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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSM
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Exam Code: 070-410
Total Questions: 503 Q&As

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New Microsoft MCSM 070-410 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
You have a server named Server2 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server2 has the Hyper-V server role installed. The disks on Server2 are configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) You create a virtual machine on Server2 named VM1.
You need to ensure that you can configure a pass-through disk for VM1.
What should you do?
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A. Convert Disk 1 to a basic disk.
B. Take Disk 1 offline.
C. Create a partition on Disk 1.
D. Convert Disk 1 to a MBR disk.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. Server1 is connected to two Fibre Channel SANs and is configured as shown in the following table.
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You have a virtual machine named VM1. You need to configure VM1 to connect to SAN1.
What should you do first?
A. Add one HBA
B. Create a Virtual Fibre Channel SAN.
C. Create a Hyper-V virtual switch.
D. Configure network adapter teaming.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You work as a senior administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. All servers on the L2P.com network have Windows Server 2012 installed, and all workstations have Windows 8 installed.
You are running a training exercise for junior administrators. You are currently discussing the Always Offline Mode.
Which of the following is TRUE with regards to the Always Offline Mode? (Choose all that apply.)
A. It allows for swifter access to cached files and redirected folders.
B. To enable Always Offline Mode, you have to satisfy the forest and domain functional-level requirements, as well as schema requirements.
C. It allows for lower bandwidth usage due to users are always working offline.
D. To enable Always Offline Mode, you must have workstations running Windows 7 or Windows Server 2008 R2.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DC1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to configure a central store for the Group Policy Administrative Templates. What should you do on DC1?
A. From Server Manager, create a storage pool.
B. From Windows Explorer, copy the PolicyDefinitions folder to the SYSVOL\contoso.com\policies folder.
C. From Server Manager, add the Group Policy Management feature
D. From Windows Explorer, copy the PolicyDefinitions folder to the NETLOGON share.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You install Windows Server 2012 R2 on a standalone server named Server1. You configure Server1 as a VPN server.
You need to ensure that client computers can establish PPTP connections to Server1. 070-410 dumps Which two firewall rules should you create? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.Choose two.)
A. An inbound rule for protocol 47
B. An outbound rule for protocol 47
C. An inbound rule for TCP port 1723
D. An inbound rule for TCP port 1701
E. An outbound rule for TCP port 1723
F. An outbound rule for TCP port 1701
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The computer accounts for all member servers are located in an organizational unit (OU) named Servers. You link a Group Policy object (GPO) to the Servers OU.
You need to ensure that the domain’s Backup Operators group is a member of the local Backup Operators group on each member server. The solution must not remove any groups from the local Backup Operators groups.
What should you do?
A. Add a restricted group named adatum\Backup Operators. Add Backup Operators to the This group is a member of list.
B. Add a restricted group named adatum\Backup Operators. Add Backup Operators to the Members of this group list.
C. Add a restricted group named Backup Operators. Add adatum\Backup Operators to the This group is a member of list.
D. Add a restricted group named Backup Operators. Add adatum\Backup Operators to the Members of this group list.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. An application named Appl.exe is installed on all client computers. Multiple versions of Appl.exe are installed on different client computers. Appl.exe is digitally signed. You need to ensure that only the latest version of Appl.exe can run on the client computers.
What should you create?
A. An application control policy packaged app rule
B. A software restriction policy certificate rule
C. An application control policy Windows Installer rule
D. An application control policy executable rule
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to ensure that the local Administrator account on all computers is renamed to L_Admin. Which Group Policy settings should you modify?
A. Security Options
B. User Rights Assignment
C. Restricted Groups
D. Preferences
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You have a server that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. The disks on the server are configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) You need to create a storage pool that contains Disk 1 and Disk 2. What should you do first?
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A. Delete volume E
B. Convert Disk 1 and Disk 2 to dynamic disks
C. Convert Disk 1 and Disk 2 to GPT disks
D. Create a volume on Disk 2
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You add a 4-TB disk named Disk 5 to Server1. You need to ensure that you can create a 3-TB volume on Disk 5. What should you do?
A. Create a storage pool.
B. Convert the disk to a dynamic disk.
C. Create a VHD, and then attach the VHD.
D. Convert the disk to a GPT disk.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
You have a server named Server1 that has a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2008 R2. Server1 has the DHCP Server server role and the File Server server role installed. You need to upgrade Server1 to Windows Server 2012 R2 with the graphical user interface (GUI). The solution must meet the following requirements:
Preserve the server roles and their configurations.
Minimize Administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. On Server1, run setup.exe from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server with a GUI.
B. Start Server1 from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server Core Installation. When the installation is complete, add the Server Graphical Shell feature.
C. Start Server1 from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server with a GUI.
D. On Server1, run setup.exe from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server Core Installation. When the installation is complete, add the Server Graphical Shell feature
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to install the Remote Desktop Services server role on Server2 remotely from Server1. 070-410 dumps Which tool should you use?
A. The dsadd.exe command
B. The Server Manager console
C. The Remote Desktop Gateway Manager console
D. The Install-RemoteAccess cmdlet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
You have a server named Server1 that runs a full installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to uninstall the graphical user interface (GUI) on Server1.
You must achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of Administrative effort. What should you do?
A. Reinstall Windows Server 2012 R2 on the server.
B. From Server Manager, uninstall the User Interfaces and Infrastructure feature.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature PowerShell-ISE
D. From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature Desktop-Experience.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4. Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.
070-410 dumps
You install Windows Server 2012 R2 on VM2 by using Windows Deployment Services (WDS). You need to ensure that the next time VM2 restarts, you can connect to the WDS server by using PXE.
Which virtual machine setting should you configure for VM2?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Correct Answer: G

QUESTION 15
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.
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In the perimeter network, you install a new server named Server1 that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to join Server1 to the contoso.com domain.
What should you use?
A. The New-ADComputer cmdlet
B. The djoin.exe command
C. The dsadd.exe command
D. The Add-Computer cmdlet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains three domain DC3 loses network connectivity due to a hardware failure. You plan to remove DC3 from the domain. You log on to DC3. You need to identify which service location (SRV) records are registered by DC3. What should you do?
070-410 dumps
A. Open the %windir%\system32\config\netlogon.dns file.
B. Run dcdiag /test:dns
C. Open the %windir%\system32\dns\backup\adatum.com.dns file.
D. Run ipconfig /displaydns.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Your network contains an Active Directory forest that contains three domains. A group named Group1 is configured as a domain local distribution group in the forest root domain. You plan to grant Group1 read-only access to a shared folder named Share1. Share1 is located in a child domain.
You need to ensure that the members of Group1 can access Share1.
What should you do first?
A. Convert Group1 to a global distribution group.
B. Convert Group1 to a universal security group.
C. Convert Group1 to a universal distribution group.
D. Convert Group1 to a domain local security group
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 R2. One of the domain controllers is named DCI. The network contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to promote Server1 to a domain controller by using install from media (IFM).
What should you do first?
A. Create a system state backup of DC1.
B. Create IFM media on DC1.
C. Upgrade DC1 to Windows Server 2012 R2.
D. Run the Active Directory Domain Services Configuration Wizard on Server1.
E. Run the Active Directory Domain Services Installation Wizard on DC1.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 100 servers. The servers are contained in a organizational unit (OU) named ServersOU. 070-410 dumps You need to create a group named Group1 on all of the servers in the domain.
You must ensure that Group1 is added only to the servers.
What should you configure?
A. a Local Users and Groups preferences setting in a Group Policy linked to the Domain Controllers OU
B. a Restricted Groups setting in a Group Policy linked to the domain
C. a Local Users and Groups preferences setting in a Group Policy linked to ServersOU
D. a Restricted Groups setting in a Group Policy linked to ServersOU
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains several thousand member servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. All of the computer accounts for the member servers are in an organizational unit (OU) named ServersAccounts.
Servers are restarted only occasionally.
You need to identify which servers were restarted during the last two days.
What should you do?
A. Run dsquery computerand specify the -staiepwdpara meter.
B. Run Get-ADComputerand specify the SearchScope parameter.
C. Run Get-ADComputerand specify the IastLogonproperty.
D. Run dsquery serverand specify the -oparameter
Correct Answer: C

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Newest Cisco CCNP Wireless 300-360 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-12)

QUESTION 1
An engineer would like to calibrate the RF environment to improve accuracy.
Which wireless attribute is added to the foor-level calculation by calibrating the foor?
A. attenuation
B. TX power
C. multipath
D. SNR
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
An engineer is performing a predictive wireless design for a Parts Distribution Center which requires data and location services. Which three requirements are inputs to the design? (Choose three.)
A. access points with directional antennas
B. continuous -67 dBm coverage from one access point
C. overlapping -75 dBm coverage from three access points
D. overlapping -67 dBm coverage from two access points
E. access points in IPS mode
F. continuous -72 dBm coverage from one access point
G. accesspointsincornersandalongperimeters
Correct Answer: BCG

QUESTION 3
A customer is deploying a Greenfield 802.11ac network on a foor that will support approximately 300 wireless devices.
Which setting needs to be changed on Prime Infrastructure Planning Tool in order to predict the amount of access points the customer needs to service the new foor?
A. Data Coverage Support Margin
B. Demand Settings
C. Add AP Field
D. 802.11n Protocol Support
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which two options describe best practices that must be completed after a wireless installation is finished? 300-360 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Make sure that there are no spaces between the devices on the rack that the Wireless Lan Controller isinstalled.
B. Consult with the customer to ensure that the IT staff has a complete set of design and installationdocuments.
C. Make sure the customer is aware that they should consider purchasing a support contract immediately afterthe installationis complete.
D. Spend time with the customer to show them the controller GUI and inform them how they can reach the Cisco TAC if they have any problems.
E. Test all the customer’s wireless devices and applications to ensure they are working properly.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 5
An engineer is preparing for an outdoor wireless survey to mesh connect a distant remote building to a connected building.
Which two types of antennas are appropriate for this application? (Choose two.)
A. circular polarized
B. patch
C. dish
D. Yagi
E. omni
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
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While testing the post-deployment WLAN network you discover that an AP has been placed in a difficult area. The AP cannot be moved easily because of various requirements. The client performance of various Apple and Microsoft operating system-based products does not meet expectations.
Which two options can help mitigate the performance issue? (Choose two.)
A. Add additional APs.
B. Increase the AP power level to maximum.
C. Rotate the AP 90 degrees to change antenna polarity.
D. Replace the AP with an AP and external antenna.
E. Change the AP location to one that is less RF hostile.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 7
An engineer is tuning RRM parameters to improve client connectivity. Which channel band results in the best 802.11n client compatibility?
A. UNII-2
B. UNII-2e
C. UNII-3
D. UNII
E. UNII-1
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8
An engineer is installing a wireless network in an industrial area with extreme temperatures and a significant amount of dust. Which enclosure should be used to protect the APs?
A. ACU
B. ADU
C. NEMA
D. WLSE
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
What are two advantages of conducting an active survey versus a passive survey when verifying RF coverage? (Choose two.)
A. verifies packet loss
B. verifies roaming
C. verifies SNR
D. verifies signal level
E. verifies interferers
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
An engineer is deploying an outdoor Mesh network. Which four major factors should be considered? (Choose four.)
A. power
B. buildings
C. traffic lights
D. satellite dishes
E. line of sight
F. network connectivity
G. power lines
H. mounting
Correct Answer: AEHF

QUESTION 11
A customer has deployed an N+N redundant wireless infrastructure. In this deployment the access points have been salt and peppered between controllers. 300-360 dumps
What configuration would be necessary to cut down on the use of mobility tunnels for voice clients?
A. mobility anchor
B. KIS based CAC
C. media session snooping
D. re-anchor roamed voice clients
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which two steps are associated with the active portion of the audit when a post-installation audit is performed with an auditing tool such as Ekahau? (Choose two.)
A. Check for co-channel interference by standing near an access point on one channel and watching for other access points that are on the same channel.
B. Verify smooth roaming.
C. Check to see if the signal level on other access points that are heard on the same channel is at least 19dBm weaker than the access point that you are next to.
D. Check that all channels are supported by the APs regardless of client capabilities.
E. Verify that the network traffic of physical data rate and packet loss meets user requirements.
Correct Answer: BE

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Best Citrix CCP-M 1Y0-371 dumps exam questions and answers (Q1-Q20)

QUESTION 1
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to deploy the WorxWeb mobile application. However, management does NOT want users to use WorxWeb for Internet browsing through the Micro VPN tunnel.
Which MDX policy configuration must the engineer implement to meet the requirements outlined in the scenario?
A. Set the Require WiFi policy to ‘On’.
B. Set Network Access to ‘Unrestricted’.
C. Set the Require Internal Network policy to ‘On’.
D. Set Network Access to ‘Tunneled to internal network’.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A Citrix Engineer is integrating a Microsoft Certificate Authority server with the XenMobile Device Manager to provide certificate-based authentication for Wi-Fi.
Which iOS policy must the engineer configure to deploy the certificate to devices?
A. iOS SCEP
B. iOS Certificate
C. iOS Credentials
D. iOS App Configuration
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A Citrix Engineer needs to load balance enrollment requests from Apple iOS devices.
The engineer should implement an SSL Offload virtual server using __________ protocol and port __________. (Choose the correct set of options to complete the sentence.)
A. SSL; 443
B. TCP; 443
C. SSL; 8443
D. TCP; 8443
ACorrect nswer: C

QUESTION 4
A school has a pool of mobile devices that students use on premises for coursework.
How could a Citrix Engineer configure XenMobile Device Manager to warn the user when the device is taken off campus?
A. Deploy a Roaming Configuration policy.
B. Issue a Locate from the Device Security menu.
C. Enable Tracking from the Device Security menu.
D. Set the Geo-fencing options in a Location Services policy.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which two policies should a Citrix Engineer add to a deployment package to set the status of a user’s device to Out of Compliance and notify the engineer whenever a user installs a blacklisted application on an enrolled device? 1Y0-371 dumps (Choose two.)
A. App Lock
B. Restriction
C. Automated Actions
D. Applications Access
Correct Answer: C,D

QUESTION 6
Which two settings could a Citrix Engineer configure during Express Setup on the App Controller console? (Choose two.)
A. License file
B. NTP Server
C. DNS Servers
D. HA Peer address
Correct Answer: B,C

QUESTION 7
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to provide users with remote access to SaaS applications managed by XenMobile. Users will access the applications on their mobile devices through Worx Home.
Which two options should the engineer configure in the session profile on the NetScaler? (Choose two.)
A. ICAProxy OFF
B. Clientless Access ON
C. URL Encoding OBSCURE
D. Single Sign-on to Web Applications DISABLED
Correct Answer: A,B

QUESTION 8
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to provide users with remote access to SaaS applications managed by XenMobile. Users will access the applications on their mobile devices through Worx Home.
Which two options should the engineer configure in the session profile on the NetScaler? (Choose two.)
A. ICAProxy OFF
B. Clientless Access ON
C. URL Encoding OBSCURE
D. Single Sign-on to Web Applications DISABLED
Correct Answer: A,B

QUESTION 9
Scenario:StoreFront is implemented as part of a XenMobile solution. Users in the environment currently rely on HTML5 Receiver because Citrix Receiver is NOT installed on their workstations.
How could a Citrix Engineer present Web/SaaS applications to these users based on the scenario?
A. Enable StoreFront to aggregate App Controller apps.
B. Add the App Controller server to StoreFront as a Delivery Controller.
C. Enable the ‘Require app installation’ option in the Web/SaaS application properties.
D. Add the StoreFront Legacy support URL to the Windows Apps Configuration on the App
Controller.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Scenario: An organization just acquired another organization and must create a new secure LDAP configuration to enable mobile device enrollment for the new domain users. The new domain will be called domain.local and will be hosted in a remote datacenter.
Which two tasks must a Citrix Engineer complete in order to successfully complete this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Open port 389 on the firewall.
B. Open port 636 on the firewall.
C. Install an Active Directory root certificate on the Device Manager server.
D. Configure two-way transitive trust between the new and existing domains.
Correct Answer: B,C

QUESTION 11
How could a Citrix Engineer ensure that Android devices remain connected to XenMobile Device Manager after successful enrollment?
A. Deploy an Android ‘Scheduling’ policy.
B. Modify the Android ‘XenMobile options’ policy settings.
C. Set the Deployment schedule to ‘on every connection’.
D. Change the Global Scheduling settings in XenMobile Server Options.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
In order to send email enrollment invitations to iOS devices through the XenMobile Device Manager, a Citrix Engineer must configure __________. 1Y0-371 dumps (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. LDAP configuration
B. a valid root certificate
C. an SMTP notification server
D. IMEI numbers for all devices
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Scenario: An Automated Action set to trigger on the event “Device noncompliance of B/W app policy” is configured to notify the user with the following message:
“This application is not approved for your mobile device. Please remove it or access to your email will be denied.”
Which type of Access policy should a Citrix Engineer create to support implementation of the Automated Action?
A. Forbidden
B. Restriction
C. Required list
D. Suggested list
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Scenario: A cloud service provider hosts XenMobile solutions for multiple clients and manages the XenMobile solutions through the Multi-Tenant Console. A Citrix Engineer needs to configure the Multi-Tenant Console to allow some clients to report on their tenants.
How would the engineer configure the Multi-Tenant Console so that a client only sees the accounts relevant to them?
A. Run a report and filter for clients.
B. Add an administrator user and assign it client privileges.
C. Edit each tenant and assign the client from the dropdown list.
D. Create a role with privileges to view tenants only and add the client.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer installed a XenMobile Device Manager server with XenMobile NetScaler Connector (XNC) accepting the default settings. The server has two NICs; one is in the DMZ, dedicated to communicate with the NetScaler, and one is dedicated for internal LAN communication.
How could the engineer set the XNC web service to securely listen on the NIC in the DMZ only?
A. Change the value from 0.0.0.0:80 to the :80
B. Change the value from 0.0.0.0:443 to the :443
C. Change the value from 0.0.0.0:9080 to the :9080
D. Change the value from 0.0.0.0:9443 to the :9443
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
A Citrix Engineer set up XenMobile Device Manager and successfully enrolled Android devices, but is NOT able to enroll an iOS device.
What should the engineer do to ensure the iOS device is enrolled?
A. Check that port 8443 is open to the XenMobile Device Manager.
B. Verify that Worx Home is being deployed from an iOS deployment package.
C. Check the inbound communications to XenMobile Device Manager on port 5223.
D. Ensure that the XenMobile Device Manager has external access to Apple Push Notification Service.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer configured XenMobile NetScaler Connector with XenMobile Device Manager to restrict the ability to actively sync email based on mobile device requirements. The engineer must NOT allow devices that are outside a specific geographic location, have the Twitter application installed or have NOT communicated with XenMobile Device Manager in more than seven days. 1Y0-371 dumps
Which three filters should the engineer configure in the XenMobile Device Manager to meet the security requirements? (Choose three.)
A. Revoked status
B. Inactive devices
C. Blacklisted apps
D. Whitelisted apps only
E. Out of compliance devices
Correct Answer: B,C,E

QUESTION 18
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer installed and configured XenMobile Mail Manager to connect to Exchange and XenMobile Device Manager. Devices are being filtered for email access. The engineer needs to apply existing Exchange rules to unmanaged devices for access to email.
Which step could the engineer take to meet the requirements outlined in the scenario?
A. Configure the Default Access Rule as ‘Allow’.
B. Create a Local Rule to allow unmanaged devices.
C. Configure the Default Access Rule as ‘Unchanged’.
D. Configure the ActiveSync Command Mode using Powershell.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer is responsible for XenMobile Device Manager which deploys internal mobile applications, client certificates, and exchange profiles. An employee who has resigned has requested that all company data be removed from his Android mobile device.
How should the engineer accomplish this?
A. Full Wipe
B. Selective Wipe
C. Device Revoke
D. Lock the device container
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer creates a base deployment package for Android that includes Software Inventory, Remote Support Tunnel and a Passcode policy. After the device enrollment is completed and the base package is pushed out to users successfully, the engineer realizes that a Location Services policy needs to be added to the base package. After adding the policy to the base package successfully, the engineer notices that the policy is NOT being applied to previously enrolled Android devices.
What could be the cause of this issue?
A. APNS communication may be blocked at the firewall.
B. Location Services was disabled on the Android devices.
C. Location Services is NOT supported with the Android OS.
D. A Scheduling policy was NOT defined in the base package.
Correct Answer: D

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[2018 New Version] Update Free Latest Cisco CCDP 300-115 Dumps Exam Files And Youtube Demo

Update free latest Cisco CCDP 300-115 dumps pdf files and vce youtube demo shared. Helpful newest Cisco CCDP 300-115 dumps exam questions and answers free download from lead4pass. “Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks” is the name of Cisco CCDP https://www.lead4pass.com/300-115.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Latest useful Cisco CCDP 300-115 dumps pdf training materials and study guides update free try, pass Cisco 300-115 exam test easily at the first time.

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300-115 dumps
QUESTION 1
RSPAN has been configured on a Cisco Catalyst switch; however, traffic is not being replicated to the remote switch. Which type of misconfiguration is a cause?
A. The RSPAN designated VLAN is missing the remote span command.
B. The local and remote RSPAN switches are configured using different session IDs.
C. The local RSPAN switch is replicating only Rx traffic to the remote switch.
D. The local switch is overloaded with the amount of sourced traffic that must be replicated to the remote switch.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which two statements about SPAN source and destination ports during an active session are true? (Choose two.)
A. The source port can be only an Ethernet physical port.
B. The source port can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions.
C. Thedestination port can be destination in multiple SPAN sessions.
D. The destination port does not participate in STP.
E. You can mix individual source ports and source VLANs within a single session.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
A network engineer changed the port speed and duplex setting of an existing EtherChannel bundle that uses the PAgP protocol. Which statement describes what happens to all ports in the bundle?
A. PAgP changes the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle.
B. PAgP drops the ports that do not match the configuration.
C. PAgP does not change the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle until the switch is rebooted.
D. PAgP changes the port speed but notthe duplex for all ports in the bundle.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A network engineer is installing a switch for temporary workers to connect to. The engineer does not want this switch participating in Spanning Tree with the rest of the network; however, end user connectivity is still required. 300-115 dumps Which spanning-tree feature accomplishes this?
A. BPDUblock
B. BPDUfilter
C. BPDUignore
D. BPDUguard
E. BPDUdisable
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
An EtherChannel bundle has been established between a Cisco switch and a corporate web server. The network administrator noticed that only one of the EtherChannel links is being utilized to reach the web server. What should be done on the Cisco switch to allow for better EtherChannel utilization to the corporate web server?
A. Enable Cisco Express Forwarding to allow for more effective traffic sharing over the EtherChannel bundle.
B. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on destination IP addresses.
C. Disable spanning tree on all interfaces that are participating in the EtherChannel bundle.
D. Use link-state tracking to allow for improved load balancing of traffic upon link failure to the server.
E. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on source IP addresses.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 6
Enablement of which feature puts the port into err-disabled state when the port has PortFast enabled and it receives BPDUs?
A. BPDU filtering
B. BackboneFast
C. EtherChannel
D. BPDU guard
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
When a Layer 2 EtherChannel is configured, which statement about placement of the IP address is true?
A. The IP address is placed on the highest numbered member port.
B. The IP address is placed on the port-channel logical interface.
C. The IP address is placed on the lowest numbered member port.
D. The IP address is assigned via DHCP only.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Ferris Plastics, Inc. is a medium sized company, with an enterprise network (access, distribution and core switches) that provides LAN connectivity from user PCs to corporate servers. The distribution switches are configured to use HSRP to provide a high availability solution.
DSW1 -primary device for VLAN 101 VLAN 102 and VLAN 105
DSW2 – primary device for VLAN 103 and VLAN 104
A failure of GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on primary device should cause the primary device to release its status as the primary device, unless GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on backup device has also failed.
Troubleshooting has identified several issues. Currently all interfaces are up. Using the running configurations and show commands, you have been asked to investigate and respond to the following question.
300-115 dumps
What is the priority value of the VLAN 105 HSRP group on DSW2?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which two statements about SPAN source and destination ports during an active session are true? 300-115 dumps (Choose two.)
A. The source port can be only an Ethernet physical port.
B. The source port can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions.
C. The destination port can be destination in multiple SPAN sessions.
D. The destination port does not participate in STP.
E. You can mix individual source ports and source VLANs within a single session.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
Which two options are two results of using the command spanning-tree vlan 50 root primary within a spanning-tree network under global configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Spanning tree determines the priority of the current root for VLAN 50 and reduces the priority of the local switch to a lower value.
B. The priority value for VLAN 50 is set to 4094 on the root while the local switch priority is set to 32768.
C. The spanning-tree timers are reduced to improve the convergence time for VLAN 50.
D. All ports that are configured on the current switch with VLAN 50 transition to designated ports.
E. The switchport that is configured for VLAN 50 is the primary connection to the spanning-tree root switch.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 11
Your customer has asked you to come in and verify the operation of routers R1 and R2 which are configured to use HSRP. They have questions about how these two devices will perform in the event of a device failure.
300-115 dumps
What issue is causing Router R1 and R2 to both be displayed as the HSRP active router for group 2?
A. The HSRP group number mismatch
B. The HSRP group authentication is misconfigured
C. The HSRP Hello packets are blocked
D. The HSRP timers mismatch
E. The HSRP group priorities are different
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
An enterprise network has port security sticky enabled on all access ports. A network administrator moves a PC from one office desk to another. After the PC is moved, the network administrator clears the port security on the new network switch port connecting to the PC, but the port keeps going back into errdisabled mode. Which two factors are possible causes of this issue? (Choose two)
A. Port security sticky exists on the new network switch port
B. Port security sticky is disabled on the new network switch port
C. Port security must be disabled on all access ports
D. Port security is still enabled on the older network switch port
E. Port security sticky is still enabled on the older network switch port
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands ensure that DSW1 becomes root bridge for VLAN 10 and 20? 300-115 dumps (Choose two)
A. spanning-tree mstp 1 priority 0
B. spanning-tree mst 1 root primary
C. spanning-tree mst vlan 10,20 priority root
D. spanning-tree mst 1 priority 4096
E. spanning-tree mst 1 priority 1
F. spanning-tree mstp vlan 10,20 root primary
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 14
Which database is used to determine the validity of an ARP packet based on a valid IP-to- MAC address binding?
A. DHCP snooping database
B. dynamic ARP database
C. dynamic routing database
D. static ARP database
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
A switch is added into the production network to increase port capacity. A network engineer is configuring the switch for DHCP snooping and IP Source Guard, but is unable to configure ip verify source under several of the interfaces.
Which option is the cause of the problem?
A. The local DHCP server is disabled prior to enabling IP Source Guard.
B. The interfaces are configured as Layer 3 using the no switchport command.
C. No VLANs exist on the switch and/or the switch is configured in VTP transparent mode.
D. The switch is configured for sdm prefer routing as the switched database management template.
E. The configured SVIs on the switch have been removed for the associated interfaces.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
What is the default port security violation
A. log
B. shutdown
C. no change
D. error-disable
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
RSPAN has been configured on a Cisco Catalyst switch; however, traffic is not being replicated to the remote switch.
Which type of misconfiguration is a cause?
A. The RSPAN designated VLAN is missing the remote span command.
B. The local and remote RSPAN switches are configured using different session IDs.
C. The local RSPAN switch is replicating only Rx traffic to the remote switch.
D. The local switch isoverloaded with the amount of sourced traffic that must be replicated to the remote switch.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which will identify the master switch in stack wise?
A. lower priority
B. higher priority
C. lower id
D. higher id
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
A Cisco Catalyst switch that is prone to reboots continues to rebuild the DHCP snooping database. 300-115 dumps What is the solution to avoid the snooping database from being rebuilt after everydevice reboot?
A. A DHCP snooping database agent should be configured.
B. Enable DHCP snooping for all VLANs that are associated with the switch.
C. Disable Option 82 for DHCP data insertion.
D. Use IP Source Guard to protect the DHCP binding table entries from being lost upon rebooting.
E. Apply ip dhcp snooping trust on all interfaces with dynamic addresses.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which statement about Layer 2 protocol participation of ports involved m a SPAN session is true?
A. Neither a SPAN source nor SPAN destination participates m any Layer 2 protocols.
B. A SPAN source does not participate n any Layer 2 protocols
C. A SPAN destination does not participate n any Layer 2 protocols
D. Both SPAN source and SPAN destination participate in any Layer 2 protocols
Correct Answer: C

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300-175 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which statement about Layer 2 protocol participation of ports involved m a SPAN session is true?
A. Neither a SPAN source nor SPAN destination participates m any Layer 2 protocols.
B. A SPAN source does not participate n any Layer 2 protocols
C. A SPAN destination does not participate n any Layer 2 protocols
D. Both SPAN source and SPAN destination participate in any Layer 2 protocols
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Afterport security is deployed throughout an enterprise campus, the network team has been overwhelmed with port reset requests. They decide to configure the network to automate the process of re-enabling user ports.
Which command accomplishes this task?
A. switch(config)# errdisable recovery interval 180
B. switch(config)# errdisable recovery cause psecure-violation
C. switch(config)# switchport port-security protect
D. switch(config)# switchport port-security aging type inactivity
E. switch(config)# errdisablerecovery cause security-violation
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which three functions does Dynamic ARP Inspection perform with invalid IP-to MAC address bindings? (Choose there.)
A. accepts
B. deletes
C. discards
D. bypasses
E. intercepts
F. logs
Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 4
Whichfour LACP components are used to determine which hot-standby links become active after an interface failure within an EtherChannel bundle? 300-175 dumps (Choose four.)
A. LACP system priority
B. LACP port priority
C. interface MAC address
D. system ID
E. port number
F. hot-standby link identification number
G. interface bandwidth
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 5
Which command globally enables AAA on a device?
A. aaa new-model
B. aaa authentication
C. aaa authorization
D. aaa accounting
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What is the default interval at which Cisco devices send Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisements?
A. 30 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. 120 seconds
D. 300 seconds
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
RSPAN has been configured on a Cisco Catalyst switch; however, traffic is not being replicated to the remote switch.
Which type of misconfiguration is a cause?
A. The RSPAN designated VLAN is missing the remote span command
B. The local and remote RSPAN switches are configured using different session IDs.
C. The local RSPAN switch is replicating only Rx traffic to the remote switch.
D. The local switch isoverloaded with the amount of sourced traffic that must be replicated to the remote switch.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Enablement of which feature puts the port into err-disabled state when the port has PortFast enabled and it receives BPDUs?
A. BPDU filtering
B. BackboneFast
C. EtherChannel
D. BPDU guard
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
When using EtherChannel misconfiguration guard, 300-175 dumps which technology is used to prevent this type of misconfiguration from affecting the network?
A. STP
B. port security
C. LACP
D. PAgP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
An EtherChannel bundle has been established between a Cisco switch and a corporate web server. The network administrator noticed that only one of the EtherChannel links is being utilized to reach the web server. What should be done on the Cisco switch to allow for better EtherChannel utilization to the corporate web server?
A. Enable Cisco Express Forwarding to allow for more effective traffic sharing over the EtherChannel bundle.
B. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on destination IP addresses.
C. Disable spanning tree on all interfaces that are participating in the EtherChannel bundle.
D. Use link-state tracking to allow for improved load balancing of traffic upon link failure to the server.
E. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on source IP addresses.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 11
A network engineer changed the port speed and duplex setting of an existing EtherChannel bundle that uses the PAgP protocol. Which statement describes what happens to all ports in the bundle?
A. PAgP changes the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle.
B. PAgP drops the ports that do not match the configuration.
C. PAgP does not change the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle until the switch is rebooted.
D. PAgP changes the port speed but notthe duplex for all ports in the bundle.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which two statements about SPAN source and destination ports during an active session are true? (Choose two.)
A. The source port can be only an Ethernet physical port.
B. The source port can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions.
C. Thedestination port can be destination in multiple SPAN sessions.
D. The destination port does not participate in STP.
E. You can mix individual source ports and source VLANs within a single session.
Correct Answer: BD

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Dynamics NAV 2018 ERP Suite With Dash of AI Released by Microsoft

Microsoft has created a variety of different certification systems. Each of these certifications targets a specific IT area of expertise. These certifications help build the IT professional’s proof of knowledge. Microsoft’s small and midsized business customers can now automate more business processes with the AI-enhanced release of Dynamics NAV 2018.

Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2018, an enterprise resource planning (ERP) software for small and medium businesses, is now generally available. James Phillips, corporate vice president for Microsoft Business Applications, announced on December 1 that the software giant has officially released a new version and improved interoperability with Office 365.

Breadth and depth are built on the company’s broad moat of economy. More than 1 billion people use Microsoft office software, and there is no similar program to approach the office’s throne. Its dominance is strong. “An interesting paradox about Microsoft is that you’re basically out of the office, and now they’ve got that you can not get out of it,” Carl Brooks of Services said. 451 Research Provider Analyst.
Microsoft
With the sustained competitive advantage conferred by Office, Microsoft had the flexibility and resources to grow and expand enterprise offerings with a foot already in the door of almost every computer user. Like the rest of Microsoft’s application and cloud service portfolio, Dynamics NAV 2018 is also gaining some new artificial intelligence (AI) capabilities that promise to help automate repetitive and tedious tasks.

Based on the AI features of 2017, the latest version of the software is based on “new off-the-shelf Microsoft Excel report templates (eg spreadsheets, cash flow statements and more), as well as more in-depth use of Phillips’ 12 A blog post on the 1st of January said: “All of this helps simplify business processes.

Microsoft Cognitive Services is a collection of AI-enabled APIs that developers can use to build intelligent applications that can pick out objects in photos, automatically transcribe audio and detect sentiment in video content, among other capabilities. “We’ve also added improvements to the Optical Character Recognition (OCR) capabilities with the Kofax Invoice Capture Service, for process improvement with digitized purchase invoices,” Phillips added.
Microsoft
As the market for AI-enabled commercial software heats up, the upgrade will also come.

In September, Salesforce announced several major enhancements to its Sales Cloud CRM offering, all powered by the company’s Einstein AI software. Among them is an automated forecasting tool that helps CFOs predict future sales with increased accuracy.

During its OpenWorld conference in October, Oracle announced new AI-enabled Adaptive Intelligent Apps for its cloud-based enterprise resource planning, human capital management (HCM), supply chain and customer relationship management (CRM) products.

According to Phillips, this time easier for getting started with dynamic navigation. The latest versions of ERP products include an automated setup guide that simplifies initial configuration and enables customers to integrate their products with Dynamics 365 for Sales (company sales process management and insights gathering application).
Microsoft
In addition to injecting AI into virtually any commercial software and cloud offering, Microsoft has been fanatically embedding analytics into its products. In Dynamics NAV 2018, this effort is reflected in the rebuilt charts and reports generated by the company’s Power BI cloud-based business intelligence and analytics software.

Finally, Dynamics NAV integrates with Microsoft Flow, Microsoft’s mission-automation application. Flow debuted in April 2016, allowing users to take a more hands-on approach to everyday tasks that require multiple applications to complete. Flow connects to other Microsoft services and many third-party software-as-a-service applications to automate tasks that would otherwise require users to handle a few or more applications.

For example, you can use Flow to automatically copy new Salesforce leads to your organization’s CRM system and other tasks that otherwise require users to copy and paste information from one application into another.

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[2017 New Version] Shared New Cisco 210-250 Dumps PDF Training Resources And VCE Youtube Free Try

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Cyber Ops
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals
Exam Code: 210-250
Total Questions: 80 Q&As
210-250 dumps
QUESTION 1
How is traffic forwarded from the Cisco ASA to the FirePOWER services module for analysis?
A. The SFR is transparent and automatically sees all traffic.
B. A service policy redirects traffic from the Cisco ASA packet-processing path to the SFR
C. The SFR has a dedicated data interface
D. The SFR is a standalone appliance that is inserted inline in the data path
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which FirePOWER services capability supports seamless processing after an adaptive security appliance stateful failover event?
A. midsession pickup
B. TCP intercept
C. SFR stateful failover
D. FireSIGHT central policy distribution
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which three options are important when positioning a next-generation firewall solution? (Choose three.)
A. performance
B. resistance to evasion
C. current install base
D. interoperability
E. stability
F. nonproprietary
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 4
Which enhancement is added to URL filtering that is performed by the FirePOWER services module? 210-250 dumps
A. categories
B. reputation scores
C. regular expressions
D. IP address filters
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which action does Dynamic Content Analysis enable the Web Security Appliance to do?
A. Reclassify miscategorized sites.
B. Determine the most likely category of the website delivering content.
C. Block web content based on the Web Reputation of the serving site.
D. Choose the best AV engine to scan content.
E. Redirect the user to a site that the security administrator chooses.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
NGIPS rulesets are configured using which management application?
A. FireSIGHT Management Center
B. Cisco IDM
C. Cisco IME
D. Cisco ASDM
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Why does L4TM require T1 to be in promiscuous mode?
A. To transmit TCP reset packets
B. To process traffic that is not intended for its MAC address
C. To receive Ethernet broadcasts
D. To bind with other promiscuous mode ports
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
With which hardware option must Cisco ASA models below the 5585-X be sold to support FirePOWER services?
A. SSP module
B. FireSIGHT Management Center
C. SSD
D. FirePOWER services bundle
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
210-250 dumps Which application is required to support adding user information from Microsoft Active Directory to FirePOWER events?
A. Cisco ASA Identity Firewall
B. Microsoft Active Directory Agent
C. Cisco Directory Agent
D. Sourcefire User Agent
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
In the access log, what does an ACL tag beginning with BLOCK_ADMIN indicate?
A. The transaction was blocked because of application or object properties.
B. The malware category is set to blocking mode.
C. The transaction was manually blocked by the administrative user.
D. The destination was manually added to the block list.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which recommendation should be made to increase scalability, performance, and resiliency?
A. Create a Cisco ASA failover pair.
B. Upgrade the current Cisco ASA
C. Upgrade from the FirePOWER software module to the hardware module
D. Deploy Cisco ASA clustering.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
You are helping the customer configure authentication. A new AsyncOS upgrade becomes available; what should you do?
A. Avoid mentioning the upgrade to the customer.
B. Immediately show the customer how to run the CLI command upgrade.
C. Contact customer support and ask them to run the upgrade for you.
D. Schedule a convenient time to upgrade again, backing up the configuration before and after the upgrade.
Correct Answer: D

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[2017 New Version] Latest Lead4pass 210-260 Dumps Cisco Exam Materials And Youtube Shared

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Security
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Exam Code: 210-260
Total Questions: 310 Q&As
lead4pass 210-260 dumps
QUESTION 1
What is the best way to confirm that AAA authentication is working properly?
A. Use the test aaa command.
B. Ping the NAS to confirm connectivity.
C. Use the Cisco-recommended configuration for AAA authentication.
D. Log into and out of the router, and then check the NAS authentication log.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
When an administrator initiates a device wipe command from the ISE, what is the immediate effect?
A. It requests the administrator to choose between erasing all device data or only managed corporate data.
B. It requests the administrator to enter the device PIN or password before proceeding with the operation.
C. It notifies the device user and proceeds with the erase operation.
D. It immediately erases all data on the device.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
What is the FirePOWER impact flag used for?
A. A value that indicates the potential severity of an attack.
B. A value that the administrator assigns to each signature.
C. A value that sets the priority of a signature.
D. A value that measures the application awareness.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which statements about smart tunnels on a Cisco firewall are true? (Choose two.)
A. Smart tunnels can be used by clients that do not have administrator privileges
B. Smart tunnels support all operating systems
C. Smart tunnels offer better performance than port forwarding
D. Smart tunnels require the client to have the application installed locally
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
What is the purpose of the Integrity component of the CIA triad?
A. to ensure that only authorized parties can modify data
B. to determine whether data is relevant
C. to create a process for accessing data
D. to ensure that only authorized parties can view data
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What security feature allows a private IP address to access the Internet by translating it to a public address?
A. NAT
B. hairpinning
C. Trusted Network Detection
D. Certification Authority
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
lead4pass 210-260 dumps
You have configured R1 and R2 as shown, but the routers are unable to establish a site-to- site VPN tunnel. What action can you take to correct the problem?
A. Edit the crypto keys on R1 and R2 to match.
B. Edit the ISAKMP policy sequence numbers on R1 and R2 to match.
C. Set a valid value for the crypto key lifetime on each router.
D. Edit the crypto isakmp key command on each router with the address value of its own interface.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
What is a benefit of a web application firewall?
A. It blocks known vulnerabilities without patching applications.
B. It simplifies troubleshooting.
C. It accelerates web traffic.
D. It supports all networking protocols.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You have implemented a Sourcefire IPS and configured it to block certain addresses utilizing Security Intelligence IP Address Reputation. A user calls and is not able to access a certain IP address. What action can you take to allow the user access to the IP address?
A. Create a whitelist and add the appropriate IP address to allow the traffic.
B. Create a custom blacklist to allow the traffic.
C. Create a user based access control rule to allow the traffic.
D. Create a network based access control rule to allow the traffic.
E. Create a rule to bypass inspection to allow the traffic.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What are the three layers of a hierarchical network design? (Choose three.)
A. access
B. core
C. distribution
D. user
E. server
F. Internet
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 11
What are purposes of the Internet Key Exchange in an IPsec VPN? (Choose two.)
A. The Internet Key Exchange protocol establishes security associations
B. The Internet Key Exchange protocol provides data confidentiality
C. The Internet Key Exchange protocol provides replay detection
D. The Internet Key Exchange protocol is responsible for mutual authentication
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
What is an advantage of implementing a Trusted Platform Module for disk encryption?
A. It provides hardware authentication.
B. It allows the hard disk to be transferred to another device without requiring re- encryption.dis
C. It supports a more complex encryption algorithm than other disk-encryption technologies.
D. It can protect against single points of failure.
Correct Answer: A

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[2017 New Version] Best 200-105 Dumps Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 Materials And Youtube Demo

Latest updated Cisco ICND2 200-105 dumps exam download for Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2. “Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)” is the name of Cisco 200-105 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. High quality Cisco ICND2 https://www.lead4pass.com/200-105.html dumps pdf materials and dumps vce youtube update free demo. Get the best Cisco ICND2 200-105 dumps exam questions and answers free try, pass Cisco 200-105 exam test easily.

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND2
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-105
Total Questions: 204 Q&As
200-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which three challenges can the Cisco ACI integration of Layer 4 to Layer 7 services help a customer solve? (Choose three.)
A. Operational challenge of waiting on specialized administrators to configure individual devices
B. Limited device features
C. Chain of network services that includes multiple vendors
D. Costly and error-prone change control
E. Politics within an IT management organization
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 2
Which two functions are provided by the Cisco Application Policy Infrastructure Controller? (Choose two.)
A. Telemetry data for fabric operations
B. Policy repository
C. Distributed management plane
D. Control plane forwarding
E. Data plane forwarding
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
Your Certkiller trainee, Certkiller, asks you which of the following is a key objective of operations readiness assessment in the plan phase?
A. install and test system components in a nonproduction environment
B. assess the ability of site facilities to accommodate the proposed solution
C. assess the current state of operations and network management infrastructure, including people, processes, and tools, to identify issues and opportunities
D. assess existing network infrastructure and applications to verify its ability to support the proposed system
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
In the implement phase, solution implementation involves which of the following task? 200-105 dumps
A. perform preliminary Site Assessment
B. configure core products
C. execute test cases
D. analyze high-level design and technology requirements of the customer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which statement describes a bridge domain as it relates to the Cisco ACI?
A. Separates tenants
B. A separate routing instance
C. A container for IP subnets
D. A container for end points
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
200-105 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-105 dumps
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit
200-105 dumps
A packet with a source IP address of 192.168.2.4 and a destination IP address of 10.1.1.4 arrives at the AcmeB router. What action does the router take?
A. forwards the received packet out the Serial0/0 interface
B. forwards a packet containing an EIGRP advertisement out the Serial0/1 interface
C. forwards a packet containing an ICMP message out the FastEthemet0/0 interface
D. forwards a packet containing an ARP request out the FastEthemet0/1 interface
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
What is the function of the OpFlex protocol policy element?
A. Stores statistical information
B. Learns and knows every device in the network
C. Resolves policy and configures network hardware/software
D. Captures and stores the user intent in policy
E. Limits device features
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which action extends an EPG outside of the Cisco ACI fabric? 200-105 dumps
A. Enable a routing protocol on the border leaf.
B. Extend the bridge domain to an outside network.
C. Create a Layer 3 port.
D. Manually assign a port to a VLAN and map the VLAN to an EPG
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which three statements about a Cisco ACI Layer 3 connection to an external network are true? (Choose three.)
A. The Cisco ACI fabric is considered a transit network.
B. Routes learned from the outside are redistributed into ISIS.
C. Routes learned from the outside are redistributed into MP-BGP.
D. A leaf switch can peer with an external router.
E. A leaf switch cannot peer with an external router.
F. The Cisco ACI fabric is intended to be a stub network.
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 11
In which two ways can Layer 4 to Layer 7 services be integrated with Cisco ACI? (Choose two.)
A. A Layer 4 to Layer 7 appliance can program the Cisco APIC.
B. The Cisco APIC controls and automatically configures Layer 4 to Layer 7 services via device packages
C. Using traditional VLAN/VRF stitching.
D. The Cisco APIC does not integrate with third-party appliances.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 12
Which statement about when Cisco ACI is integrated with Microsoft Azure pack is true?
A. The application network profile is created in Windows Systems Center and pushed to the Cisco APIC.
B. The application profile is created in Windows Azure Pack Management Portal and pushed to the Cisco APIC.
C. The application network profile is created in the Cisco APIC and pushed to Windows Azure.
D. The application network profile is created in the Cisco APIC and pushed to Systems Center.
Correct Answer: B

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[2017 New Version] 100% Pass With Latest RedHat EX300 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Youtube Update

Get the best RedHat RHCE certification EX300 dumps pdf and vce practice materials from lead4pass, high quality RedHat RHCE certification EX300 dumps exam questions and answers free download. https://www.lead4pass.com/EX300.html dumps pdf practice files. Latest RedHat RHCE certification EX300 dumps pdf training materials and study guides update free try, pass RedHat EX300 exam test easily.

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Vendor: RedHat
Certifications: RHCE certification
Exam Name: Red Hat Certified Engineer (RHCE)
Exam Code: EX300
Total Questions: 36 Q&As
EX300 dumps
QUESTION 1
Write a script / root / program, the requirements when the input parameter kernel to the script, the script returns the user, the input parameters to the script user, the script returns the kernel. While the script no parameters or parameter error, the output from the standard error output usage: / root / the program kernel | user

Answer:
vim /root/program
#!/bin/bash
if [ “$1” == “kernel”];then
echo “user”
elif [“$1” == “user”];then
echo “kernel”
else
echo “usage:/root/program kernel|user”
fi
Test:
chmod a+x /root/program
.root/program kernel
./root/program user
./root/program lll

QUESTION 2
Please visit iscsi shared storage, storage server address is 172.24.30.100, ceded 1500M space, formatted with the ext3 file system, mount / mnt / data, and boot automatically mount.

Answer:
yum install ‐y iscsi*
chkconfig iscsid on
chkconfig iscsi on
iscsiadm ‐m discovery ‐t st ‐p 172.24.30.100:3260
iscsiadm ‐m node ‐T iqn.2011 ‐p 172.24.30.100 ‐|
service iscsi restart
fdisk ‐|
fdisk /dev/sda
partx ‐a /dev/sda
partx ‐a /dev/sda
mkfs.ext3 /dev/sad1
yum ‐y install tree
cd /var/lib/iscsi
tree . view iqn
cd /mnt
mkdir data
blkid /dev/sda1 (View UUID, UUID mount)
vim /etc/fstab
UUID=XXX /mnt/data ext3 default, _netdev 0 0
mount ‐a

QUESTION 3
Configuring the NFS service that will /mnt /storage directory with read‐only shared to the example.com domain user when the client as the root user will also have access to the root directory permissions to read‐only shared to cracker.org domain users. EX300 dumps

Answer:
# vim /etc/exports
/mnt/storage *.example.com(ro,sync,no_root_squash)
/mnt/storage *.cracker.org(ro,sync)
QUESTION 18
Example.com only allows access to the local SSH.
Answer:
# vim /etc/hosts.allow
sshd: .example.com
# vim /etc/hosts.deny
sshd: ALL

QUESTION 4
Configure cron as follow:
Clients tom should NOT have access to cron
Answer:
useradd tom
vim /etc/cron.deny
tom
Effective immediately save and exit.

QUESTION 5
Configure Kernel parameters rhelblq=1 and enable /proc/cmdline to verify your Kernel parameters.

Answer:
Vim /etc/grub.conf
Write the end of the kernel line
To see after restart
cat /proc/cmdline

QUESTION 6
Configure an email server domian30.example.com, and it requests to send and receive emails from the local server or the user harry can send or receive emails from network. The email of user harry is /var/spool/mail/harry.
Please note: the DNS server has already been MX record.

Answer:
yum install ‐y postfix
chkconfig postfix on
vim /etc/postfix/main.cf
inet_interfaces = all
mydestination = example.com, domain30.example.com, localhost
mynetworks = 172.16.30.0/24, 127.0.0.1/8
services postfix restart
Test:
netstat ‐tulnp |grep 25
hostname
echo hello |mail ‐s “test”[email protected]
cat /var/spool/mai/harry

QUESTION 7
Connect to mail server and send email to admin, ensure that user harry can revive it.

Answer:
vim /etc/aliases
admin: harry
newaliases

QUESTION 8
Samba configuration requirements are as follows:
1. The Working Group called RHCE
2. Types of user authentication
3. Shared / mnt / storage directory share name for the share
4. The shared directory allows user1 and user2 user has write permissions to other users are read‐only, if you need password are redhat
5. only allows the user to access the shared directory domain example.com

Answer:
# yum install ‐y samba
# vim /etc/samba/smb.conf
[global]
workgroup = RHCE
security = user
[share]
path = /mnt/storage
write list = user1 user2
hosts allow = .example.com
# ( echo redhat ; echo redhat ) | smbpasswd ‐s ‐a user1
# ( echo redhat ; echo redhat ) | smbpasswd ‐s ‐a user2
# service smb start; chkconfig smb on

QUESTION 9
Establish vsftp server, so that only allow user1 user access, and cannot jump out of home directories only allow users to upload and download example domain, allowing only example domains can be accessed. EX300 dumps

Answer:
# yum ‐y install vsftpd
# vim /etc/vsftpd/vsftpd.conf
userlist_deny=NO
userlist_file=/etc/vsftpd/vsftpd.user_list
chroot_list_enable=YES
chroot_list_file= /etc/vsftpd/vsftpd.chroot_list
anon_upload_enable=YES
anonymous_enable=YES
# mkdir ‐p /var/ftp/incoming; chmod 777 /var/ftp/incoming
# chcon ‐t public_content_rw_t /var/ftp/incoming
# setsebool ‐P allow_ftpd_anon_write 1
# setsebool ‐P ftp_home_dir 1
# vim /etc/vsftpd/vsftpd.user_list
user1
# vim /etc/vsftpd/vsftpd.chroot_list
user1
# service vsftpd start; chkconfig vsftpd on
# vim /etc/hosts.deny
vsftpd: ALL EXCEPT .example.com

QUESTION 10
Create new mail server, the following:
1. Allow localhost and remote hosts can access
2. Allow example.com users can relay to refuse remote test
3. All mail sent to the user3 will be sent to user2
4. Confirm / var/spool/mail/user1 exist
5. Example.com domain only allows the user to receive mail via pop3

Answer:
# yum install postfix ‐y
# alternatives ‐‐set mta (Choose postfix)
# service sendmail stop; chkconfig sendmail off
# cd /etc/postfix
# vim main.cf
myhostname = stationX.example.com
mynetworks_style = subnet
mydestination = $ myhostname
myorigin = $ myhostname
relay_domains = example.com, $mydestination
inet_interfaces = all
smtpd_client_restrictions =
check_client_access hash:/etc/postfix/access,
check_sender_access hash:/etc/postfix/access,
check_recipient_access hash:/etc/postfix/access,
permit_auth_destination,
permit_mynetworks,
# vim /etc/postfix/access
remote.test REJECT
# vim /etc/aliases
user3: user2
# postalias /etc/aliases
# postmap hash:/etc/postfix/access
# touch /var/spool/mail/user1 (Generally exist by default)
# chown user1:mail /var/spool/mail/user1
# chcon ‐‐reference=/var/spool/mail/root /var/spool/mail/user1
# chmod 660 /var/spool/mail/user1
# Reject remote.test domains can use iptables.
# iptables ‐A INPUT ‐p tcp ‐‐dport 25 ‐s remote.test(Written IP network segment) ‐j
REJECT
# service postfix start; chkconfig postfix on
# yum install dovecot
# vim /etc/dovecot.conf
protocols = pop3
# service dovecot start; chkconfig dovecot on
# iptables ‐A INPUT ‐p tcp ‐‐dport 110 ‐s 192.168.0.0/24 ‐j
ACCEPT
# iptables ‐A INPUT ‐p tcp ‐‐dport 110 ‐j REJECT
# service iptables save; chkconfig iptables on

QUESTION 11
Open system kernel forwarding packets function:

Answer:
vim /etc/sysctl.conf
net.ipv4.ip_forward = 1
sysctl ‐w (Effective immediately)
The following commands should executed without sysctl.conf option:
sysctl ‐a |grep net.ipv4
sysctl ‐P net.ipv4.ip_forward = 1
sysctl ‐w

QUESTION 12
Configure NFS server to share /common directory with domain30.example.com.
Authenticate the clients devices have the access to it as root user. EX300 dumps

Answer:
yum install ‐y nfs
chkconfig nfs on
chkconfig rpcbind on
vim /etc/exports
/common 172.24.30.0/255.255.255.0 (rw,no_root_squash)
showmount ‐e 172.16.30.5
mount ‐t nfs 172.16.30.5:/common /mnt

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