tablets. Before implementing any changes, the client wants to ensure that the laptops and tablets support Virtual Smart Cards. You need to verify that the client laptops and tablets support Virtual Smart Cards. 70-694 dumps
What should you do?
A. Ensure that each laptop and tablet has a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chip of version l.2 or greater.
B. Ensure that Bitlocker Drive Encryption is enabled on a system drive of the laptops and tablets.
C. Ensure that each laptop and tablet can read a physical smart card.
D. Ensure that the laptops and tablets are running Windows 10 Enter prise edition.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You administer Windows 10 Enter prise desk top computers that are members of an Active Directory domain. You want to create an archived copy of user profiles that are stored on the desktops. You create a standard domain user account to run a backup task.
You need to grant the backup task user account access to the user profiles.
What should you do?
A. Add the backup task account to the Remote Management Users group on a domain controller.
B. Add the backup task account to the Backup Operators group on every computer.
C. Add the backup task account to the Backup Operators group on a domain controller.
D. Set the backup task account as NTFS owner on all the profiles.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You need to resolve the Windows update issue.
What should you do?
A. Modify the Group Policy objects (GPOs) in Active Directory.
B. Synchronize software updates from Configuration Manager.
C. Create an automatic deployment rule.
D. Add distribution points to each branch office.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You have a Microsoft lntune subscription.
You have three security groups named Security1, Security2 and Security3. Security1 is the parent group of Security2.
Security2 has l00 users.
You need to change the parent group of Security2 to be Security3.
What should you do first?
A. Edit the properties of Security1.
B. Edit the properties of Security2.
C. Delete security2.
D. Remove all users from Security2.
Correct Answer: C
70-694 dumps
QUESTION 6
You are the network administrator for Contoso, ltd. Many users have Windows 10 Enterprise laptops, and your lT department configures all of the to use Bit locker on all fixed drives. 70-694 dumps
Many users carry sensitive corporate data on their USB drives.
You need to enable Bitlocker for these USB drives.Which key protector option should you use?
A. a smartcard
B. a startup key
C. TPM+PlN
D. TPM+Password
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
You manage Microsoft lntune for a company named Contoso.lntune client computers run Windows 10 Enterprise.
You notice that there are 25 mandatory updates listed in the lntune administration console. You need to prevent users from receiving prompts to restart Windows following the installation of mandatory updates.
Which policy template should you use?
A. Microsoft lntune Agent Settings
B. Windows Configuration Policy
C. Microsoft lntune Center Settings
D. WindowsCustomPolicy(Windows 10andWindows 10Mobile)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You need to prepare Server11.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Create a file named No_sms_on_drive in the root of drive C.
B. From the Add Site System Roles Wizard, set the primary package share location to Automatic.
C. From the Add Site System Roles Wizard, set the primary content location to E.
D. From the Add Site System Roles Wizard, set the primary package share location to E.
E. Copy Prepdrv.inf to the root of drive C.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
You use a Windows 8.l tablet. The tablet receives Windows Update updates automatically from the lnternet. The tablet has Wi-Fi and is connected to a 3G mobile broadband Wi-Fi hot spot. You need to minimize data usage while connected to this hot spot.
What should you do?
A. Turn on AirpLANe Mode.
B. Disable File and Print Sharing for mobile broadband connections.
C. Configure the interfacemetricoflPsettings for Wi-Ficonnectionasl.
D. Edit the lnbound Rule of Windows Firewall, and then disable lnternet Control Message Protocol (lCMP) traffic.
E. Configure the broadband connection as a metered network.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 10
You have an Active Directory domain named contoso.com that contains a deployment of Microsoft System Center 20l2 Configuration Manager Service Pack 1 (SP1). 70-694 dumps You have a Microsoft lntune subscription that is synchronized to contoso.com by using the Microsoft Azure Active Directory Synchronization Tool (DirSync.) You need to ensure that you can use Configuration Manager to manage the devices that are registered to your Microsoft lntune subscription.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents a part of the solution.
A. ln Microsoft lntune, create a new device enrollment manager account.
B. lnstall and configure Azure Active Directory Synchronization Services (AAD Sync.)
C. ln Microsoft lntune, configure an Exchange Connector.
D. ln Configuration Manager, configure the Microsoft lntune Connector role.
E. ln Configuration Manager, create the Microsoft lntune subscription.
Correct Answer: DE

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[2017 New Version] 300-209 Dumps Latest Cisco PDF Practice Questions And Youtube Free Update

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QUESTION 1
Which technology must be installed on the client computer to enable users to launch applications from a Clientless SSL VPN?
A. Java
B. QuickTime plug-in
C. Silverlight
D. Flash
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which command simplifies the task of converting an SSL VPN to an IKEv2 VPN on a Cisco ASA appliance that has an invalid IKEv2 configuration? 300-309 pdf
A. migrate remote-access ssl overwrite
B. migrate remote-access ikev2
C. migrate l2l
D. migrate remote-access ssl
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
When you troubleshoot Cisco AnyConnect, which step does Cisco recommend before you open a TAC case?
A. Show applet Lifecycle exceptions.
B. Disable cookies.
C. Enable the WebVPN cache.
D. Collect a DART bundle.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
300-209 dumps
The network administrator is adding a new spoke, but the tunnel is not passing traffic. 300-209 dumps What could cause this issue?
A. DMVPN is a point-to-point tunnel, so there can be only one spoke.
B. There is no EIGRP configuration, and therefore the second tunnel is not working.
C. The NHRP authentication is failing.
D. The transform set must be in transport mode, which is a requirement for DMVPN.
E. The NHRP network ID is incorrect.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which two types of authentication are supported when you use Cisco ASDM to configure site-to-site IKEv2 with IPv6? (Choose two.)
A. preshared key
B. webAuth
C. digital certificates
D. XAUTH
E. EAP
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
An internet-based VPN solution is being considered to replace an existing private WAN connecting remote offices. A multimedia application is used that relies on multicast for communication. Which two VPN solutions meet the application’s network requirement? (Choose two.)
A. FlexVPN
B. DMVPN
C. Group Encrypted Transport VPN
D. Crypto-map based Site-to-Site IPsec VPNs
E. AnyConnect VPN
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 7
Which application does the Application Access feature of Clientless VPN support?
A. TFTP
B. VoIP
C. Telnet
D. active FTP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which algorithm is replaced by elliptic curve cryptography in Cisco NGE? 300-209 dumps
A. 3DES
B. AES
C. DES
D. RSA
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which two GDOI encryption keys are used within a GET VPN network? 300-309 pdf (Choose two.)
A. key encryption key
B. group encryption key
C. user encryption key
D. traffic encryption key
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 10
Which command identifies an AnyConnect profile that was uploaded to the router flash?
A. crypto vpn anyconnect profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml
B. svc import profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml
C. anyconnect profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml
D. webvpn import profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
To change the title panel on the logon page of the Cisco IOS WebVPN portal, which file must you configure?
A. Cisco IOS WebVPN customization template
B. Cisco IOS WebVPN customization general
C. web-access-hlp.inc
D. app-access-hlp.inc
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A user is unable to establish an AnyConnect VPN connection to an ASA. 300-209 dumps When using the Real-Time Log viewer within ASDM to troubleshoot the issue, which two filter options would the administrator choose to show only syslog messages relevant to the VPN connection? (Choose two.)
A. Client’s public IP address
B. Client’s operating system
C. Client’s default gateway IP address
D. Client’s username
E. ASA’s public IP address
Correct Answer: AD

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QUESTION 1
Which statements are TRUE regarding Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses? (Choose three.)
A. An IPv6 address is divided into eight 16-bit groups.
B. A double colon (::) can only be used once in a single IPv6 address.
C. IPv6 addresses are 196 bits in length.
D. Leading zeros cannot be omitted in an IPv6 address.
E. Groups with a value of 0 can be represented with a single 0 in IPv6 address.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 2
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
What is one requirement for interfaces to run IPv6? 100-105 pdf
A. An IPv6 address must be configured on the interface.
B. An IPv4 address must be configured.
C. Stateless autoconfiguration must be enabled after enabling IPv6 on the interface.
D. IPv6 must be enabled with the ipv6 enable command in global configuration mode.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
HostX is transferring a file to the FTP server. 100-105 dumps Point A represents the frame as it goes toward the Toronto router. What will the Layer 2 destination address be at this point?
A. abcd.1123.0045
B. 192.168.7.17
C. aabb.5555.2222
D. 192.168.1.1
E. abcd.2246.0035
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 5
Which transport layer protocol provides best-effort delivery service with no acknowledgment receipt required?
A. HTTP
B. IP
C. TCP
D. Telnet
E. UDP
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 6
A workstation has just resolved a browser URL to the IP address of a server. What protocol will the workstation now use to determine the destination MAC address to be placed into frames directed toward the server?
A. HTTP
B. DNS
C. DHCP
D. RARP
E. ARP
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 7
Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? 100-105 pdf (Choose two.)
A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method.
D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data.
E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
F. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each other prior to transmitting data.
Correct Answer: B,E

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
The output is from a router in a large enterprise. From the output, determine the role of the router.
A. A Core router.
B. The HQ Internet gateway router.
C. The WAN router at the central site.
D. Remote stub router at a remote site.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers? 100-105 dumps
A. Internet layer
B. transport layer
C. application layer
D. network access layer
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
What must occur before a workstation can exchange HTTP packets with a web server?
A. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
B. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
C. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
D. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
E. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
F. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
Correct Answer: D

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Question 11
You are in interface configuration mode of a Cisco router, and you want to assign an IP address of 172.16.1.1 /24 to the interfacE. 200-125 pdf Which of the following is the command you should enter?
A. Router1(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 /24
B. Router1(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 0.0.0.255
C. Router1(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.0
D. Router1(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 classful
Answer: C

Question 12
A Layer 2 Ethernet switch with 12 ports, where all ports belong to the same VLAN, has how many collision domains and how many broadcast domains?
A. 12 collision domains and 12 broadcast domains
B. 1 collision domain and 1 broadcast domain
C. 12 collision domains and 1 broadcast domain
D. 1 collision domain and 12 broadcast domains
Answer: C

Question 13
In the diagram below, Client A is sending a packet to Host 1. As the frame is coming into the Fa 0/0 interface on router R2, what is the destination MAC address in the frame’s header?  200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
A. Host 1’s MAC address
B. Client A’s MAC address
C. Router R1’s Fa 0/0 MAC address
D. Router R2’s Fa 0/0 MAC address
E. Router R2’s Fa 0/1 MAC address
Answer: D

Question 14
A traditional Ethernet switch operates at which layer of the OSI Model?
A. Transport
B. Data Link
C. Network
D. Physical
E. Session
Answer: B

Question 15
Which three of the following are components of a network secured using IEEE 802.1x? (Choose 3.)
A. Encryption Server
B. Supplicant
C. Authorization Server
D. Key Manager
E. Authenticator
F. Authentication Server
Answer: BEF

Question 16
What protocol allows multiple hosts to dynamically obtain IP addresses from a server?200-125 dumps
A. DNS
B. DHCP
C. WINS
D. ARP
E. ICMP
Answer: B

Question 17
You are connected to the console line of RouterA. From there, you connect to RouterB via Telnet. Without terminating the Telnet session, what key sequence could you enter to return to the RouterA prompt?
A. <CTRL-SHIFT-6> x
B. <CTRL-Break>
C. <CTRL-ALT-DELETE>
D. <CTRL-ALT-x>
Answer: A

Question 18
Which of the follow protocols is used to determine the MAC address for a known IP address? 200-125 pdf
A. DNS
B. DHCP
C. WINS
D. ARP
E. ICMP
Answer: D

Question 19
RIPv2 advertisements are sent to what multicast IP address?
A. 224.0.0.5
B. 224.0.0.6
C. 224.0.0.9
D. 224.0.0.10
Answer: C

Question 20
What file transfer protocol uses a connectionless Layer 4 transport protocol and does not required user authentication?200-125 dumps
A. TFTP
B. SFTP
C. FTP
D. SSH
E. Telnet
Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
CSFs define what an organization should be good at. Which two options are characteristics of CSFs? (Choose two.)
A. CSFs are quantitative in nature and focus stakeholder relationships
B. CSFs describe an element that is needed by an organization or project to reach its goal
C. CSFs help link business initiatives or processes with selling, designing, developing, and adopting solutions and services
D. CSFs should receive special and continual attention from management in order to help the organization be effective
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
In a cloud implementation scenario, what does the sales professional must take into consideration regarding the revenue of a business outcomes selling?
A. Revenue from this model could increase in 25%.
B. Revenue from this model is immediate.
C. Revenue from this model is realized over a longer period of time.
D. Revenue from this model is three times bigger than in the traditional product selling.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
According to Cisco and related to customers, which is the one and only outstanding reason and justification for business outcome-based sales approach? 810-403 pdf
A. Executives are interested in satisfying customers’ needs and requirements.
B. Managers and supervisors are committed to close the quality of service gap.
C. Stakeholders are interested in being considered when developing and assessing business outcomes.
D. Customers are interested in solutions and services that result in measurable outcomes.
Correct Answer: D
810-403 dumpsQUESTION 4                                   810-403 dumps
RACI model aids can be used to understand specific aspects of stakeholders’ involvement in businesses.
What does RACI stand for?
A. Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed
B. Reconciler, Accountable, Consulted, Independent
C. Responsible, Assertive, Consulted, Informed
D. Reconciler, Assertive, Consulted, Informed
E. Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Influenced
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Cisco solutions and services are related to every kind of outcomes. Which is the goal of business outcomes?
A. To enable CXOs or Line of Business leaders to grow revenues, lower operating costs and achieve strategic business objectives
B. To help customers establish new technology or evolve current functionality
C. To help customers operate, manage and optimize technology environment more effectively
D. To take advantage of new technology to increase business relevance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which two options are part of customer relationship management? (Choose two.)
A. Developing market research.
B. Moving the customer towards positive decisions about IT investments and initiatives
C. Classifying customer segments.
D. Identifying key stakeholders.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
Which options are two benefits of understanding the customer’s business model? (Choose two.) 810-403 dumps
A. Understanding the customer’s business model changes the way you interact with your customer.
B. Understanding the customer’s business model provides control and assessment of project challenges.
C. Understanding the customer’s business model helps track progress through outcomes.
D. Understanding the customer’s business model is used to address the sales force mindset.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
Which four aspects are considered by the Business Model Canvas? (Choose four.)
A. Finances
B. Business structure
C. Sales people
D. Business development teams
E. Business value proposition
F. Strategic Analysis
Correct Answer: ABCE

QUESTION 9
What should sales professionals do to ensure that business outcomes support what the customer brings to the market? 810-403 pdf
A. Make a list of the CSFs and KPIs of the organization.
B. Interview the different stakeholders and confirm with them.
C. Understand the customer’s services portfolio.
D. Understand the customer’s value proposition.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which one of the following solutions enables business outcomes in the financial industry?
A. Multilayer Switching
B. Remote Expert
C. Plant Floor Control Network
D. Internet of EverythingE. Medianet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
What is ROI?
A. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing present value from a technology solution by the cost of that technology solution.
B. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing total investment from a technology solution by the cost of that technology solution.
C. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing net return from a technology solution by the margin of that technology solution.
D. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing net return from a technology solution by the cost of that technology solution.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which are two reasons customers look for Cisco and its partners’ solutions and services? (Choose two.) 810-403 dumps
A. to explore how technology innovation yields new revenue and lowers costs
B. to help make a retailer aware of a restocking need while more quickly relying on human interaction
C. to help business more effectively deploy, absorb, and adopt technologies
D. to enable customers to complete marketing research as part of their investment funds
E. to help business reduce the total cost of ownership for IT
Correct Answer: AC

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810-502
QUESTION 1
CSFs define what an organization should be good at. Which two options are characteristics of CSFs? (Choose two.)
A. CSFs are quantitative in nature and focus stakeholder relationships
B. CSFs describe an element that is needed by an organization or project to reach its goal
C. CSFs help link business initiatives or processes with selling, designing, developing, and adopting solutions and services
D. CSFs should receive special and continual attention from management in order to help the organization be effective
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
What is ROI?
A. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing present value from a technology solution by the cost of that technology solution.
B. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing total investment from a technology solution by the cost of that technology solution.
C. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing net return from a technology solution by the margin of that technology solution.
D. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing net return from a technology solution by the cost of that technology solution.
Correct Answer: D
810-502
QUESTION 3        810-502 dumps
Which options are two benefits of understanding the customer’s business model? (Choose two.)
A. Understanding the customer’s business model changes the way you interact with your customer.
B. Understanding the customer’s business model provides control and assessment of project challenges.
C. Understanding the customer’s business model helps track progress through outcomes.
D. Understanding the customer’s business model is used to address the sales force mindset.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
Which four aspects are considered by the Business Model Canvas? (Choose four.)
A. Finances
B. Business structure
C. Sales people
D. Business development teams
E. Business value proposition
F. Strategic Analysis
Correct Answer: ABCE

QUESTION 5
What should sales professionals do to ensure that business outcomes support what the customer brings to the market?
A. Make a list of the CSFs and KPIs of the organization.
B. Interview the different stakeholders and confirm with them.
C. Understand the customer’s services portfolio.
D. Understand the customer’s value proposition.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which one of the following solutions enables business outcomes in the financial industry?
A. Multilayer Switching
B. Remote Expert
C. Plant Floor Control Network
D. Internet of EverythingE. Medianet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
According to Cisco and related to customers, which is the one and only outstanding reason and justification for business outcome-based sales approach?
A. Executives are interested in satisfying customers’ needs and requirements.
B. Managers and supervisors are committed to close the quality of service gap.
C. Stakeholders are interested in being considered when developing and assessing business outcomes.
D. Customers are interested in solutions and services that result in measurable outcomes.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
RACI model aids can be used to understand specific aspects of stakeholders’ involvement in businesses.
What does RACI stand for?
A. Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed
B. Reconciler, Accountable, Consulted, Independent
C. Responsible, Assertive, Consulted, Informed
D. Reconciler, Assertive, Consulted, Informed
E. Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Influenced
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Cisco solutions and services are related to every kind of outcomes. Which is the goal of business outcomes?
A. To enable CXOs or Line of Business leaders to grow revenues, lower operating costs and achieve strategic business objectives
B. To help customers establish new technology or evolve current functionality
C. To help customers operate, manage and optimize technology environment more effectively
D. To take advantage of new technology to increase business relevance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which two options are part of customer relationship management? (Choose two.) 810-502 dumps
A. Developing market research.
B. Moving the customer towards positive decisions about IT investments and initiatives
C. Classifying customer segments.
D. Identifying key stakeholders.
Correct Answer: BD

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[2017 New Version] Latest Cisco 300-101 Dumps Exam Training Materials And Youtube Free Demo

Trust the best-selling Official Cert Guide series from Cisco  https://www.lead4pass.com/300-101.html dumps exam Press to help you learn, prepare, and practice for exam success. Cisco CCDP 300-101 exam training resources which are the best for clearing 300-101 test, and to get certified by Cisco CCDP.

QUESTION 1
Which traffic characteristic is the reason that UDP traffic that carries voice and video is assigned to the queue only on a link that is at least 768 kbps?
A. typically is not fragmented
B. typically is fragmented
C. causes windowing
D. causes excessive delays for video traffic
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which option is invalid when configuring Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding?
A. allow self ping to router
B. allow default route
C. allow based on ACL match
D. source reachable via both
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
300-101
The DHCP client is unable to receive a DHCP address from the DHCP server. 300-101 Consider the following output:
hostname RouterB
!
interface fastethernet 0/0
ip address 172.31.1.1 255.255.255.0
interface serial 0/0
ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.252
!
ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.2
Which configuration is required on the Router B fastethernet 0/0 port in order to allow the DHCP client to successfully receive an IP address from the DHCP server?
A. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.16.1.2
B. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.16.1.1
C. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.31.1.1
D. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 255.255.255.255
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Refer to the following configuration command.
router(config)# ip nat inside source static tcp 172.16.10.8 8080 172.16.10.8 80
Which statement about the command is true?
A. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP port address of 172.16.10.8:80 is translated to 172.16.10.8:8080.
B. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP port address of 172.16.10.8:8080 is translated to 172.16.10.8:80.
C. The router accepts only a TCP connection from port 8080 and port 80 on IP address 172.16.10.8
D. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP address of 172.16.10.8 is redirected to port 8080 or port 80.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What type of IPv6 packet will indicate traffic from single host and single node?
A. multicast
B. unicast
C. broadcast
D. anycast
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
A network engineer receives reports about poor voice quality issues at a remote site. 300-101 The network engineer does a packet capture and sees out-of-order packets being delivered. Which option can cause the VOIP quality to suffer?
A. traffic over backup redundant links
B. misconfigured voice vlan
C. speed duplex link issues
D. load balancing over redundant links
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which three IP SLA performance metrics can you use to monitor enterprise-class networks? (Choose three.)
A. Packet loss
B. Delay
C. bandwidth
D. Connectivity
E. Reliability
F. traps
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 8
What is the administrative distance for EBGP?
A. 200
B. 30
C. 70
D. 20
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
A network engineer is configuring the router for NetFlow data exporting. What is required in order for NDE to begin exporting data?
A. Source
B. Flow mask
C. Destination
D. Interface type
E. Traffic type
F. NetFlow version
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A network administrator creates a static route that points directly to a multi-access interface, instead of the next-hop IP address. The administrator notices that Cisco Express Forwarding ARP requests are being sent to all destinations. Which issue might this configuration create?
A. Low bandwidth usage
B. High memory usage
C. Cisco Express Forwarding routing loop
D. High bandwidth usage
E. IP route interference
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Cisco 7925G phones are experiencing intermittent connectivity issues. The wireless survey reveals that the facility has no current coverage holes. The radios on the 2.4GHz channel have all been statically set to power level 1. Which two reasons could explain why the phones are having issues on this wireless network? (Choose two.)
A. The phones are experiencing excessive co-channel interference.
B. The phones only operate on the 2.4 GHz band when the power level is above 25 mW.
C. The phones are not transmitting at the same power levels as the access points.
D. The phones are experiencing delays of less than 30 ms within their coverage cell.
E. The phones are receiving greater than -67 dBm RSSI on the 2.4 GHz band.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
When conducting a wireless survey at a customer facility, signal attenuation in an area that is surrounded by thick glass walls is noted as 2dB. When configuring Cisco Prime Infrastructure, which obstacle should be placed in a map editor to represent the impact the glass wall will have on the RF signal in the facility?
A. heavy door
B. thick wall
C. glass
D. light wall
Correct Answer: D
300-360 dumps
QUESTION 3
As part of a wireless site survey in a hospital, an engineer needs to identify potential Layer 1 interferers. In which three areas is the engineer most likely expect to find sources of 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz RF noise? (Choose three.) 300-360 dumps
A. emergency room
B. magnetic resonance imaging
C. laboratory
D. X-ray radiography
E. Gamma Knife radiation treatment
F. kitchen
Correct Answer: ACF

QUESTION 4
An engineer is configuring an autonomous AP for RADIUS authentication. What three pieces of information must be known to configure the AP? (Choose three.)
A. BVI IP address
B. group name
C. RADIUS IP address
D. PAC encryption key
E. username and password
F. shared secret
Correct Answer: ACF

QUESTION 5
An engineer is performing a predictive wireless design for a Parts Distribution Center, which requires data and location services. Which three requirements are inputs to the design? (Choose three.)
A. access points with directional antennas
B. continuous -67 dBm coverage from one access point
C. overlapping -75 dBm coverage from three access points
D. overlapping -67 dBm coverage from two access points
E. access points in IPS mode
F. continuous -72 dBm coverage from one access point
G. access points in corners and along perimeters
Correct Answer: BCG

QUESTION 6
Which two steps are associated with the active portion of the audit when a post-installation audit is performed with an auditing tool such as Ekahau? (Choose two.)
A. Check for co-channel interference by standing near an access point on one channel and watching for other access points that are on the same channel.
B. Verify smooth roaming.
C. Check to see if the signal level on other access points that are heard on the same channel is at least 19 dBm weaker than the access point that you are next to.
D. Check that all channels are supported by the APs, regardless of client capabilities.
E. Verify that the network traffic of physical data rate and packet loss meets user requirements.
Correct Answer: BE

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