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Real and effective ISC Cissp Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Physical security is accomplished through proper facility construction, fire and water protection, anti-theft mechanisms,
intrusion detection systems, and security procedures that are adhered to and enforced. Which of the following is not a
component that achieves this type of security?
A. Administrative control mechanisms
B. Integrity control mechanisms
C. Technical control mechanisms
D. Physical control mechanisms
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Integrity Control Mechanisms are not part of physical security. All of the other detractors were correct this
one was the wrong one that does not belong to Physical Security. Below you have more details extracted from the
SearchSecurity web site:
Information security depends on the security and management of the physical space in which computer systems
operate. Domain 9 of the CISSP exam\\’s Common Body of Knowledge addresses the challenges of securing the
physical space,
its systems and the people who work within it by use of administrative, technical and physical controls. The following
topics are covered:
Facilities management: The administrative processes that govern the maintenance and protection of the physical
operations space, from site selection through emergency response.
Risks, issues and protection strategies: Risk identification and the selection of security protection components.
Perimeter security: Typical physical protection controls.
Facilities management
Facilities management is a complex component of corporate security that ranges from the planning of a secure physical
site to the management of the physical information system environment. Facilities management responsibilities include
site selection and physical security planning (i.e. facility construction, design and layout, fire and water damage
protection, antitheft mechanisms, intrusion detection, and security procedures.) Protections must extend to both people
and
assets. The necessary level of protection depends on the value of the assets and data. CISSP?candidates must learn
the concept of critical-path analysis as a means of determining a component\\’s business function criticality relative to
the
cost of operation and replacement. Furthermore, students need to gain an understanding of the optimal location and
physical attributes of a secure facility. Among the topics covered in this domain are site inspection, location, accessibility
and
obscurity, considering the area crime rate, and the likelihood of natural hazards such as floods or earthquakes.
This domain also covers the quality of construction material, such as its protective qualities and load capabilities, as well
as how to layout the structure to minimize the risk of forcible entry and accidental damage. Regulatory compliance is also
touched on, as is preferred proximity to civil protection services, such as fire and police stations. Attention is given to
computer and equipment rooms, including their location, configuration (entrance/egress requirements) and their
proximity to
wiring distribution centers at the site.
Physical risks, issues and protection strategies
An overview of physical security risks includes the risk of theft, service interruption, physical damage, compromised system
integrity and unauthorized disclosure of information. Interruptions to business can manifest due to loss of power,
services,
telecommunications connectivity and water supply. These can also seriously compromise electronic security monitoring
alarm/response devices. Backup options are also covered in this domain, as is a strategy for quantifying the risk
exposure by a simple formula.
Investment in preventive security can be costly. Appropriate redundancy of people skills, systems and infrastructure
must be based on the criticality of the data and assets to be preserved. Therefore a strategy is presented that helps
determine the selection of cost appropriate controls. Among the topics covered in this domain are regulatory and legal
requirements, common standard security protections such as locks and fences, and the importance of establishing
service
level agreements for maintenance and disaster support. Rounding out the optimization approach are simple calculations
for determining the mean time between failure and mean time to repair (used to estimate average equipment life
expectancy) — essential for estimating the cost/benefit of purchasing and maintaining redundant equipment.
As the lifeblood of computer systems, special attention is placed on adequacy, quality, and protection of power supplies.
CISSP candidates need to understand power supply concepts and terminology, including those for quality (i.e. transient
noise vs. clean power); types of interference (EMI and RFI); and types of interruptions such as power excess by spikes
and surges, power loss by fault or blackout, and power degradation from sags and brownouts. A simple formula is
presented for determining the total cost per hour for backup power. Proving power reliability through testing is
recommended and the advantages of three power protection approaches are discussed (standby UPS, power line
conditioners and
backup sources) including minimum requirements for primary and alternate power provided.
Environmental controls are explored in this domain, including the value of positive pressure water drains and climate
monitoring devices used to control temperature, humidity and reduce static electricity. Optimal temperatures and
humidity
settings are provided. Recommendations include strict procedures during emergencies, preventing typical risks (such as
blocked fans), and the use of antistatic armbands and hygrometers. Positive pressurization for proper ventilation and
monitoring for air-born contaminants is stressed.
The pros and cons of several detection response systems are deeply explored in this domain. The concept of
combustion, the classes of fire and fire extinguisher ratings are detailed. Mechanisms behind smoke-activated, heat-activated and
flame-activated devices and Automatic Dial-up alarms are covered, along with their advantages, costs, and
shortcomings. Types of fire sources are distinguished and the effectiveness of fire suppression methods for each is
included. For
instance, Halon and its approved replacements are covered, as are the advantages and the inherent risks to equipment
of the use of water sprinklers.
Administrative controls The physical security domain also deals with administrative controls applied to physical sites and
assets. The need for skilled personnel, knowledge sharing between them, separation of duties, and appropriate
oversight in the care and maintenance of equipment and environments is stressed. A list of management duties
including hiring checks, employee maintenance activities and recommended termination procedures are offered.
Emergency measures include accountability for evacuation and system shutdown procedures, integration with disaster
and business continuity plans, assuring documented procedures are easily available during different types of
emergencies, the scheduling of periodic equipment testing, administrative reviews of documentation, procedures and
recovery plans, responsibilities delegation, and personnel training and drills.
Perimeter security Domain nine also covers the devices and techniques used to control access to space. These
include access control devices, surveillance monitoring, intrusion detection, and corrective actions. Specifications are
provided for optimal external boundary protection, including fence heights and placement, and lighting placement and
types. The selection of door types and lock characteristics are covered. Surveillance methods and intrusion-detection
methods are explained, including the use of video monitoring, guards, dogs, proximity detection systems,
photoelectric/photometric systems, wave pattern devices, passive infrared systems, and sound and motion detectors,
and current flow sensitivity devices that specifically address computer theft. Room lock types — both preset and cipher
locks (and their variations) — device locks, such as portable laptop locks, lockable server bays, switch control locks and
slot locks, port controls, peripheral switch controls, and cable trap locks are also covered. Personal access control
methods used to identify authorized users for site entry are covered at length, noting social engineering risks such as
piggybacking. Wireless proximity devices, both user access and system sensing readers are covered (i.e. transponder
based, passive devices and field powered devices) in this domain.
Now that you\\’ve been introduced to the key concepts of Domain 9, watch the Domain 9, Physical Security video
Return to the CISSP Essentials Security School the main page See all SearchSecurity.com\\’s resources on CISSP
certification training
Source: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw- Hill/Osborne, 2001, Page 280.

 

QUESTION 2
Which is a property of a circuit-switched network as opposed to a packet-switched network?
A. Physical, permanent connections exist from one point to another in a circuit-switched network.
B. The data is broken up into packets.
C. Packets are reassembled according to their originally assigned sequence numbers.
D. The data is sent to the next destination, which is based on router\\’s understanding of the best available route.
Correct Answer: A
The correct answer is “Physical, permanent connections exist from one point to another in a circuit-switched network”.
Permanent connections are a feature of circuit-switched networks.

 

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is the BEST way to determine if a particular system is able to identify malicious software without
executing it?
A. Testing with a Botnet
B. Testing with an EICAR file
C. Executing a binary shellcode
D. Run multiple antivirus programs
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is considered best practice for preventing e-mail spoofing?
A. Spam filtering
B. Cryptographic signature
C. Uniform Resource Locator (URL) filtering
D. Reverse Domain Name Service (DNS) lookup
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
Which is NOT considered a physical intrusion detection method?
A. Wave pattern motion detector
B. Audio motion detector
C. Photoelectric sensor
D. Line supervision
Correct Answer: D
Line supervision is the monitoring of the alarm signaling transmission medium to detect tampering. Audio detectors
monitor a room for any abnormal sound wave generation. Photoelectric sensors receive a beam of light from a light-emitting device. Wave pattern motion detectors generate a wave pattern and send an alarm if the pattern is disturbed.

 

QUESTION 6
Which of the following statements pertaining to fire suppression systems is TRUE?
A. Halon is today the most common choice as far as an agent is concern because it is highly effective in the way that it
interferes with the chemical reaction of the elements within a fire.
B. Gas masks provide effective protection against the use of CO2 systems. They are recommended for the protection of
the employees within data centers.
C. CO2 systems are NOT effective because they suppress the oxygen supply required to sustain the fire.
D. Water-Based extinguisher are NOT an effective fire suppression method for class C (electrical) fires.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Water Based fire extinguishers should never be used on Electrical Fire. If you do so, it will probably the last
time you use such an extinguisher to put out an electrical fire as you will be electrocuted. Any liquid based agent should
be avoided for Electrical Fire.
CO2 systems are effective because they suppress the oxygen supply required to sustain the fire. Since oxygen is
removed, it can be potentially lethal to people and gas masks do not provide protection against CO2. These systems
are more
appropriate for unattended facilities.
The Montreal Protocol of 1987 states that Halon has been designated an ozone-depleting substance and due to the risk
to the environment, production was stopped on January 1st, 1994. Companies that still have Halon systems have been
asked to replace them with nontoxic extinguishers. The name of the agreement is called The Montreal Protocol.
Soda acid is an effective fire suppression method for common combustibles and liquids, but not for electrical fires.
TIP:
Do remember the name of the agreement that was signed in Montreal where countries have agreed to stop production
of Halon, it is called: The Montreal Protocol
A student of mine told me that he thinks about me when he wishes to remember the classes of fire, that scared me off a bit
but his explanations made a lot of sense, here how he is using my first name to remember the classes of fire. My name
is CLEMENT but he is using only the CLEM portion:
C = Common Combustible
L = Liquid Fire
E = Electrical Fire
M = Metals that are flammable
THERE IS ANOTHER WAY TO REMEMBER THEM FROM HARRISON:
A – Ash (common combustible)
B – Bubble/Boil (Liquid)
C – Circuit (Electrical)
D – Metal. (Just remember it 🙂
Reference(s) used for this question:
HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2002, chapter 6: Physical Security
(page 313).

 

QUESTION 7
Examples of types of physical access controls include all except which of the following?
A. badges
B. locks
C. guards
D. passwords
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: A password is not a physical thing, it\\’s a logical one. You can control physical access with armed guards,
by locking doors and using badges to open doors, but you can\\’t relate password to a physical environment. Just to
remember, Passwords are used to verify that the user of an ID is the owner of the ID. The ID-password combination is
unique to each user and therefore provides a means of holding users accountable for their activity on the system. They
are related to software, not hardware.

 

QUESTION 8
What attack involves the perpetrator sending a spoofed packet(s) with the SYN flag set to the victim\\’s machine on any
the open port that is listening?
A. Bonk attack
B. Land attack
C. Teardrop attack
D. Smurf attack
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Land attack involves the perpetrator sending a spoofed packet(s) with the SYN flag set to the victim\\’s
the machine on any open port that is listening. If the packet(s) contain the same destination and source IP address as the
host,
the victim\\’s machine could hang or reboot.
In addition, most systems experience a total freeze up, whereas CTRL-ALT-DELETE fails to work, the mouse and
keyboard become nonoperational and the only method of correction is to reboot via a reset button on the system or by
turning
the machine off.
Vulnerable Systems:
This will affect almost all Windows 95, Windows NT, Windows for Workgroups systems that are not properly patched
and allow Net Bios over TCP/IP. In addition, machines running services such as HTTP, FTP, Identd, etc that do not
filter
packet(s), that contain the same source/destination IP address, can still be vulnerable to attack through those ports.
Prevention:
This attack can be prevented for open / listening ports by filtering inbound packets containing the same source /
destination IP address at the router or firewall level. For most home users not running a lot of services, and for those
who use
IRC, disabling the Identd server within their client will stop most attacks since the identd service (113) is becoming the
most attacked service/port.

 

QUESTION 9
Which one of the following is not a primary component or aspect of firewall systems?
A. Protocol filtering
B. Packet switching
C. Rule enforcement engine
D. Extended logging capability
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: This is not the main function of a firewall, packet switching is the main feature of a Switch (working only in
layer 2 of the OSI model). A firewall is a network security device that can function through layer 2 to layer 7 of the OSI
model. They usually include a rule engine that enforces the enterprise security policy of the company. They provide
protocol filtering to enforce our requirements through the forwarded or deny of traffic. They also provide logging
capabilities so we can analyze what is happening at a very low level in our network.

 

QUESTION 10
An area of the Telecommunications and Network Security domain that directly affects the Information Systems Security
a tenet of Availability can be defined as:
A. Netware availability
B. Network availability
C. Network acceptability
D. Network accountability
Correct Answer: B
Details:
The Answer: Network availability can be defined as an area of the Telecommunications and
Network Security domain that directly affects the Information Systems Security tenet of Availability. Source: KRUTZ,
Ronald L. and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001,
John Wiley and Sons, Page 64.

 

QUESTION 11
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a distributed data processing (DDP) approach?
A. Consists of multiple processing locations that can provide alternatives for computing in the event of a site becoming
inoperative.
B. Data stored at multiple, geographically separate locations are easily available to the user.
C. Distances from user to processing resources are transparent to the user.
D. Security is enhanced because of networked systems.
Correct Answer: D
Security is more of a concern in distributed systems since there are vulnerabilities associated with the network and the
many locations from which unauthorized access to the computing resources can occur. The other answers are
the characteristics of a DDP architecture.

 

QUESTION 12
The graph in Figure, which depicts the equation y 2 = x3 + ax + b, denotes the:
Exhibit:latestvce Cissp exam questions q12

A. RSA Factoring problem
B. Elliptic curve and the elliptic curve discrete logarithm problem
C. ElGamal discrete logarithm problem
D. Knapsack problem
Correct Answer: B
The elliptic curve is defined over a finite field comprised of real, complex or rational numbers. The points on an elliptic
curve form a group under addition. Multiplication (or multiple additions) in an elliptic curve system is equivalent to
modular exponentiation; thus, defining a discreet logarithm problem.

 

QUESTION 13
What would BEST define a covert channel?
A. An undocumented backdoor that has been left by a programmer in an operating system
B. An open system port that should be closed.
C. A communication channel that allows the transfer of information in a manner that violates the system\\’s security policy.
D. A trojan horse.
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Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A covert channel is a way for an entity to receive information in an unauthorized manner. It is an
information flow that is not controlled by a security mechanism. This type of information path was not developed for
communication;
thus, the system does not properly protect this path, because the developers never envisioned information being passed
in this way.
Receiving information in this manner clearly violates the system\\’s security policy. The channel to transfer this
unauthorized data is the result of one of the following conditions:?Oversight in the development of the product
?Improper implementation of access controls
?Existence of a shared resource between the two entities?Installation of a Trojan horse
The following answers are incorrect:
An undocumented backdoor that has been left by a programmer in an operating system is incorrect because it is not a
means by which unauthorized transfer of information takes place. Such backdoor is usually referred to as a
Maintenance
Hook. An open system port that should be closed is incorrect as it does not define a covert channel.
A trojan horse is incorrect because it is a program that looks like a useful program but when you install it would include
a bonus such as a Worm, Backdoor, or some other malware without the installer knowing about it.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Shon Harris AIO v3, Chapter-5: Security Models and Architecture AIOv4 Security Architecture and Design (pages 343
– 344) AIOv5 Security Architecture and Design (pages 345 – 346)

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Real and effective ITIL ITILFND exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
What BEST describes an important principle of communication in service operation?
A. It is efficient, effective and economical for all IT services
B. It has an intended purpose or a resultant action
C. It focuses on creating a relationship between processes and products
D. It has responsibility for creating policies
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. IT Service Continuity Management can only take place once Business Continuity Management has been established
B. Where Business Continuity Management is established, business continuity considerations should form the focus for
IT Service Continuity Management
C. Business Continuity Management and IT Service Continuity Management must be established at the same time
D. IT Service Continuity Management is not required when IT is outsourced to a third party provider
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
Which one of the following is it the responsibility of supplier management to negotiate and agree?
A. Service level agreements (SLAs)
B. Third-party contracts
C. The service portfolio
D. Operational level agreements (OLAs)
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
Which of the following combinations covers all the roles in Service Asset and Configuration Management?
A. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Configuration Manager; Service Desk Manager; Configuration Analyst;
CMS/tools Administrator
B. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Service Asset Manager; Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst;
Configuration control board; CMS/tools Administrator
C. Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst; CMS/tools Administrator; Librarian; Change Manager
D. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst; Configuration control board;
CMS/tools Administrator; Financial Asset Manager
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
Which of the following activities are performed by a desk?
1.
Logging details of incidents and service requests
2.
Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis
3.
Restoring service
4.
Implementing all standard changes
A. All of the above
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
Which of the following is NOT defined as part of every process?
A. Roles
B. Inputs and outputs
C. Functions
D. Metrics
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
Which is included in the purpose of the `design and transition\\’ value chain activity?
A. Ensuring that service components are available when needed
B. Providing transparency and good stakeholder relationships
C. Supporting services according to specifications
D. Continually meeting stakeholder expectations for costs
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
Which of the following are goals of Service Operation?
(1)
To coordinate and carry out the activities and processes required to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to
the business (2) The successful release of services into the live environment
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
Both of the above
D.
Neither of the above
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
What are the ITIL guiding principles used for?
A. To help an organization make good decisions
B. To direct and control an organization
C. To identify activities that an organization must perform in order to deliver a valuable service
D. To ensure that an organization\\’s performance continually meets stakeholders\\’ expectations
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
Which of the following Availability Management activities are considered to be proactive as opposed to reactive?
(1)
Risk assessment
(2)
Testing of resilience mechanisms
(3)
Monitoring of component availability
A.
All of the above
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
1 and 3 only
D.
2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
The experiences, ideas, insights and values of individuals are examples of which level of understanding within
knowledge management?
A. Data
B. Information
C. Knowledge
D. Governance
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 12
Which one of the following do major incidents require?
A. Separate procedures
B. Less urgency
C. Longer timescales
D. Less documentation
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
What is the result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service known as?
A. Outcome
B. Incident
C. Change
D. Problem
Correct Answer: A

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The Implementing and Configuring Cisco Identity Services Engine v1.0 (SISE 300-715) exam is a 90-minute exam associated with the CCNP Security and Cisco Certified Specialist – Security Identity Management Implementation certifications. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of Cisco Identify Services Engine, including architecture and deployment, policy enforcement, Web Auth and guest services, profiler, BYOD, endpoint compliance, and network access device administration. The course, Implementing and Configuring Cisco Identity Services Engine, helps candidates to prepare for this exam.

Cisco CCNP Security 300-715 exam list:

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Latest updates Cisco CCNP Security 300-715 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which advanced option within a WLAN must be enabled to trigger Central Web Authentication for Wireless users on
AireOS controller?
A. DHCP server
B. static IP tunneling
C. override Interface ACL
D. AAA override
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
What gives Cisco ISE an option to scan endpoints for vulnerabilities?
A. authorization policy
B. authentication policy
C. authentication profile
D. authorization profile
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
A security engineer must create an Antivirus remediation policy within Cisco ISE. Which two options can the engineer
select in the new Antivirus remediation policy? (Choose two.)
A. program installation path
B. Antivirus vendor name
C. uniform resource locator
D. file to upload
E. operating system
Correct Answer: BE
https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/security/ise/1.0/user_guide/ise10_pos_pol.html#wp1655749


QUESTION 4
Which two ports must be open between Cisco ISE and the client when you configure posture on Cisco ISE? (Choose
two).
A. TCP 8443
B. TCP 8906
C. TCP 443
D. DTCP80
E. TCP 8905
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 5
Which two features are available when the primary admin node is down and the secondary admin node has not been
promoted? ()
A. hotspot
B. new AD user 802 1X authentication
C. posture
D. BYOD
E. guest AUP
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 6
Which portal is used to customize the settings for a user to log in and download the compliance module?
A. Client Profiling
B. Client Endpoint
C. Client Provisioning
D. Client Guest
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
What does the dot1x system-auth-control command do?
A. causes a network access switch not to track 802.1x sessions
B. globally enables 802.1x
C. enables 802.1x on a network access device interface
D. causes a network access switch to track 802.1x sessions
Correct Answer: B
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst4500/XE3-8-0E/15-24E/configuration/guide/xe-380-configuration/dot1x.html


QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit:

lead4pass 300-715 exam question q8

Which command is typed within the CU of a switch to view the troubleshooting output?
A. show authentication sessions mac 000e.84af.59af details
B. show authentication registrations
C. show authentication interface gigabitethemet2/0/36
D. show authentication sessions method
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 9
What is the minimum certainty factor when creating a profiler policy?
A. the minimum number that a predefined condition provides
B. the maximum number that a predefined condition provides
C. the minimum number that a device certainty factor must reach to become a member of the profile
D. the maximum number that a device certainty factor must reach to become a member of the profile
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 10
What must match between Cisco ISE and the network access device to successfully authenticate endpoints?
A. SNMP version
B. shared secret
C. certificate
D. profile
Correct Answer: B
https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/security/ise/1.0/user_guide/ise10_man_network_devices.html


QUESTION 11
A network administrator wants to use dynamic VLAN assignment from Cisco ISE. Which option must be configured on
the switch to support this?
A. AAA authentication
B. VTP
C. DTP
D. AAA authorization
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 12
Which default endpoint identity group does an endpoint that does not match any profile in Cisco ISE become a member
of?
A. Endpoint
B. unknown
C. blacklist
D. white list
E. profiled
Correct Answer: B
If you do not have a matching profiling policy, you can assign an unknown profiling policy. The endpoint is therefore
profiled as Unknown. The endpoint that does not match any profile is grouped within the Unknown identity group. The
endpoint profiled to the Unknown profile requires that you create a profile with an attribute or a set of attributes collected
for that endpoint.
https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/security/ise/1.0/user_guide/ise10_man_identities.html

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Exam 70-744: Securing Windows Server 2016 – Microsoft:https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-744.aspx

Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Implement Server Hardening Solutions (25-30%)
  • Secure a Virtualization Infrastructure (5-10%)
  • Secure a Network Infrastructure (10-15%)
  • Manage Privileged Identities (25-30%)
  • Implement Threat Detection Solutions (15-20%)
  • Implement Workload-Specific Security (5-10%)

Who should take this exam?

Candidates for this exam secure Windows Server 2016 environments. Candidates are familiar with the methods and technologies used to harden server environments and secure virtual machine infrastructures using Shielded and encryption-supported virtual machines and Guarded Fabric.

Candidates manage the protection of Active Directory and Identity infrastructures and manage privileged identities using Just in Time (JIT) and Just Enough Administration (JEA) approaches, as well as implement Privileged Access Workstations (PAWs) and secure servers using the Local Administrator Password Solution (LAPS).

Candidates should also be able to use threat detection solutions such as auditing access, implementing Advanced Threat Analytics (ATA), deploying Operations Management Suite (OMS) solutions, and identifying solutions for specific workloads.

Latest updates Microsoft 70-744 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Your company has an accounting department.
The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 10 servers.
You deploy a new server named Server11 that runs Windows Server 2016.
Server11 will host several network applications and network shares used by the accounting department.
You need to recommend a solution for Server11 that meets the following requirements:
-Protects Server11 from address spoofing and session hijacking
-Allows only the computers in We accounting department to connect to Server11
What should you recommend implementing?
A. AppLocker rules
B. Just Enough Administration (JEA)
C. connection security rules
D. Privileged Access Management (PAM)
Correct Answer: C
In IPsec connection security rule, the IPsec protocol verifies the sending host IP address by utilize integrity functions like
Digitally signing all packets.If unsigned packets arrives Server11, those are possible source address spoofed packets,
when usingconnection security rule in-conjunction with inbound firewallrules, you can kill those un-signed packets with
the action “Allow connection if it is secure” to prevent spoofingand session hijacking attacks.

QUESTION 2
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016 and is configured as a DNS server. You deed to
ensure that Server1 can validate records from public DNSSEC-signed DNS zones. What should you do?
A. From DNS Manager, sign a zone.
B. From DNS Manager select Enable DNSSEC validation for remote responses
C. From PowerShell, run Add-DnsServerResourceRecordDnsKey.
D. From DNS Manager, add a trust anchor.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named conioso.com. The domain contains 1,000 client computers
that run Windows 8.1 and 1,000 client computers that run Windows 10.
You deploy a Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server. You create a computer group tor each organizational
unit (OU) that contains client computers. You configure all of the client computers to receive updates from WSUS.
You discover that all of the client computers appear m the Unassigned Computers computer group in the Update
Services console.
You need to ensure that the client computers are added automatically to the computer group that corresponds to the
location of the computer account in Active Directory.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. From Group Policy objects (GPOs), configure the Enable client-side targeting setting.
B. From the Update Services console, configure the Computers option.
C. From Active Directory Users and Computers, create a domain local distribution group for each WSUS computer
group.
D. From Active Directory Users and Computers, modify the flags attnbute of each OU.
E. From the Update Services console, run the WSUS Server Configuration Wizard.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
You have two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016. The servers are in a workgroup.
You need to create a security template that contains the security settings of Server1 and to apply the template to
Server2. The solution must minimize administrative effort.
Which snap-in should you use for each server? To answer, drag the appropriate snap-ins to the correct servers. Each
snap-in may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to
view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass 70-744 exam question q4

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-744 exam question q4-1

References: https://www.windows-server-2012-r2.com/security-templates.html

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is port of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may
be correct for more than one question In the series. Each question is Independent of the other questions In this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1
that runs Windows Server 2016 and a Nano Server named Nano1.
Nano1 has two volumes named C and D.
You are signed in to Server1.
You need to configure Data Deduplication on Nano1.
Which tool should you use?
A. File Explorer
B. Shared Folders
C. Server Manager
D. Disk Management
E. Storage Explorer
F. Computer Management
G. System Configuration
H. File Server Resource Manager (FSRM)
Correct Answer: C
Either use PowerShell Remoting to Nano1 and use “Enable-DedupVolume” cmdlet, however ,there is no such choice for
this question; orFrom Server1, connect it\\’s server manager to remotely manage Nano1 and enable Data Deduplication
forvolumes on Nano1 https://channel9.msdn.com/Series/Nano-Server-Team/Server-Manager-managing-Nano-Serverlead4pass 70-744 exam question q5

 

QUESTION 6
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has the Windows Server Update Services
server role installed.
Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) updates for Server1 are stored on a volume named D. The hard disk that
contains volume D fails.
You replace the hard disk. You recreate volume D and the WSUS folder hierarchy in the volume.
You need to ensure that the updates listed in the WSUS console are available in the WSUS folder. What should you
run?
A. wsusutil.exe /import
B. wsusutil.exe /reset
C. Set-WsusServerSynchronization
D. Invoke-WsusServerCleanup
Correct Answer: B
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc720466%28v=ws.10%29.aspx?f=255and MSPPError=-2147217396
WSUSutil.exe is a tool that you can use to manage your WSUS server from the command line. WSUSutil.exeis located
in the % drive%\\Program Files\\UpdateServices\\Tools folder on your WSUS server.You can run specific commands
with WSUSutil.exe to perform specific functions, as summarized in thefollowing table.The syntax you would use to run
WSUSutil.exe with specific commands follows the table.lead4pass 70-744 exam question q6

 

QUESTION 7
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Windows Defender on Server1 has the following
configurations.lead4pass 70-744 exam question q7

Server1 has the following files:
1.
C:\Folder1\File1.exe
2.
C:\Folder2\File2.bat
3.
C:\Folder2\File3.com
Which files will be scanned for malware?
A. File1.exe and File3.com only
B. File2.bat only
C. File1.exe, File2.bat, and File3.com
D. File1.exe only
E. File2.bat and File3.com only
F. File3.com only
Correct Answer: E
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/threat-protection/windows-defender-antivirus/configure-extension-file-exclusions-windows-defender-antivirus

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You manage a file server that runs Windows Server 2016. The file server contains the volumes configured as shown in
the following table.lead4pass 70-744 exam question q8

You need to encrypt DevFiles by using BitLocker Drive Encryption (ButLocker). Solution: You run the manage-bde.exe
command and specify the -on parameter. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/windows-commands/manage-bde-on

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains several shielded virtual
machines.
You deploy a new server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. You install the Hyper-V server role on
Server1.
You need to ensure that you can host shielded virtual machines on Server1.
What should you install on Server1?
A. Host Guardian Hyper-V Support
B. BitLocker Network Unlock
C. the Windows Biometric Framework (WBF)
D. VM Shielding Tools for Fabric Management
Correct Answer: A
This questions mentions “The domain contains several shielded virtual machines.”, which indicates a working Host
Guardian Service deployment was completed. https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/virtualization/guarded-fabricshielded-vm/guarded-fabricguarded-host-prerequisites For a new Hyper-V server to utilize an existing Host
Guardian Service, install the “Host Guardian Hyper-V Support”.lead4pass 70-744 exam question q9

 

QUESTION 10
HOTSPOT
Your data center contains 10 Hyper-V hosts that host 100 virtual machines.
You plan to secure access to the virtual machines by using the Datacenter Firewall service.
You have four servers available for the Datacenter Firewall service. The servers are configured as shown in the
following table.
Which server role should you deploy? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.lead4pass 70-744 exam question q10

Hot Area:

lead4pass 70-744 exam question q10-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-744 exam question q10-2

You need to install the required server roles for the planned deployment.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/networking/sdn/plan/installation-and-preparation-requirements-for-deploying-network-controller https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/networking/sdn/technologies/network-controller/install-the-network-controller-server-role-using-server-manager

QUESTION 11
You have two servers named Setver1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016 and are in a workgroup. Server1 is
used as a reference computer to configure the security baseline for the other computers in the workgroup.
You need to apply the Group Policy computer settings of Server1 to Server2.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:lead4pass 70-744 exam question q11

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-744 exam question q11-1

 

QUESTION 12
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1
that runs Windows Server 2016.
You need to prevent NTLM authentication on Server1.
Solution: From a Group Policy, you configure the Kerberos Policy. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
References: https://www.rootusers.com/implement-ntlm-blocking-in-windows-server-2016/

QUESTION 13
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named
Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
A domain-based Group Policy object (GPO) is used to configure the security policy of Server1.
You plan to use Security Compliance Manager (SCM) 4.0 to compare the security policy of Server1 to the WS2012 DNS
Server Security 1.0 baseline.
You need to import the security policy into SCM. What should you do first?
A. From Security Configuration and Analysis, use the Export Template option.
B. Run the Copy-GPO cmdlet and specify the -TargetName parameter.
C. Run the Backup-GPO cmdlet and specify the -Path parameter.
D. Run the secedit.exe command and specify the/export parameter.
Correct Answer: C
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee461052.aspx Backup-GPO cmdlet and specify the -Path parameter creates
a GPO backup folder with GUID name and issuitable to import to SCM 4.0

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This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of the latest development in network design and technologies, including L2 and L3 infrastructures for the enterprise, WAN technologies, data center integration, network security, and network services.

Latest updates Cisco CCDP 300-320 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which option is correct when using Virtual Switching System?
A. Both control planes forward traffic simultaneously
B. Only the active switch forward traffic
C. Both data planes forward traffic simultaneously
D. Only the active switch handle the control plane
Correct Answer: C
http://packetlife.net/blog/2013/may/2/what-hell-sdn/

 

QUESTION 2
An engineer must design a Cisco VSS-based configuration within a customer campus network. The two VSS switches
are provisioned for the campus distribution layer… Which option is the primary reason to avoid plugging both VSL links
into the supervisor ports?
A. The implementation creates a loop
B. The design lacks optimal hardware diversity
C. Limited bandwidth is available for VSS convergence
D. QoS is required on the VSL links
Correct Answer: B
The best-practice recommendation for VSL link resiliency is to bundle two 10-Gbps ports from different sources. Doing
this might require having one port from the supervisor and other from a Cisco 6708 line card.
When configuring the VSL, note the following guidelines and restrictions:
For line redundancy, we recommend configuring at least two ports per switch for the VSL. For module redundancy, the
two ports can be on different switching modules in each chassis.

 

QUESTION 3
Which feature can be used in the Cisco Nexus 7000 to create a snapshot of the current configuration?
A. Cisco FabricPath
B. HSRP
C. Rollback
D. vPC
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
After an incident caused by a DDOS attack on a router, an engineer must ensure that the router is accessible and
protected from future attacks without making any changes to traffic passing through the router. Which security function
can be utilized to protect the router?
A. zone-based policy firewall
B. access control lists
C. class maps
D. control plane policing
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
A company wants to configure BGP on a router so that other BGP neighbors cannot influence the path of a particular
route .which action must be taken to accomplish this configuration ?
A. Configure a low router ID for the route
B. Configure a high local preference for the route
C. Configure a high weight for the route
D. Configure a low MED for the route
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
Which of these statements is correct regarding Stateful Switchover and Cisco Nonstop Forwarding?
A. Utilizing Cisco NSF in Layer 2 environments can reduce outages to one to three seconds.
B. Utilizing SSO in Layer 3 environments can reduce outages to one to three seconds.
C. Distribution switches are single points of failure causing outages for the end devices.
D. Utilizing Cisco NSF and SSO in a Layer 2 environment can reduce outages to less than one second.
E. NSF and SSO with redundant supervisors have the most impact on outages at the access layer.
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 7
Which QoS mechanism uses RSVP?
A. IntServ
B. DiffServ
C. CoS
D. ToS
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
At a certain customer\\’s site, a NAS is both physically and logically in the traffic path. The NAS identifies clients solely
based on their MAC addresses. In which access mode has this NAS been configured to operate?
A. Layer 2 mode
B. Layer 3 Edge mode
C. Layer 3 Central mode
D. Layer 3 In-Band mode
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Which two statements correctly describe an IPS device? (Choose two.)
A. It resembles a Layer 2 bridge.
B. Traffic flow through the IPS resembles traffic flow through a Layer 3 router.
C. Inline interfaces which have no IP addresses cannot be detected.
D. Malicious packets that have been detected are allowed to pass through, but all subsequent traffic is blocked.
E. Traffic arrives on the detection interface, is inspected, and exits via the same interface.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 10
A network engineer must create a Layer 2 switch block design that has deterministic convergence and is loop-free at
Layer 2. Which two switch block elements are needed to meet the requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 3 link between distribution switches
B. HSRP with interface tracking on uplinks to core switches
C. RPVST with equal bridge priority on distribution switches
D. VLANs that do not span access switches
E. Layer 2 link between distribution switches
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 11
When adding an IPSec headend termination device to your network design, which two performance indicators are the
most accurate to determine device scalability? (Choose two.)
A. CPU capabilities
B. bandwidth capabilities
C. packets per second capabilities
D. maximum tunnel termination capabilities
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 12
Which two of these are correct regarding the recommended practice for distribution layer design? (Choose two.)
A. use a redundant link to the core
B. use a Layer 2 link between distribution switches
C. never use a redundant link to the core because of convergence issues
D. use a Layer 3 link between distribution switches with route summarization
E. use a Layer 3 link between distribution switches without route summarization
Correct Answer: AE
We need to summarize from distribution to core but not between distribution switches.

 

QUESTION 13
When a router has to make a rate transition from LAN to WAN, what type of congestion needs should be considered in
the network design?
A. RX-queue deferred
B. TX-queue deferred
C. RX-queue saturation
D. TX-queue saturation
E. RX-queue starvation
F. TX-queue starvation
Correct Answer: F
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Campus/HA_campus_DG/hacampusdg.html

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Cisco Collaboration Servers and Appliances Role 500-325 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which functionality does Cisco Meeting App provide?
A. adjust call routes and queues
B. change network security and firewall settings
C. enable and disable wireless network settings
D. create, join, and run meetings
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/conferencing/meeting-server/datasheet-c78-737519.html

 

QUESTION 2
In the KVM console, which result occurs if the first default is used and network does not have IPv6 configured?
A. KVM switches to IPv4.
B. KVM prompts the admin to enable IPv6.
C. KVM moves to the next default option listed.
D. KVM fails to launch.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
Which software is an eDelivery, field-uploaded license?
A. Cisco TelePresence Virtualization
B. Cisco UC Virtualization Hypervisor Plus
C. Cisco UC Virtualization Foundation
D. VMware vSphere ESXi
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
Which software is wide open and can run any Cisco or third-party application without limitation?
A. Cisco UC Virtualization Hypervisor Plus
B. VMware vSphere ESXi
C. Cisco TelePresence Virtualization Software
D. Cisco UC Virtualization Foundation
Correct Answer: B
The VMware vSphere ESXi software, however, is wide open, and can run any Cisco or 3rd-party application without
limitation.

 

QUESTION 5
Which setting decides on the memory allocations for each thread executed by the HPC applications?
A. Energy Performance
B. Non-Uniform Memory Access
C. HPC Mode Access
D. CPU Performance
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/servers-unified-computing/ucs-b-series-blade-servers/whitepaper_c11-727827.html

 

QUESTION 6
Which expansion of IOPS is true?
A. Input/Output Occasions per second
B. Input/Output Octets per second
C. In/Out Operations per second
D. In/Out Occasions per second
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
Which option is the maximum capacity of a Cisco BE7000 appliance deployment?
A. 10000
B. 5000
C. 1000
D. no enforced limit
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/unified-communications/business-edition-7000/data-sheet-c78-730649.html

 

QUESTION 8
How much hardware oversubscription is allowed for UC on UCS applications?
A. Some hardware oversubscription is allowed on Business Edition solutions.
B. Hardware oversubscription to double the specifications is allowed
C. Some hardware oversubscription is allowed on Cisco UCS servers.
D. No hardware oversubscription is allowed.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://supportforums.cisco.com/t5/ip-telephony/can-vms-share-the-allocated-vcpus-between-them/td-p/3082246

 

QUESTION 9
Which option lists the five product categories that can be deployed in a UC on UCS solution?
A. UC and Collaboration Edge, conferencing, customer collaboration, system management, and older products
B. UC and Collaboration Edge, conferencing, customer care, system management, and newer products
C. UC and Collaboration Edge, conferencing, customer care, system marketing, and older products
D. UC and Collaboration Edge, conferencing, customer care, system management, and older products
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
Which result occurs after the UC application OVA template has been created in the VMware vSphere ESXi host?
A. Nothing, the installation is complete.
B. Attach the ISO image to the virtual machine.
C. Attach the OVA image to the virtual machine.
D. Attach the logo image to the virtual machine.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 11
Which type of trunking from the public switched telephone network is supported by the Cisco BE4000 appliance?
A. Sonet
B. H.323
C. CAMA
D. BRI
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/unified-communications/business-edition-4000/datasheet-c78-738497.html

 

QUESTION 12
Which additional service beyond the basic three components of Cisco Spark is available in Cisco Spark Hybrid to
simplify the user experience?
A. meeting
B. calendar
C. forwarding
D. transferring
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Which feature of the Cisco BE7000 appliance is supported?
A. VoIP phone system
B. digital key voice system
C. analog phone system
D. PBX phone system
Correct Answer: A

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CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Please refer to the attached exhibit. Which of the following types of configuration management documentation is
represented?lead4pass n10-007 exam question q1

A. Network security policy
B. Network baseline
C. Logical network diagram
D. Wiring schematic
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
Which of the following MUST be used when securing a VoIP network consisting of private IP addresses?
A. IPS
B. Application layer firewall
C. IDS
D. An unmanaged switch
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
A network technician is configuring user\\’s access to a VPN concentrator and has advised to use a protocol that
supports encryption over UDP. Which of the following protocols has the technician MOST likely configured for client
use?
A. TFTP
B. DTLS
C. DNS
D. SNMP
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
A technician is investigating the cause of a network outage. Which of the following documents should be checked to rule
out configuration issues?
A. Change management records
B. Inventory management
C. Network log files
D. Logical diagrams
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Which of the following default ports would need to be disabled to block TFTP traffic?
A. 20
B. 21
C. 69
D. 123
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
A customer is reporting difficulty connecting some devices after replacing a wireless router with a new wireless
802.11ac router. The SSID, encryption and password are the same as the previous router. A technician goes on-site
and notices the devices that are no longer connecting appear to be several years ago. Which of the following is MOST
likely the problem?
A. the password needs to be re-entered.
B. there is a security type mismatch.
C. there is insufficient antenna power.
D. there is a frequency mismatch.
E. the channel has changed.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
Which of the following are network topologies? (Select TWO).
A. Ethernet
B. Duplex
C. Star
D. Circular
E. Bus
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is indicative of an FTP bounce?
A. Arbitrary IP address
B. Reverse DNS lookups
C. Same Port Number
D. File Transfer Success
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
When Jeff, a technician, is troubleshooting a problem, which of the following is the NEXT step after verifying full system
functionality?
A. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects.
B. Implement the solution.
C. Establish a theory of probable cause.
D. Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
A network technician needs to connect to a remote router to modify the configuration, Which of the following method
should the technician use to connected to the device security? (Select TWO)
A. Telnet
B. VNC
C. SSH
D. RDP
E. HTTPS
F. TFTP
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 11
A technician is installing a new wireless badging system on a hospital network. The requirements of the badging system
are for it to have its own SSID and low power levels. The badging system has to cover 99.9% of the hospital. Which of
the following is the BEST action to take to meet the system requirements?
A. Install additional WAPs
B. Install external antennas
C. Move the WAPs closer to the more populated area
D. Change the antenna types
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
There is suspected virus activity on the network. Which of the following would Lisa, a technician, use to study network
traffic?
A. Protocol analyzer
B. Cable tester
C. Cable certifier
D. Environmental monitor
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
A firewall administrator is implementing a rule that directs HTTP traffic to an internal server listening on a non-standard
socket. Which of the following types of rules is the administrator implementing?
A. NAT
B. PAT
C. STP
D. SNAT
E. ARP
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which Cisco WebEx product can be integrated in a CMR Cloud or CMR Hybrid deployment?
A. Cisco WebEx Training Center
B. Cisco WebEx Meeting Center
C. Cisco WebEx Support Center
D. Cisco WebEx Event Center
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
Which statement is true about APIs and SDKs?
A. SDKs specify how software components should interact
B. APIs consist of a set of SDKs, sample code, technical notes, and debugging facilities.
C. SDKs can be used without APIs.
D. APIs can be used without SDKs.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
Which premise-based conferencing solution supports Skype for Business and WebRTC?
A. TelePresence Server
B. Spark
C. Cisco Meeting Server
D. Cisco WebEx
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Which is a call Control Device in a Cisco Collaboration environment?
A. Cisco Meeting Server
B. Cisco Telepresence Management Suite
C. Cisco Content Server
D. Cisco Expressway
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
What is a function of an-endpoint?
A. To Join 3 or more participants in a meeting
B. To provide an audio and video interface for the user.
C. To schedule calls.
D. To act as a traffic cop for network communication.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
Which ports are used for SIP calling on the Expressway?
A. 5060 and 5061
B. 164 and 323
C. 80 and 443
D. 1719 and 1720
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
What protocol does an Expressway use to send the can setup message in an H.323 call?
A. H.245
B. H.239
C. T.120
D. Q.931
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 8
Which conferencing solution is designed for messaging, meeting, calling and persistent Sharing?
A. Cisco Meeting Server
B. CMR
C. TelePresence Server
D. Spark
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
Which is a Cisco Spark Service Add-ons?
A. Calling
B. Messaging
C. Room Registration
D. Meeting
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
What is a function of a call control solution?
A. To make, monitor and maintain calls
B. To provide an audio and video interface for the user
C. To join 3 or more participants in a meeting.
D. To schedule calls
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
Which is a method used by the Expressway for bandwidth control?
A. Zones
B. Hunt Groups
C. Subzones
D. Regions
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
What is oAuth?
A. A type of authentication used when integrating a Cloud applications with a Premises solution.
B. Allows a user to act on behalf of an application
C. Allows an application to act on behalf of a user
D. A type of authentication used when users sign into Cloud applications, such as Cisco Spark
Correct Answer: B
https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/jabber/11_9/Unified-CM-OAuth-Whitepaper-v17-FINAL.pdf

 

QUESTION 13
Which Cisco WebEx Center has program and campaign management?
A. Cisco WebEx Support Center
B. Cisco WebEx Training Center
C. Cisco WebEx Meeting Center
D. Cisco WebEx Event Center
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Which DTP switch port mode allows the port to create a trunk link if the neighboring port is in trunk mode, dynamic
desirable mode, or desirable auto mode?
A. trunk
B. access
C. dynamic desirable
D. dynamic auto
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 200-125 exam question q2 Assuming that the entire network topology is shown, what is the operational status of the interfaces of R2 as indicated
by the command output is shown?
A. One interface has a problem.
B. Two interfaces have problems.
C. The interfaces are functioning correctly.
D. The operational status of the interfaces cannot be determined from the output shown.
Correct Answer: C
The output shown shows the normal operational status of the router\\’s interfaces. Serial0/0 is down because it has been
disabled using the “shutdown” command.

 

QUESTION 3
You are implementing ElGRP between the main office and branch offices. In Phase 1 you must implement and verify
EIGRP configurations as mentioned in the topology in Phase 2. your colleague is expected to do NAT and ISP
configurations
Identify the issues that you are encountering during Phase 1 EIGRP implementation.
Router R1 connects the main office to the Internet and routers R2 and R3 are internal routers.
Routers Branch 1 and Branch2 connect to router R2 in the main office.
Users from the Branch1 LAN network 10 20 40 0724 are expected to perform testing of the application that is hosted on
the servers in Server farm1 before servers are available for production.
– The GRE tunnel is configured between R3 and Branch1, and traffic between server farm1 and Branch1 LAN network
10 20 40 0/24 is routed through the GRE tunnel using static routes
The link between Branch1 and Branch2 is used as a secondary path in the event of failure of the primary path to mam
office You have console access on R1. R2. R3. Branch1 and Branch2 devices Use only show commands to
troubleshoot the issues Topology: Examine the R1 routing table. None of the internal routes other than locally
connected appear in the routing table Which cause of the issue is true?lead4pass 200-125 exam question q3 lead4pass 200-125 exam question q3-1

A. EIGRP neighbor relationship was not formed due to AS mismatch between routers R1 and R2.
B. EIGRP neighbor relationship was not formed due to K values mismatch between routers R1 and R2.
C. EIGRP packets were blocked by the inbound ACL on R1.
D. The IP address was misconfigured between the R1 and R2 interfaces
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
What are three reasons to collect Netflow data on a company network? (Choose three.)
A. To identify applications causing congestion.
B. To authorize user network access.
C. To report and alert link up / down instances.
D. To diagnose slow network performance, bandwidth hogs, and bandwidth utilization.
E. To detect suboptimal routing in the network.
F. To confirm the appropriate amount of bandwidth that has been allocated to each Class of Service.
Correct Answer: ADF
NetFlow facilitates solutions to many common problems encountered by IT professionals. + Analyze new applications
and their network impact Identify new application network loads such as VoIP or remote site additions.
+
Reduction in peak WAN traffic
Use NetFlow statistics to measure WAN traffic improvement from application-policy changes; understand who is utilizing
the network and the network top talkers. + Troubleshooting and understanding network pain points Diagnose slow network performance, bandwidth hogs, and bandwidth utilization quickly with command line interface or reporting tools.
-> D is correct.
+
Detection of unauthorized WAN traffic
Avoid costly upgrades by identifying the applications causing congestion. -> A is correct.
+
Security and anomaly detection
NetFlow can be used for anomaly detection and worm diagnosis along with applications such as Cisco CS-Mars.
+
Validation of QoS parameters
Confirm that appropriate bandwidth has been allocated to each Class of Service (CoS) and that no CoS is over- or
under-subscribed.-> F is correct.

 

QUESTION 5
Which two statements about the spanning-tree bridge ID are true? (Choose two.)
A. It is composed of a 4-bit bridge priority and a 12-bit system ID extension.
B. The bridge ID is transmitted in the IP header to elect the root bridge.
C. The system ID extension is a value between 1 and 4095.
D. It is composed of an 8-bit bridge priority and a 16-bit system ID extension.
E. The bridge priority must be incremented in blocks of 4096.
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 200-125 exam question q6

A frame on VLAN 1 on switch S1 is sent to switch S2 where the frame is received on VLAN
2. What causes this behavior?
A. trunk mode mismatches
B. allowing only VLAN 2 on the destination
C. native VLAN mismatches
D. VLANs that do not correspond to a unique IP subnet
Correct Answer: C
Untagged frames are encapsulated with the native VLAN. In this case, the native VLANs are different so although S1
will tag it as VLAN 1 it will be received by S2.

 

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 200-125 exam question q7

After HostA pings HostB, which entry will be in the ARP cache of HostA to support this transmission?

lead4pass 200-125 exam question q7-1

A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D
E. Exhibit E
F. Exhibit F
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Host A knows host B is in another network so it will send the pings to its default gateway 192.168.6.1. Host A sends a
broadcast frame asking the MAC address of 192.168.6.1. This information (IP and MAC address of the default gateway)
is saved in its ARP cache for later use.

 

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibitlead4pass 200-125 exam question q8

You are configuring the router to provide Static NAT for the web server. Drag and drop the configuration commands
from left onto the letters that correspond to its position in the configuration on the right.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 200-125 exam question q8-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 200-125 exam question q8-2

Explanation

 

QUESTION 9
Several users on your network have complained of connectivity issues to a specific host. While troubleshooting task can
you perform to eliminate DNS issues as the cause?
A. Connect to the host by its IP address
B. Verity the DHCP settings on the host
C. Verity that a valid route to the host is present in the routing table
D. Connect to the host by its FQDN
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
Which two operational modes are supported on the members of a StackWise switch stack? (Choose two)
A. power-sharing
B. passive
C. active
D. redundant
E. standby
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 11
While troubleshooting a GRE tunnel interface issue, show interface command output displays tunnel status up, but the line protocol is down.
Which reason for this problem is most likely?
A. The route to the tunnel destination address is through the tunnel itself
B. The next hop server is misconfigured
C. The interface has been administratively shut down
D. The tunnel was just reset
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 12
What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
A. the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets
B. the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
C. the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality
D. the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
E. the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 13
Which statement about VLAN operation on Cisco Catalyst switches is true?
A. When a packet is received from an 802.1Q trunk, the VLAN ID can be determined from the source MAC address and
the MAC address table.
B. Unknown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same VLAN.
C. Broadcast and multicast frames are retransmitted to ports that are configured on different VLAN.
D. Ports between switches should be configured in access mode so that VLANs can span across the ports.
Correct Answer: B
Each VLAN resides in its own broadcast domain, so incoming frames with unknown destinations are only transmitted to
ports that reside in the same VLAN as the incoming frame.

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QUESTION 1
Which two are features of IPv6? (Choose two.)
A. anycast
B. broadcast
C. multicast
D. podcast
E. allcast
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 2
Which option is the industry-standard protocol for EtherChannel?
A. Cisco Discovery Protocol
B. PAgp
C. LACP
D. DTP
Correct Answer: C
http://www.omnisecu.com/cisco-certified-network-associate-ccna/etherchannel-pagp-and-lacp-modes.php

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. The company uses EIGRP as the routing protocol.
What path will packets take from a host on 192.168.10.192/26 network to a host on the LAN attached to router R1?lead4pass 200-105 exam question q3

A. The path of the packets will be R3 to R2 to R1
B. The path of the packets will be R3 to R1 to R2
C. The path of the packets will be both R3 to R2 to R1 and R3 to R1
D. The path of the packets will be R3 to R1
Correct Answer: D
EIGRP Questions Looking at the output display above, the LAN attached to router R1 belongs to 192.168.20.64/26
subnet and learned this network via 192.168.20.9 which will be an IP address in 192.168.20.8/30 sub-network. This
means that packets destined for192.168.20.64 will be routed from R3 to R1.
Reference: http://www.9tut.net/icnd2/eigrp-questions http://www.orbitco-ccna-pastquestions.com/CCNA—EIGRP-Common-Question.php

 

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)lead4pass 200-105 exam question q4

A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Switch2 trunk ports must be
configured using the same encapsulation type.
Correct Answer: DF
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk815/technologies_configuration_eample09186a00800 949fd.shtml

 

QUESTION 5
Hotspot Questionlead4pass 200-105 exam question q5

After the network has converged, what type of messaging, if any, occurs between R3 and R4?
A. No messages are exchanged.
B. Hellos are sent every 10 seconds.
C. The full database from each router is sent every 30 seconds.
D. The routing table from each router is sent every 60 seconds.
Correct Answer: B
HELLO, messages are used to maintain adjacent neighbors so even when the network is converged, hellos are still
exchanged. On broadcast and point-to-point links, the default is 10 seconds, on NBMA the default is 30 seconds.

 

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
Which of these correctly describes the results of the port security violation of an unknown packet?lead4pass 200-105 exam question q6

A. port enabled; unknown packets dropped; no SNMP or Syslog messages
B. port enabled; unknown packets dropped; SNMP or Syslog messages
C. port disabled; no SNMP or Syslog messages
D. port disabled; SNMP or Syslog messages
Correct Answer: D
Configuring Port Security
http://packetlife.net/blog/2010/may/3/port-security/
We can view the default port security configuration with show port-security:

lead4pass 200-105 exam question q6-1

http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=1722561 Switchport Security Violations The second piece of
switch port port-security that must be understood is a security violation including what it is what causes it and what the
different violation modes that exist. A switch port violation occurs in one of two situations: When the maximum number of
secure MAC addresses have been reached (by default, the maximum number of secure MAC addresses per switch port is
limited to 1) An address learned or configured on one secure interface is seen on another secure interface in the same
VLAN The action that the device takes when one of these violations occurs can be configured: Protect–This mode
permits traffic from known MAC addresses to continue to be forwarded while dropping traffic from unknown MAC
addresses when over the allowed MAC address limit. When configured with this mode, no notification action is taken
when traffic is dropped. Restrict–This mode permits traffic from known MAC addresses to continue to be forwarded
while dropping traffic from unknown MAC addresses when over the allowed MAC address limit. When configured with
this mode, a syslog message is logged, a Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) trap is sent, and a violation counter is incremented when traffic is dropped. Shutdown–This mode is the default violation mode; when in this mode,
the switch will automatically force the switch port into an error-disabled (err-disable) state when a violation occurs. While
in this state, the switch port forwards no traffic. The switch port can be brought out of this error-disabled state by issuing
the errdisable recovery cause CLI command or by disabling and re-enabling the switch port. Shutdown VLAN–This
mode mimics the behavior of the shutdown mode but limits the error-disabled state the specific violating VLAN.

 

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. How should Switch1 and Switch2 be connected in order to allow full communication between all of
the hosts?lead4pass 200-105 exam question q7 lead4pass 200-105 exam question q7-1

A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D
E. Exhibit E
F. Exhibit F
Correct Answer: F

 

QUESTION 8
Which two benefits of implementing a full mesh wan topology are true? (Choose two)
A. redundancy
B. reduced jitter
C. increased latency
D. improved scalability
E. reliability
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting a switch, you executed the show interface port-channel 1 EtherChannel
command and it returned this output. Which information is provided by the Load value?lead4pass 200-105 exam question q9

A. the percentage of use of the link
B. the preference of the link
C. the session count of the link
D. the number source-destination pairs on the link
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
Which function does traffic shaping perform?
A. it buffers traffic without queuing it
B. it queues traffic without buffering it
C. it drops packets to control the output rate
D. it buffers and queues excess packets
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 11
What is the result of issuing the frame-relay map IP 192.168.1.2 202 broadcast command?
A. defines the destination IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202
B. defines the source IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202
C. defines the DLCI on which packets from the 192.168.1.2 IP address are received
D. defines the DLCI that is used for all packets that are sent to the 192.168.1.2 IP address
Correct Answer: D
frame-relay map IP 192.168.1.2 202 command statically defines a mapping between a network layer address and a
DLCI. The broadcast option allows multicast and broadcast packets to flow across the link. The command frame-relay
map IP
192.168.1.2 202 broadcast means to map the distal IP 192.168.1.2 202 to the local DLCI. When the “broadcast”
the keyword is included, it turns Frame Relay network as a broadcast network, which can forward broadcasts.
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/wan/command/reference/wan_f2.html#wp1012264lead4pass 200-105 exam question q11

 

 

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. A technician is testing connection problems in the internetwork. What is the problem indicated by
the output from HostA?lead4pass 200-105 exam question q12

A. The routing on Router2 is not functioning properly.
B. An access list is applied to an interface of Router3.
C. The Fa0/24 interface of Switch1 is down.
D. The gateway address of HostA is incorrect or not configured.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
Which two commands debug a PPPoE connection that has failed to establish? (Choose two.)
A. Debug PPP compression
B. Debug PPP negotiation
C. Debug dialer events
D. Debug PPP cbcp
E. Debug dialer packet
Correct Answer: BE

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