AW Computing needs to track the Salesforce ADM-211 practice exam manufacturer and model for specific computers and laptops. How can the system administrator ensure that manufacturer selected influences the values available for model.
A. Create a multi-select picklist field that includes both manufacturers and models.
B. Create a lookup field from the manufacturer object to the model object
C. Create a manufacturer field as a controlling picklist and the model as a dependent picklist
D. Create a manufacturer field as the dependent picklist and the model as the controlling picklist.
Correct Answer: C
Which of the following are true about formula fields?
A. They are read-only
B. They will not display on record edit pages
C. They will not display on record detail pages
D. They are not searchable
E. They will not display on reports
Correct Answer: ABD
Which of the ADM-211 following objects support business processes?
Correct Answer: AB
The system administrator has been asked to create a way to track Shipments of products to customers. Shipments should be closely tied to the Opportunity record and there may be more than one shipment record per Opportunity and the ADM-211 Opportunity should be required (i.e. Users cannot save a Shipment record without associating it to an Opportunity). The system administrator should create.
A. A cross object formula displaying Opportunity ID on the Shipment record
B. A Master – Detail relationship on the Shipment object to the Opportunity object
C. A lookup relationship on the Opportunity object to the Shipment object
D. A lookup relationship with a lookup filter from Opportunity to Shipment
Correct Answer: B
You will need a security token to access Salesforce via (choose all that apply)
A. Import Wizard
B. Data Loader
C. Salesforce for Outlook
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: BC
What should a system administrator consider before importing a set of records into Salesforce.
A. The import file should include a record owner for each record
B. Validation rules are not triggered when importing data using the import wizard
C. Data should be de-duplicated in the import file prior to import
D. Currency field values will default to the personal currency of the record owner
Correct Answer: AC
Which of the following can be used to ADM-211 create a back up of data from Salesforce?
A. Weekly Data Export
B. Data Loader
C. Import Wizard
Correct Answer: ABD
Which statement about custom summary formulas is true?
A. Reports can be grouped by a custom summary formula result
B. Custom summary formulas can reference a formula field within a report
C. Custom summary formulas can reference another custom summary formula
D. Custom summary formulas can be used in a report built from a custom report type
Correct Answer: BD
A Dashboard is a visual representation of data from ADM-211 multiple reports and (choose all that apply)
A. Is comprised of up to 20 components
B. Displays data from standard reports
C. Has a running user to determine what data is visible
D. Displays data as of the last time the dashboard was refreshed
E. Always shows up to date data
F. Can be scheduled to be refreshed and emailed automatically
Correct Answer: ACDF
The support team has asked the System Administrator to automate the notification of a customer’s support plan ending – they would like for the ADM-211 Customer Support Rep to receive an email 30 days before the Support Plan Expires (Support Plan Expiration Date is on the Account record). What will the system administrator do?
A. Create a workflow rule with a time-based trigger to fire 30 days before the Support Plan Expiration Date and use an email action to notify the assigned Support Rep
B. Create a workflow rule with an immediate action to email the Support rep but with a due date of 30 days before the Support Expiration Date
C. Create an Apex trigger to fire 30 days before Support Plan Expiration Date and use an email action to notify the assigned Support Rep
D. This cannot be done
Correct Answer: A
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Exam Code: MB2-708
Exam Name: Microsoft Dynamics CRM Installation
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You are deploying Dynamics CRM 2015. You configure the following settings:
Users will not use Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook.
You need to identify a method to MB2-708 exam implement synchronization for appointments, contacts, and tasks.
What should you use?
A. Forward Mailbox
B. Smart Matching
C. Server-Side Synchronization
D. Email Router
Correct Answer: B
You recently upgraded a deployment of Dynamics CRM to Dynamics CRM 2015. All client computers have the following configurations:
Internet Explorer 10
Microsoft Outlook 2007
Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5.1
Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013 for Outlook
You need to upgrade all of the Microsoft MB2-708 Dynamics CRM for Outlook installations to Dynamics CRM 2015.
What should you upgrade before you install Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook?
A. Windows 7
B. Outlook 2007
C. Internet Explorer 10
D. .NET Framework 3.5.1
Correct Answer: C
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that has 50 users.
A user named User1 has Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook installed.
User1 plans to manage another Dynamics CRM 2015 organization from Microsoft MB2-708 Outlook.
You need to add the second organization to Outlook.
What should you do?
A. Run the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook Configuration Wizard.
B. Add a Connected Service to the Office Account of User1.
C. Modify the URL of the Discovery Web Service server role.
D. Reinstall Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook.
Correct Answer: B
You plan to deploy Dynamics CRM 2015 for a customer.
The customer requires that the Email Router component be used.
You need to identify to the MB2-708 customer which email solutions are supported by the Email Router.
Which three email solutions should you identity? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
B. Exchange ActiveSync
C. A Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) server for outgoing email
D. Microsoft Exchange Online
E. A Post Office Protocol 3 (POP3) server for incoming email
Correct Answer: ABC
You are using the Dynamics CRM 2013 Email Router to transfer email to a Dynamics CRM 2015 server.
Users report that email is tracked, but tasks, appointments, and contacts are not tracked.
You need to ensure that the MB2-708 vce tasks, appointments, and contacts are tracked.
What should you do?
A. Modify the file system permissions for the users.
B. Deploy Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook.
C. Upgrade the Email Router.
D. Modify the configuration of the Email Router.
Correct Answer: B
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that contains one organization. You need to create a copy of the organization within the same deployment. What should you do first?
A. Disable the organization.
B. Back up the organization database.
C. Restore the organization database.
D. Disable the server.
Correct Answer: A
Which statement correctly describes the Microsoft Dynamics CRM for MB2-708 Outlook client application?
A. The Dynamics CRM 2013 French language pack can be upgraded to the Dynamics CRM 2015 English language pack.
B. Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook can be used in online mode when connected to Dynamics CRM 2011.
C. Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook can be used in offline mode or online mode when connected to Dynamics CRM 2013.
D. Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013 for Outlook can be used in online mode when connected to Dynamics CRM 2015.
Correct Answer: A
You install Microsoft MB2-708 Dynamics CRM for Outlook on 50 client computers.
You need to configure Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook to use the URL for the Discovery Web Service.
What should you do?
A. Run setupclient.exe and specify the /A parameter.
B. Run microsoft.crm.application.outlook-configwizard.exe and specify the/xo parameter.
C. Run microsoftcrm.application.outlook-configwizard.exe and specify the/i parameter.
D. Run setupclient.exe and specify /targetdir parameter.
Correct Answer: A
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015.
A manager at your company uses Microsoft MB2-708 dumps Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook.
The manager stores a large amount of offline data, but the new data is NOT available offline. You need to ensure that the new data added to Dynamics CRM 2015 is available to the manager offline.
What should you do?
A. Upgrade to Microsoft SQL Server Express 2014.
B. Defragment the hard disk drive of the manager’s computer.
C. Modify the Offline Synchronization Filters for Outlook.
D. Modify the Outlook Synchronization Filters.
Correct Answer: B
You need to create a relationship between email and records by using information that is stored in the email message header, such as the MB2-708 sender and the recipient.
What should you use?
A. The tracking token
B. The Email Router
C. Server-side synchronization
D. Smart matching
Correct Answer: A
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Assumptions are factors that, for PMI pmi-001 pdf planning purposes, are considered to be ______.
A. True, real, or certain
B. True, real, or uncertain
Correct Answer: A
PMBOK describes assumptions as “factors that, for planning purposes, are considered to be true, real, or certain.”
Which one of the following comes first in the pmi-001 project plan?
A. Scope Statement
B. Quality Plan
D. Development Plan
Correct Answer: A
Scope statement comes first in the project plan. Scope statement is the pmi-001 exam written statement of project. It contains: Project objectives, Project justification, Project deliverables.
You are project manager of a project. During the process of selecting the sellers, you reject one vendor because it doesn’t have the pmi-001 manufacturing capability. This is an example of which selection tool?
A. Weighting system
B. Screening system
C. Seller rating system
D. Expert judgment
Correct Answer: B
A screening system rejects sellers that does not meet minimum requirements for the project.
______________ provides details about how the pmi-001 project scope may be changed.
A. Control Scope system
B. VeiirV Scope
C. Scope Charter
D. Scope Management plan
Correct Answer: D Explanation
The scope management plan provides details about how the project scope may be changed.
Which of the following technique to identify the underlying cause of a problem and take steps to prevent further occurrence?
A. Root cause analysis
B. Quality audits
C. Project audits
D. Risk audits
Correct Answer: A
Root cause analysis: A technique to identify the pmi-001 underlying cause of a problem and take steps to prevent further occurrence.
Which of the following provides the least accurate in estimating?
A. Rough order of magnitude
B. Budget estimate
C. WBS estimate
D. Definitive estimate
Correct Answer: A
The rough order of magnitude is the pmi-001 dumps least accurate approach, as it may vary from -25 percent to +75 percent.
Who has the responsibility for informing the final deliverable to all stakeholders?
A. Project Manager
C. Team Lead
Correct Answer: A
Project Manager has the responsibility for informing the final deliverable to all stakeholders.
What is a corrective action?
A. An action that brings future pmi-001 project events Into alignment with the project plan
B. An action to correct something in the project
C. An action to prevent something in the project
D. Corrective action is not related to project
Correct Answer: A
Corrective action: An action that brings future project events into alignment with the project plan.
A contract cannot contain _____________.
A. Illegal activities
B. deadline for the completion of the work
C. Penalties and fines for disclosure of intellectual rights
D. Al1 of the above
Correct Answer: A
A contract cannot contain illegal activities. A pmi-001 vce contract can contain other options available.
A complete set of indexed pmi-001 project records is called __________.
A. Project archives
D. Project History
Correct Answer: A
A complete set of indexed project records for archiving by the appropriate parties.
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Real and effective ISC Cissp Exam Practice Questions
QUESTION 1 Physical security is accomplished through proper facility construction, fire and water protection, anti-theft mechanisms, intrusion detection systems, and security procedures that are adhered to and enforced. Which of the following is not a component that achieves this type of security? A. Administrative control mechanisms B. Integrity control mechanisms C. Technical control mechanisms D. Physical control mechanisms Correct Answer: B Explanation: Integrity Control Mechanisms are not part of physical security. All of the other detractors were correct this one was the wrong one that does not belong to Physical Security. Below you have more details extracted from the SearchSecurity web site: Information security depends on the security and management of the physical space in which computer systems operate. Domain 9 of the CISSP exam\\’s Common Body of Knowledge addresses the challenges of securing the physical space, its systems and the people who work within it by use of administrative, technical and physical controls. The following topics are covered: Facilities management: The administrative processes that govern the maintenance and protection of the physical operations space, from site selection through emergency response. Risks, issues and protection strategies: Risk identification and the selection of security protection components. Perimeter security: Typical physical protection controls. Facilities management Facilities management is a complex component of corporate security that ranges from the planning of a secure physical site to the management of the physical information system environment. Facilities management responsibilities include site selection and physical security planning (i.e. facility construction, design and layout, fire and water damage protection, antitheft mechanisms, intrusion detection, and security procedures.) Protections must extend to both people and assets. The necessary level of protection depends on the value of the assets and data. CISSP?candidates must learn the concept of critical-path analysis as a means of determining a component\\’s business function criticality relative to the cost of operation and replacement. Furthermore, students need to gain an understanding of the optimal location and physical attributes of a secure facility. Among the topics covered in this domain are site inspection, location, accessibility and obscurity, considering the area crime rate, and the likelihood of natural hazards such as floods or earthquakes. This domain also covers the quality of construction material, such as its protective qualities and load capabilities, as well as how to layout the structure to minimize the risk of forcible entry and accidental damage. Regulatory compliance is also touched on, as is preferred proximity to civil protection services, such as fire and police stations. Attention is given to computer and equipment rooms, including their location, configuration (entrance/egress requirements) and their proximity to wiring distribution centers at the site. Physical risks, issues and protection strategies An overview of physical security risks includes the risk of theft, service interruption, physical damage, compromised system integrity and unauthorized disclosure of information. Interruptions to business can manifest due to loss of power, services, telecommunications connectivity and water supply. These can also seriously compromise electronic security monitoring alarm/response devices. Backup options are also covered in this domain, as is a strategy for quantifying the risk exposure by a simple formula. Investment in preventive security can be costly. Appropriate redundancy of people skills, systems and infrastructure must be based on the criticality of the data and assets to be preserved. Therefore a strategy is presented that helps determine the selection of cost appropriate controls. Among the topics covered in this domain are regulatory and legal requirements, common standard security protections such as locks and fences, and the importance of establishing service level agreements for maintenance and disaster support. Rounding out the optimization approach are simple calculations for determining the mean time between failure and mean time to repair (used to estimate average equipment life expectancy) — essential for estimating the cost/benefit of purchasing and maintaining redundant equipment. As the lifeblood of computer systems, special attention is placed on adequacy, quality, and protection of power supplies. CISSP candidates need to understand power supply concepts and terminology, including those for quality (i.e. transient noise vs. clean power); types of interference (EMI and RFI); and types of interruptions such as power excess by spikes and surges, power loss by fault or blackout, and power degradation from sags and brownouts. A simple formula is presented for determining the total cost per hour for backup power. Proving power reliability through testing is recommended and the advantages of three power protection approaches are discussed (standby UPS, power line conditioners and backup sources) including minimum requirements for primary and alternate power provided. Environmental controls are explored in this domain, including the value of positive pressure water drains and climate monitoring devices used to control temperature, humidity and reduce static electricity. Optimal temperatures and humidity settings are provided. Recommendations include strict procedures during emergencies, preventing typical risks (such as blocked fans), and the use of antistatic armbands and hygrometers. Positive pressurization for proper ventilation and monitoring for air-born contaminants is stressed. The pros and cons of several detection response systems are deeply explored in this domain. The concept of combustion, the classes of fire and fire extinguisher ratings are detailed. Mechanisms behind smoke-activated, heat-activated and flame-activated devices and Automatic Dial-up alarms are covered, along with their advantages, costs, and shortcomings. Types of fire sources are distinguished and the effectiveness of fire suppression methods for each is included. For instance, Halon and its approved replacements are covered, as are the advantages and the inherent risks to equipment of the use of water sprinklers. Administrative controls The physical security domain also deals with administrative controls applied to physical sites and assets. The need for skilled personnel, knowledge sharing between them, separation of duties, and appropriate oversight in the care and maintenance of equipment and environments is stressed. A list of management duties including hiring checks, employee maintenance activities and recommended termination procedures are offered. Emergency measures include accountability for evacuation and system shutdown procedures, integration with disaster and business continuity plans, assuring documented procedures are easily available during different types of emergencies, the scheduling of periodic equipment testing, administrative reviews of documentation, procedures and recovery plans, responsibilities delegation, and personnel training and drills. Perimeter security Domain nine also covers the devices and techniques used to control access to space. These include access control devices, surveillance monitoring, intrusion detection, and corrective actions. Specifications are provided for optimal external boundary protection, including fence heights and placement, and lighting placement and types. The selection of door types and lock characteristics are covered. Surveillance methods and intrusion-detection methods are explained, including the use of video monitoring, guards, dogs, proximity detection systems, photoelectric/photometric systems, wave pattern devices, passive infrared systems, and sound and motion detectors, and current flow sensitivity devices that specifically address computer theft. Room lock types — both preset and cipher locks (and their variations) — device locks, such as portable laptop locks, lockable server bays, switch control locks and slot locks, port controls, peripheral switch controls, and cable trap locks are also covered. Personal access control methods used to identify authorized users for site entry are covered at length, noting social engineering risks such as piggybacking. Wireless proximity devices, both user access and system sensing readers are covered (i.e. transponder based, passive devices and field powered devices) in this domain. Now that you\\’ve been introduced to the key concepts of Domain 9, watch the Domain 9, Physical Security video Return to the CISSP Essentials Security School the main page See all SearchSecurity.com\\’s resources on CISSP certification training Source: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw- Hill/Osborne, 2001, Page 280.
QUESTION 2 Which is a property of a circuit-switched network as opposed to a packet-switched network? A. Physical, permanent connections exist from one point to another in a circuit-switched network. B. The data is broken up into packets. C. Packets are reassembled according to their originally assigned sequence numbers. D. The data is sent to the next destination, which is based on router\\’s understanding of the best available route. Correct Answer: A The correct answer is “Physical, permanent connections exist from one point to another in a circuit-switched network”. Permanent connections are a feature of circuit-switched networks.
QUESTION 3 Which of the following is the BEST way to determine if a particular system is able to identify malicious software without executing it? A. Testing with a Botnet B. Testing with an EICAR file C. Executing a binary shellcode D. Run multiple antivirus programs Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 Which of the following is considered best practice for preventing e-mail spoofing? A. Spam filtering B. Cryptographic signature C. Uniform Resource Locator (URL) filtering D. Reverse Domain Name Service (DNS) lookup Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 Which is NOT considered a physical intrusion detection method? A. Wave pattern motion detector B. Audio motion detector C. Photoelectric sensor D. Line supervision Correct Answer: D Line supervision is the monitoring of the alarm signaling transmission medium to detect tampering. Audio detectors monitor a room for any abnormal sound wave generation. Photoelectric sensors receive a beam of light from a light-emitting device. Wave pattern motion detectors generate a wave pattern and send an alarm if the pattern is disturbed.
QUESTION 6 Which of the following statements pertaining to fire suppression systems is TRUE? A. Halon is today the most common choice as far as an agent is concern because it is highly effective in the way that it interferes with the chemical reaction of the elements within a fire. B. Gas masks provide effective protection against the use of CO2 systems. They are recommended for the protection of the employees within data centers. C. CO2 systems are NOT effective because they suppress the oxygen supply required to sustain the fire. D. Water-Based extinguisher are NOT an effective fire suppression method for class C (electrical) fires. Correct Answer: D Explanation: Water Based fire extinguishers should never be used on Electrical Fire. If you do so, it will probably the last time you use such an extinguisher to put out an electrical fire as you will be electrocuted. Any liquid based agent should be avoided for Electrical Fire. CO2 systems are effective because they suppress the oxygen supply required to sustain the fire. Since oxygen is removed, it can be potentially lethal to people and gas masks do not provide protection against CO2. These systems are more appropriate for unattended facilities. The Montreal Protocol of 1987 states that Halon has been designated an ozone-depleting substance and due to the risk to the environment, production was stopped on January 1st, 1994. Companies that still have Halon systems have been asked to replace them with nontoxic extinguishers. The name of the agreement is called The Montreal Protocol. Soda acid is an effective fire suppression method for common combustibles and liquids, but not for electrical fires. TIP: Do remember the name of the agreement that was signed in Montreal where countries have agreed to stop production of Halon, it is called: The Montreal Protocol A student of mine told me that he thinks about me when he wishes to remember the classes of fire, that scared me off a bit but his explanations made a lot of sense, here how he is using my first name to remember the classes of fire. My name is CLEMENT but he is using only the CLEM portion: C = Common Combustible L = Liquid Fire E = Electrical Fire M = Metals that are flammable THERE IS ANOTHER WAY TO REMEMBER THEM FROM HARRISON: A – Ash (common combustible) B – Bubble/Boil (Liquid) C – Circuit (Electrical) D – Metal. (Just remember it 🙂 Reference(s) used for this question: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2002, chapter 6: Physical Security (page 313).
QUESTION 7 Examples of types of physical access controls include all except which of the following? A. badges B. locks C. guards D. passwords Correct Answer: D Explanation: A password is not a physical thing, it\\’s a logical one. You can control physical access with armed guards, by locking doors and using badges to open doors, but you can\\’t relate password to a physical environment. Just to remember, Passwords are used to verify that the user of an ID is the owner of the ID. The ID-password combination is unique to each user and therefore provides a means of holding users accountable for their activity on the system. They are related to software, not hardware.
QUESTION 8 What attack involves the perpetrator sending a spoofed packet(s) with the SYN flag set to the victim\\’s machine on any the open port that is listening? A. Bonk attack B. Land attack C. Teardrop attack D. Smurf attack Correct Answer: B Explanation: The Land attack involves the perpetrator sending a spoofed packet(s) with the SYN flag set to the victim\\’s the machine on any open port that is listening. If the packet(s) contain the same destination and source IP address as the host, the victim\\’s machine could hang or reboot. In addition, most systems experience a total freeze up, whereas CTRL-ALT-DELETE fails to work, the mouse and keyboard become nonoperational and the only method of correction is to reboot via a reset button on the system or by turning the machine off. Vulnerable Systems: This will affect almost all Windows 95, Windows NT, Windows for Workgroups systems that are not properly patched and allow Net Bios over TCP/IP. In addition, machines running services such as HTTP, FTP, Identd, etc that do not filter packet(s), that contain the same source/destination IP address, can still be vulnerable to attack through those ports. Prevention: This attack can be prevented for open / listening ports by filtering inbound packets containing the same source / destination IP address at the router or firewall level. For most home users not running a lot of services, and for those who use IRC, disabling the Identd server within their client will stop most attacks since the identd service (113) is becoming the most attacked service/port.
QUESTION 9 Which one of the following is not a primary component or aspect of firewall systems? A. Protocol filtering B. Packet switching C. Rule enforcement engine D. Extended logging capability Correct Answer: B Explanation: This is not the main function of a firewall, packet switching is the main feature of a Switch (working only in layer 2 of the OSI model). A firewall is a network security device that can function through layer 2 to layer 7 of the OSI model. They usually include a rule engine that enforces the enterprise security policy of the company. They provide protocol filtering to enforce our requirements through the forwarded or deny of traffic. They also provide logging capabilities so we can analyze what is happening at a very low level in our network.
QUESTION 10 An area of the Telecommunications and Network Security domain that directly affects the Information Systems Security a tenet of Availability can be defined as: A. Netware availability B. Network availability C. Network acceptability D. Network accountability Correct Answer: B Details: The Answer: Network availability can be defined as an area of the Telecommunications and Network Security domain that directly affects the Information Systems Security tenet of Availability. Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley and Sons, Page 64.
QUESTION 11 Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a distributed data processing (DDP) approach? A. Consists of multiple processing locations that can provide alternatives for computing in the event of a site becoming inoperative. B. Data stored at multiple, geographically separate locations are easily available to the user. C. Distances from user to processing resources are transparent to the user. D. Security is enhanced because of networked systems. Correct Answer: D Security is more of a concern in distributed systems since there are vulnerabilities associated with the network and the many locations from which unauthorized access to the computing resources can occur. The other answers are the characteristics of a DDP architecture.
QUESTION 12 The graph in Figure, which depicts the equation y 2 = x3 + ax + b, denotes the: Exhibit:
A. RSA Factoring problem B. Elliptic curve and the elliptic curve discrete logarithm problem C. ElGamal discrete logarithm problem D. Knapsack problem Correct Answer: B The elliptic curve is defined over a finite field comprised of real, complex or rational numbers. The points on an elliptic curve form a group under addition. Multiplication (or multiple additions) in an elliptic curve system is equivalent to modular exponentiation; thus, defining a discreet logarithm problem.
QUESTION 13 What would BEST define a covert channel? A. An undocumented backdoor that has been left by a programmer in an operating system B. An open system port that should be closed. C. A communication channel that allows the transfer of information in a manner that violates the system\\’s security policy. D. A trojan horse. CISSP PDF Dumps | CISSP VCE Dumps | CISSP Braindumps 10 / 12 https://www.lead4pass.com/CISSP.html 2020 Latest lead4pass CISSP PDF and VCE dumps Download Correct Answer: C Explanation: A covert channel is a way for an entity to receive information in an unauthorized manner. It is an information flow that is not controlled by a security mechanism. This type of information path was not developed for communication; thus, the system does not properly protect this path, because the developers never envisioned information being passed in this way. Receiving information in this manner clearly violates the system\\’s security policy. The channel to transfer this unauthorized data is the result of one of the following conditions:?Oversight in the development of the product ?Improper implementation of access controls ?Existence of a shared resource between the two entities?Installation of a Trojan horse The following answers are incorrect: An undocumented backdoor that has been left by a programmer in an operating system is incorrect because it is not a means by which unauthorized transfer of information takes place. Such backdoor is usually referred to as a Maintenance Hook. An open system port that should be closed is incorrect as it does not define a covert channel. A trojan horse is incorrect because it is a program that looks like a useful program but when you install it would include a bonus such as a Worm, Backdoor, or some other malware without the installer knowing about it. Reference(s) used for this question: Shon Harris AIO v3, Chapter-5: Security Models and Architecture AIOv4 Security Architecture and Design (pages 343 – 344) AIOv5 Security Architecture and Design (pages 345 – 346)
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QUESTION 1 What BEST describes an important principle of communication in service operation? A. It is efficient, effective and economical for all IT services B. It has an intended purpose or a resultant action C. It focuses on creating a relationship between processes and products D. It has responsibility for creating policies Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 Which of the following statements is CORRECT? A. IT Service Continuity Management can only take place once Business Continuity Management has been established B. Where Business Continuity Management is established, business continuity considerations should form the focus for IT Service Continuity Management C. Business Continuity Management and IT Service Continuity Management must be established at the same time D. IT Service Continuity Management is not required when IT is outsourced to a third party provider Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Which one of the following is it the responsibility of supplier management to negotiate and agree? A. Service level agreements (SLAs) B. Third-party contracts C. The service portfolio D. Operational level agreements (OLAs) Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 Which of the following combinations covers all the roles in Service Asset and Configuration Management? A. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Configuration Manager; Service Desk Manager; Configuration Analyst; CMS/tools Administrator B. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Service Asset Manager; Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst; Configuration control board; CMS/tools Administrator C. Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst; CMS/tools Administrator; Librarian; Change Manager D. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst; Configuration control board; CMS/tools Administrator; Financial Asset Manager Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 Which of the following activities are performed by a desk? 1. Logging details of incidents and service requests 2. Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis 3. Restoring service 4. Implementing all standard changes A. All of the above B. 1, 2 and 3 only C. 2 and 4 only D. 3 and 4 only Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 Which of the following is NOT defined as part of every process? A. Roles B. Inputs and outputs C. Functions D. Metrics Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 Which is included in the purpose of the `design and transition\\’ value chain activity? A. Ensuring that service components are available when needed B. Providing transparency and good stakeholder relationships C. Supporting services according to specifications D. Continually meeting stakeholder expectations for costs Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 Which of the following are goals of Service Operation? (1) To coordinate and carry out the activities and processes required to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to the business (2) The successful release of services into the live environment A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both of the above D. Neither of the above Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 What are the ITIL guiding principles used for? A. To help an organization make good decisions B. To direct and control an organization C. To identify activities that an organization must perform in order to deliver a valuable service D. To ensure that an organization\\’s performance continually meets stakeholders\\’ expectations Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 Which of the following Availability Management activities are considered to be proactive as opposed to reactive? (1) Risk assessment (2) Testing of resilience mechanisms (3) Monitoring of component availability A. All of the above B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 2 and 3 only Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 The experiences, ideas, insights and values of individuals are examples of which level of understanding within knowledge management? A. Data B. Information C. Knowledge D. Governance Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 Which one of the following do major incidents require? A. Separate procedures B. Less urgency C. Longer timescales D. Less documentation Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 What is the result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service known as? A. Outcome B. Incident C. Change D. Problem Correct Answer: A
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How can I pass the Cisco 300-715 SISE exam? Cisco 300-715 is the latest Cisco CCNP Security exam code for 2020. The new Cisco exam is a brand new test! LatestVCE offers the latest 300-715 exam dumps, 300-715 pdf, 300-715 free exams to help you improve your skills! Improve the exam pass! Lea4pass is our partner and they have the most authoritative testing experts! Easily pass the exam, select the complete Cisco 300-715 exam dumps https://www.lead4pass.com/300-715.html (72 Q&As). The latest update exam dump. Guaranteed to be effective and authentic! Lead4Pass year-round updates ensure your first exam passes!
The Implementing and Configuring Cisco Identity Services Engine v1.0 (SISE 300-715) exam is a 90-minute exam associated with the CCNP Security and Cisco Certified Specialist – Security Identity Management Implementation certifications. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of Cisco Identify Services Engine, including architecture and deployment, policy enforcement, Web Auth and guest services, profiler, BYOD, endpoint compliance, and network access device administration. The course, Implementing and Configuring Cisco Identity Services Engine, helps candidates to prepare for this exam.
Cisco CCNP Security 300-715 exam list:
1.0 Architecture and Deployment 10%
2.0 Policy Enforcement 25%
3.0 Web Auth and Guest Services 15%
4.0 Profiler 15%
5.0 BYOD 15%
6.0 Endpoint Compliance 10%
7.0 Network Access Device Administration 10%
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Latest updates Cisco CCNP Security 300-715 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 Which advanced option within a WLAN must be enabled to trigger Central Web Authentication for Wireless users on AireOS controller? A. DHCP server B. static IP tunneling C. override Interface ACL D. AAA override Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 What gives Cisco ISE an option to scan endpoints for vulnerabilities? A. authorization policy B. authentication policy C. authentication profile D. authorization profile Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 Which two ports must be open between Cisco ISE and the client when you configure posture on Cisco ISE? (Choose two). A. TCP 8443 B. TCP 8906 C. TCP 443 D. DTCP80 E. TCP 8905 Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 5 Which two features are available when the primary admin node is down and the secondary admin node has not been promoted? () A. hotspot B. new AD user 802 1X authentication C. posture D. BYOD E. guest AUP Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 6 Which portal is used to customize the settings for a user to log in and download the compliance module? A. Client Profiling B. Client Endpoint C. Client Provisioning D. Client Guest Correct Answer: C
Which command is typed within the CU of a switch to view the troubleshooting output? A. show authentication sessions mac 000e.84af.59af details B. show authentication registrations C. show authentication interface gigabitethemet2/0/36 D. show authentication sessions method Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 What is the minimum certainty factor when creating a profiler policy? A. the minimum number that a predefined condition provides B. the maximum number that a predefined condition provides C. the minimum number that a device certainty factor must reach to become a member of the profile D. the maximum number that a device certainty factor must reach to become a member of the profile Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 A network administrator wants to use dynamic VLAN assignment from Cisco ISE. Which option must be configured on the switch to support this? A. AAA authentication B. VTP C. DTP D. AAA authorization Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12 Which default endpoint identity group does an endpoint that does not match any profile in Cisco ISE become a member of? A. Endpoint B. unknown C. blacklist D. white list E. profiled Correct Answer: B If you do not have a matching profiling policy, you can assign an unknown profiling policy. The endpoint is therefore profiled as Unknown. The endpoint that does not match any profile is grouped within the Unknown identity group. The endpoint profiled to the Unknown profile requires that you create a profile with an attribute or a set of attributes collected for that endpoint. https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/security/ise/1.0/user_guide/ise10_man_identities.html
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This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.
Implement Server Hardening Solutions (25-30%)
Secure a Virtualization Infrastructure (5-10%)
Secure a Network Infrastructure (10-15%)
Manage Privileged Identities (25-30%)
Implement Threat Detection Solutions (15-20%)
Implement Workload-Specific Security (5-10%)
Who should take this exam?
Candidates for this exam secure Windows Server 2016 environments. Candidates are familiar with the methods and technologies used to harden server environments and secure virtual machine infrastructures using Shielded and encryption-supported virtual machines and Guarded Fabric.
Candidates manage the protection of Active Directory and Identity infrastructures and manage privileged identities using Just in Time (JIT) and Just Enough Administration (JEA) approaches, as well as implement Privileged Access Workstations (PAWs) and secure servers using the Local Administrator Password Solution (LAPS).
Candidates should also be able to use threat detection solutions such as auditing access, implementing Advanced Threat Analytics (ATA), deploying Operations Management Suite (OMS) solutions, and identifying solutions for specific workloads.
Latest updates Microsoft 70-744 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 Your company has an accounting department. The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 10 servers. You deploy a new server named Server11 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server11 will host several network applications and network shares used by the accounting department. You need to recommend a solution for Server11 that meets the following requirements: -Protects Server11 from address spoofing and session hijacking -Allows only the computers in We accounting department to connect to Server11 What should you recommend implementing? A. AppLocker rules B. Just Enough Administration (JEA) C. connection security rules D. Privileged Access Management (PAM) Correct Answer: C In IPsec connection security rule, the IPsec protocol verifies the sending host IP address by utilize integrity functions like Digitally signing all packets.If unsigned packets arrives Server11, those are possible source address spoofed packets, when usingconnection security rule in-conjunction with inbound firewallrules, you can kill those un-signed packets with the action “Allow connection if it is secure” to prevent spoofingand session hijacking attacks.
QUESTION 2 You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016 and is configured as a DNS server. You deed to ensure that Server1 can validate records from public DNSSEC-signed DNS zones. What should you do? A. From DNS Manager, sign a zone. B. From DNS Manager select Enable DNSSEC validation for remote responses C. From PowerShell, run Add-DnsServerResourceRecordDnsKey. D. From DNS Manager, add a trust anchor. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named conioso.com. The domain contains 1,000 client computers that run Windows 8.1 and 1,000 client computers that run Windows 10. You deploy a Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server. You create a computer group tor each organizational unit (OU) that contains client computers. You configure all of the client computers to receive updates from WSUS. You discover that all of the client computers appear m the Unassigned Computers computer group in the Update Services console. You need to ensure that the client computers are added automatically to the computer group that corresponds to the location of the computer account in Active Directory. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. A. From Group Policy objects (GPOs), configure the Enable client-side targeting setting. B. From the Update Services console, configure the Computers option. C. From Active Directory Users and Computers, create a domain local distribution group for each WSUS computer group. D. From Active Directory Users and Computers, modify the flags attnbute of each OU. E. From the Update Services console, run the WSUS Server Configuration Wizard. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 4 You have two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016. The servers are in a workgroup. You need to create a security template that contains the security settings of Server1 and to apply the template to Server2. The solution must minimize administrative effort. Which snap-in should you use for each server? To answer, drag the appropriate snap-ins to the correct servers. Each snap-in may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
QUESTION 5 Note: This question is port of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question In the series. Each question is Independent of the other questions In this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016 and a Nano Server named Nano1. Nano1 has two volumes named C and D. You are signed in to Server1. You need to configure Data Deduplication on Nano1. Which tool should you use? A. File Explorer B. Shared Folders C. Server Manager D. Disk Management E. Storage Explorer F. Computer Management G. System Configuration H. File Server Resource Manager (FSRM) Correct Answer: C Either use PowerShell Remoting to Nano1 and use “Enable-DedupVolume” cmdlet, however ,there is no such choice for this question; orFrom Server1, connect it\\’s server manager to remotely manage Nano1 and enable Data Deduplication forvolumes on Nano1 https://channel9.msdn.com/Series/Nano-Server-Team/Server-Manager-managing-Nano-Server
QUESTION 6 You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has the Windows Server Update Services server role installed. Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) updates for Server1 are stored on a volume named D. The hard disk that contains volume D fails. You replace the hard disk. You recreate volume D and the WSUS folder hierarchy in the volume. You need to ensure that the updates listed in the WSUS console are available in the WSUS folder. What should you run? A. wsusutil.exe /import B. wsusutil.exe /reset C. Set-WsusServerSynchronization D. Invoke-WsusServerCleanup Correct Answer: B https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc720466%28v=ws.10%29.aspx?f=255and MSPPError=-2147217396 WSUSutil.exe is a tool that you can use to manage your WSUS server from the command line. WSUSutil.exeis located in the % drive%\\Program Files\\UpdateServices\\Tools folder on your WSUS server.You can run specific commands with WSUSutil.exe to perform specific functions, as summarized in thefollowing table.The syntax you would use to run WSUSutil.exe with specific commands follows the table.
QUESTION 7 You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Windows Defender on Server1 has the following configurations.
QUESTION 8 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You manage a file server that runs Windows Server 2016. The file server contains the volumes configured as shown in the following table.
QUESTION 9 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains several shielded virtual machines. You deploy a new server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. You install the Hyper-V server role on Server1. You need to ensure that you can host shielded virtual machines on Server1. What should you install on Server1? A. Host Guardian Hyper-V Support B. BitLocker Network Unlock C. the Windows Biometric Framework (WBF) D. VM Shielding Tools for Fabric Management Correct Answer: A This questions mentions “The domain contains several shielded virtual machines.”, which indicates a working Host Guardian Service deployment was completed. https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/virtualization/guarded-fabricshielded-vm/guarded-fabricguarded-host-prerequisites For a new Hyper-V server to utilize an existing Host Guardian Service, install the “Host Guardian Hyper-V Support”.
QUESTION 10 HOTSPOT Your data center contains 10 Hyper-V hosts that host 100 virtual machines. You plan to secure access to the virtual machines by using the Datacenter Firewall service. You have four servers available for the Datacenter Firewall service. The servers are configured as shown in the following table. Which server role should you deploy? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
QUESTION 11 You have two servers named Setver1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016 and are in a workgroup. Server1 is used as a reference computer to configure the security baseline for the other computers in the workgroup. You need to apply the Group Policy computer settings of Server1 to Server2. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
QUESTION 12 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. You need to prevent NTLM authentication on Server1. Solution: From a Group Policy, you configure the Kerberos Policy. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B References: https://www.rootusers.com/implement-ntlm-blocking-in-windows-server-2016/
QUESTION 13 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. A domain-based Group Policy object (GPO) is used to configure the security policy of Server1. You plan to use Security Compliance Manager (SCM) 4.0 to compare the security policy of Server1 to the WS2012 DNS Server Security 1.0 baseline. You need to import the security policy into SCM. What should you do first? A. From Security Configuration and Analysis, use the Export Template option. B. Run the Copy-GPO cmdlet and specify the -TargetName parameter. C. Run the Backup-GPO cmdlet and specify the -Path parameter. D. Run the secedit.exe command and specify the/export parameter. Correct Answer: C https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee461052.aspx Backup-GPO cmdlet and specify the -Path parameter creates a GPO backup folder with GUID name and issuitable to import to SCM 4.0
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What is the best way to pass the Cisco CCDP 300-320 exam? (First: Exam practice test, Second: Lead4pass Cisco expert.) You can get free Cisco 300-320 exam practice test questions here. Or choose https://www.lead4pass.com/ccdp.html Study hard to pass the exam easily!
This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of the latest development in network design and technologies, including L2 and L3 infrastructures for the enterprise, WAN technologies, data center integration, network security, and network services.
Latest updates Cisco CCDP 300-320 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 Which option is correct when using Virtual Switching System? A. Both control planes forward traffic simultaneously B. Only the active switch forward traffic C. Both data planes forward traffic simultaneously D. Only the active switch handle the control plane Correct Answer: C http://packetlife.net/blog/2013/may/2/what-hell-sdn/
QUESTION 2 An engineer must design a Cisco VSS-based configuration within a customer campus network. The two VSS switches are provisioned for the campus distribution layer… Which option is the primary reason to avoid plugging both VSL links into the supervisor ports? A. The implementation creates a loop B. The design lacks optimal hardware diversity C. Limited bandwidth is available for VSS convergence D. QoS is required on the VSL links Correct Answer: B The best-practice recommendation for VSL link resiliency is to bundle two 10-Gbps ports from different sources. Doing this might require having one port from the supervisor and other from a Cisco 6708 line card. When configuring the VSL, note the following guidelines and restrictions: For line redundancy, we recommend configuring at least two ports per switch for the VSL. For module redundancy, the two ports can be on different switching modules in each chassis.
QUESTION 3 Which feature can be used in the Cisco Nexus 7000 to create a snapshot of the current configuration? A. Cisco FabricPath B. HSRP C. Rollback D. vPC Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 After an incident caused by a DDOS attack on a router, an engineer must ensure that the router is accessible and protected from future attacks without making any changes to traffic passing through the router. Which security function can be utilized to protect the router? A. zone-based policy firewall B. access control lists C. class maps D. control plane policing Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 A company wants to configure BGP on a router so that other BGP neighbors cannot influence the path of a particular route .which action must be taken to accomplish this configuration ? A. Configure a low router ID for the route B. Configure a high local preference for the route C. Configure a high weight for the route D. Configure a low MED for the route Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 Which of these statements is correct regarding Stateful Switchover and Cisco Nonstop Forwarding? A. Utilizing Cisco NSF in Layer 2 environments can reduce outages to one to three seconds. B. Utilizing SSO in Layer 3 environments can reduce outages to one to three seconds. C. Distribution switches are single points of failure causing outages for the end devices. D. Utilizing Cisco NSF and SSO in a Layer 2 environment can reduce outages to less than one second. E. NSF and SSO with redundant supervisors have the most impact on outages at the access layer. Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 7 Which QoS mechanism uses RSVP? A. IntServ B. DiffServ C. CoS D. ToS Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 At a certain customer\\’s site, a NAS is both physically and logically in the traffic path. The NAS identifies clients solely based on their MAC addresses. In which access mode has this NAS been configured to operate? A. Layer 2 mode B. Layer 3 Edge mode C. Layer 3 Central mode D. Layer 3 In-Band mode Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 Which two statements correctly describe an IPS device? (Choose two.) A. It resembles a Layer 2 bridge. B. Traffic flow through the IPS resembles traffic flow through a Layer 3 router. C. Inline interfaces which have no IP addresses cannot be detected. D. Malicious packets that have been detected are allowed to pass through, but all subsequent traffic is blocked. E. Traffic arrives on the detection interface, is inspected, and exits via the same interface. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 10 A network engineer must create a Layer 2 switch block design that has deterministic convergence and is loop-free at Layer 2. Which two switch block elements are needed to meet the requirements? (Choose two.) A. Layer 3 link between distribution switches B. HSRP with interface tracking on uplinks to core switches C. RPVST with equal bridge priority on distribution switches D. VLANs that do not span access switches E. Layer 2 link between distribution switches Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 11 When adding an IPSec headend termination device to your network design, which two performance indicators are the most accurate to determine device scalability? (Choose two.) A. CPU capabilities B. bandwidth capabilities C. packets per second capabilities D. maximum tunnel termination capabilities Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 12 Which two of these are correct regarding the recommended practice for distribution layer design? (Choose two.) A. use a redundant link to the core B. use a Layer 2 link between distribution switches C. never use a redundant link to the core because of convergence issues D. use a Layer 3 link between distribution switches with route summarization E. use a Layer 3 link between distribution switches without route summarization Correct Answer: AE We need to summarize from distribution to core but not between distribution switches.
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QUESTION 2 In the KVM console, which result occurs if the first default is used and network does not have IPv6 configured? A. KVM switches to IPv4. B. KVM prompts the admin to enable IPv6. C. KVM moves to the next default option listed. D. KVM fails to launch. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Which software is an eDelivery, field-uploaded license? A. Cisco TelePresence Virtualization B. Cisco UC Virtualization Hypervisor Plus C. Cisco UC Virtualization Foundation D. VMware vSphere ESXi Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 Which software is wide open and can run any Cisco or third-party application without limitation? A. Cisco UC Virtualization Hypervisor Plus B. VMware vSphere ESXi C. Cisco TelePresence Virtualization Software D. Cisco UC Virtualization Foundation Correct Answer: B The VMware vSphere ESXi software, however, is wide open, and can run any Cisco or 3rd-party application without limitation.
QUESTION 9 Which option lists the five product categories that can be deployed in a UC on UCS solution? A. UC and Collaboration Edge, conferencing, customer collaboration, system management, and older products B. UC and Collaboration Edge, conferencing, customer care, system management, and newer products C. UC and Collaboration Edge, conferencing, customer care, system marketing, and older products D. UC and Collaboration Edge, conferencing, customer care, system management, and older products Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 Which result occurs after the UC application OVA template has been created in the VMware vSphere ESXi host? A. Nothing, the installation is complete. B. Attach the ISO image to the virtual machine. C. Attach the OVA image to the virtual machine. D. Attach the logo image to the virtual machine. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Which additional service beyond the basic three components of Cisco Spark is available in Cisco Spark Hybrid to simplify the user experience? A. meeting B. calendar C. forwarding D. transferring Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 Which feature of the Cisco BE7000 appliance is supported? A. VoIP phone system B. digital key voice system C. analog phone system D. PBX phone system Correct Answer: A
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CompTIA Network+ N10-007 has been updated and reorganized to address the current networking technologies with expanded coverage of several domains by adding:
Critical security concepts to helping networking professionals work with security practitioners
Key cloud computing best practices and typical service models
Coverage of newer hardware and virtualization techniques
Concepts to give individuals the combination of skills to keep the network resilient
CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Exam Practice Questions
QUESTION 1 Please refer to the attached exhibit. Which of the following types of configuration management documentation is represented?
A. Network security policy B. Network baseline C. Logical network diagram D. Wiring schematic Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Which of the following MUST be used when securing a VoIP network consisting of private IP addresses? A. IPS B. Application layer firewall C. IDS D. An unmanaged switch Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 A network technician is configuring user\\’s access to a VPN concentrator and has advised to use a protocol that supports encryption over UDP. Which of the following protocols has the technician MOST likely configured for client use? A. TFTP B. DTLS C. DNS D. SNMP Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 A technician is investigating the cause of a network outage. Which of the following documents should be checked to rule out configuration issues? A. Change management records B. Inventory management C. Network log files D. Logical diagrams Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Which of the following default ports would need to be disabled to block TFTP traffic? A. 20 B. 21 C. 69 D. 123 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6 A customer is reporting difficulty connecting some devices after replacing a wireless router with a new wireless 802.11ac router. The SSID, encryption and password are the same as the previous router. A technician goes on-site and notices the devices that are no longer connecting appear to be several years ago. Which of the following is MOST likely the problem? A. the password needs to be re-entered. B. there is a security type mismatch. C. there is insufficient antenna power. D. there is a frequency mismatch. E. the channel has changed. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 Which of the following are network topologies? (Select TWO). A. Ethernet B. Duplex C. Star D. Circular E. Bus Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 8 Which of the following is indicative of an FTP bounce? A. Arbitrary IP address B. Reverse DNS lookups C. Same Port Number D. File Transfer Success Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 When Jeff, a technician, is troubleshooting a problem, which of the following is the NEXT step after verifying full system functionality? A. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects. B. Implement the solution. C. Establish a theory of probable cause. D. Document findings, actions, and outcomes. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 A network technician needs to connect to a remote router to modify the configuration, Which of the following method should the technician use to connected to the device security? (Select TWO) A. Telnet B. VNC C. SSH D. RDP E. HTTPS F. TFTP Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 11 A technician is installing a new wireless badging system on a hospital network. The requirements of the badging system are for it to have its own SSID and low power levels. The badging system has to cover 99.9% of the hospital. Which of the following is the BEST action to take to meet the system requirements? A. Install additional WAPs B. Install external antennas C. Move the WAPs closer to the more populated area D. Change the antenna types Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 There is suspected virus activity on the network. Which of the following would Lisa, a technician, use to study network traffic? A. Protocol analyzer B. Cable tester C. Cable certifier D. Environmental monitor Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 A firewall administrator is implementing a rule that directs HTTP traffic to an internal server listening on a non-standard socket. Which of the following types of rules is the administrator implementing? A. NAT B. PAT C. STP D. SNAT E. ARP Correct Answer: B
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