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300-360 dumps

Newest Cisco CCNP Wireless 300-360 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-12)

QUESTION 1
An engineer would like to calibrate the RF environment to improve accuracy.
Which wireless attribute is added to the foor-level calculation by calibrating the foor?
A. attenuation
B. TX power
C. multipath
D. SNR
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
An engineer is performing a predictive wireless design for a Parts Distribution Center which requires data and location services. Which three requirements are inputs to the design? (Choose three.)
A. access points with directional antennas
B. continuous -67 dBm coverage from one access point
C. overlapping -75 dBm coverage from three access points
D. overlapping -67 dBm coverage from two access points
E. access points in IPS mode
F. continuous -72 dBm coverage from one access point
G. accesspointsincornersandalongperimeters
Correct Answer: BCG

QUESTION 3
A customer is deploying a Greenfield 802.11ac network on a foor that will support approximately 300 wireless devices.
Which setting needs to be changed on Prime Infrastructure Planning Tool in order to predict the amount of access points the customer needs to service the new foor?
A. Data Coverage Support Margin
B. Demand Settings
C. Add AP Field
D. 802.11n Protocol Support
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which two options describe best practices that must be completed after a wireless installation is finished? 300-360 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Make sure that there are no spaces between the devices on the rack that the Wireless Lan Controller isinstalled.
B. Consult with the customer to ensure that the IT staff has a complete set of design and installationdocuments.
C. Make sure the customer is aware that they should consider purchasing a support contract immediately afterthe installationis complete.
D. Spend time with the customer to show them the controller GUI and inform them how they can reach the Cisco TAC if they have any problems.
E. Test all the customer’s wireless devices and applications to ensure they are working properly.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 5
An engineer is preparing for an outdoor wireless survey to mesh connect a distant remote building to a connected building.
Which two types of antennas are appropriate for this application? (Choose two.)
A. circular polarized
B. patch
C. dish
D. Yagi
E. omni
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
300-360 dumps
While testing the post-deployment WLAN network you discover that an AP has been placed in a difficult area. The AP cannot be moved easily because of various requirements. The client performance of various Apple and Microsoft operating system-based products does not meet expectations.
Which two options can help mitigate the performance issue? (Choose two.)
A. Add additional APs.
B. Increase the AP power level to maximum.
C. Rotate the AP 90 degrees to change antenna polarity.
D. Replace the AP with an AP and external antenna.
E. Change the AP location to one that is less RF hostile.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 7
An engineer is tuning RRM parameters to improve client connectivity. Which channel band results in the best 802.11n client compatibility?
A. UNII-2
B. UNII-2e
C. UNII-3
D. UNII
E. UNII-1
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8
An engineer is installing a wireless network in an industrial area with extreme temperatures and a significant amount of dust. Which enclosure should be used to protect the APs?
A. ACU
B. ADU
C. NEMA
D. WLSE
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
What are two advantages of conducting an active survey versus a passive survey when verifying RF coverage? (Choose two.)
A. verifies packet loss
B. verifies roaming
C. verifies SNR
D. verifies signal level
E. verifies interferers
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
An engineer is deploying an outdoor Mesh network. Which four major factors should be considered? (Choose four.)
A. power
B. buildings
C. traffic lights
D. satellite dishes
E. line of sight
F. network connectivity
G. power lines
H. mounting
Correct Answer: AEHF

QUESTION 11
A customer has deployed an N+N redundant wireless infrastructure. In this deployment the access points have been salt and peppered between controllers. 300-360 dumps
What configuration would be necessary to cut down on the use of mobility tunnels for voice clients?
A. mobility anchor
B. KIS based CAC
C. media session snooping
D. re-anchor roamed voice clients
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which two steps are associated with the active portion of the audit when a post-installation audit is performed with an auditing tool such as Ekahau? (Choose two.)
A. Check for co-channel interference by standing near an access point on one channel and watching for other access points that are on the same channel.
B. Verify smooth roaming.
C. Check to see if the signal level on other access points that are heard on the same channel is at least 19dBm weaker than the access point that you are next to.
D. Check that all channels are supported by the APs regardless of client capabilities.
E. Verify that the network traffic of physical data rate and packet loss meets user requirements.
Correct Answer: BE

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300-115 dumps
QUESTION 1
RSPAN has been configured on a Cisco Catalyst switch; however, traffic is not being replicated to the remote switch. Which type of misconfiguration is a cause?
A. The RSPAN designated VLAN is missing the remote span command.
B. The local and remote RSPAN switches are configured using different session IDs.
C. The local RSPAN switch is replicating only Rx traffic to the remote switch.
D. The local switch is overloaded with the amount of sourced traffic that must be replicated to the remote switch.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which two statements about SPAN source and destination ports during an active session are true? (Choose two.)
A. The source port can be only an Ethernet physical port.
B. The source port can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions.
C. Thedestination port can be destination in multiple SPAN sessions.
D. The destination port does not participate in STP.
E. You can mix individual source ports and source VLANs within a single session.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
A network engineer changed the port speed and duplex setting of an existing EtherChannel bundle that uses the PAgP protocol. Which statement describes what happens to all ports in the bundle?
A. PAgP changes the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle.
B. PAgP drops the ports that do not match the configuration.
C. PAgP does not change the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle until the switch is rebooted.
D. PAgP changes the port speed but notthe duplex for all ports in the bundle.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A network engineer is installing a switch for temporary workers to connect to. The engineer does not want this switch participating in Spanning Tree with the rest of the network; however, end user connectivity is still required. 300-115 dumps Which spanning-tree feature accomplishes this?
A. BPDUblock
B. BPDUfilter
C. BPDUignore
D. BPDUguard
E. BPDUdisable
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
An EtherChannel bundle has been established between a Cisco switch and a corporate web server. The network administrator noticed that only one of the EtherChannel links is being utilized to reach the web server. What should be done on the Cisco switch to allow for better EtherChannel utilization to the corporate web server?
A. Enable Cisco Express Forwarding to allow for more effective traffic sharing over the EtherChannel bundle.
B. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on destination IP addresses.
C. Disable spanning tree on all interfaces that are participating in the EtherChannel bundle.
D. Use link-state tracking to allow for improved load balancing of traffic upon link failure to the server.
E. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on source IP addresses.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 6
Enablement of which feature puts the port into err-disabled state when the port has PortFast enabled and it receives BPDUs?
A. BPDU filtering
B. BackboneFast
C. EtherChannel
D. BPDU guard
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
When a Layer 2 EtherChannel is configured, which statement about placement of the IP address is true?
A. The IP address is placed on the highest numbered member port.
B. The IP address is placed on the port-channel logical interface.
C. The IP address is placed on the lowest numbered member port.
D. The IP address is assigned via DHCP only.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Ferris Plastics, Inc. is a medium sized company, with an enterprise network (access, distribution and core switches) that provides LAN connectivity from user PCs to corporate servers. The distribution switches are configured to use HSRP to provide a high availability solution.
DSW1 -primary device for VLAN 101 VLAN 102 and VLAN 105
DSW2 – primary device for VLAN 103 and VLAN 104
A failure of GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on primary device should cause the primary device to release its status as the primary device, unless GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on backup device has also failed.
Troubleshooting has identified several issues. Currently all interfaces are up. Using the running configurations and show commands, you have been asked to investigate and respond to the following question.
300-115 dumps
What is the priority value of the VLAN 105 HSRP group on DSW2?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which two statements about SPAN source and destination ports during an active session are true? 300-115 dumps (Choose two.)
A. The source port can be only an Ethernet physical port.
B. The source port can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions.
C. The destination port can be destination in multiple SPAN sessions.
D. The destination port does not participate in STP.
E. You can mix individual source ports and source VLANs within a single session.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
Which two options are two results of using the command spanning-tree vlan 50 root primary within a spanning-tree network under global configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Spanning tree determines the priority of the current root for VLAN 50 and reduces the priority of the local switch to a lower value.
B. The priority value for VLAN 50 is set to 4094 on the root while the local switch priority is set to 32768.
C. The spanning-tree timers are reduced to improve the convergence time for VLAN 50.
D. All ports that are configured on the current switch with VLAN 50 transition to designated ports.
E. The switchport that is configured for VLAN 50 is the primary connection to the spanning-tree root switch.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 11
Your customer has asked you to come in and verify the operation of routers R1 and R2 which are configured to use HSRP. They have questions about how these two devices will perform in the event of a device failure.
300-115 dumps
What issue is causing Router R1 and R2 to both be displayed as the HSRP active router for group 2?
A. The HSRP group number mismatch
B. The HSRP group authentication is misconfigured
C. The HSRP Hello packets are blocked
D. The HSRP timers mismatch
E. The HSRP group priorities are different
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
An enterprise network has port security sticky enabled on all access ports. A network administrator moves a PC from one office desk to another. After the PC is moved, the network administrator clears the port security on the new network switch port connecting to the PC, but the port keeps going back into errdisabled mode. Which two factors are possible causes of this issue? (Choose two)
A. Port security sticky exists on the new network switch port
B. Port security sticky is disabled on the new network switch port
C. Port security must be disabled on all access ports
D. Port security is still enabled on the older network switch port
E. Port security sticky is still enabled on the older network switch port
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands ensure that DSW1 becomes root bridge for VLAN 10 and 20? 300-115 dumps (Choose two)
A. spanning-tree mstp 1 priority 0
B. spanning-tree mst 1 root primary
C. spanning-tree mst vlan 10,20 priority root
D. spanning-tree mst 1 priority 4096
E. spanning-tree mst 1 priority 1
F. spanning-tree mstp vlan 10,20 root primary
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 14
Which database is used to determine the validity of an ARP packet based on a valid IP-to- MAC address binding?
A. DHCP snooping database
B. dynamic ARP database
C. dynamic routing database
D. static ARP database
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
A switch is added into the production network to increase port capacity. A network engineer is configuring the switch for DHCP snooping and IP Source Guard, but is unable to configure ip verify source under several of the interfaces.
Which option is the cause of the problem?
A. The local DHCP server is disabled prior to enabling IP Source Guard.
B. The interfaces are configured as Layer 3 using the no switchport command.
C. No VLANs exist on the switch and/or the switch is configured in VTP transparent mode.
D. The switch is configured for sdm prefer routing as the switched database management template.
E. The configured SVIs on the switch have been removed for the associated interfaces.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
What is the default port security violation
A. log
B. shutdown
C. no change
D. error-disable
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
RSPAN has been configured on a Cisco Catalyst switch; however, traffic is not being replicated to the remote switch.
Which type of misconfiguration is a cause?
A. The RSPAN designated VLAN is missing the remote span command.
B. The local and remote RSPAN switches are configured using different session IDs.
C. The local RSPAN switch is replicating only Rx traffic to the remote switch.
D. The local switch isoverloaded with the amount of sourced traffic that must be replicated to the remote switch.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which will identify the master switch in stack wise?
A. lower priority
B. higher priority
C. lower id
D. higher id
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
A Cisco Catalyst switch that is prone to reboots continues to rebuild the DHCP snooping database. 300-115 dumps What is the solution to avoid the snooping database from being rebuilt after everydevice reboot?
A. A DHCP snooping database agent should be configured.
B. Enable DHCP snooping for all VLANs that are associated with the switch.
C. Disable Option 82 for DHCP data insertion.
D. Use IP Source Guard to protect the DHCP binding table entries from being lost upon rebooting.
E. Apply ip dhcp snooping trust on all interfaces with dynamic addresses.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which statement about Layer 2 protocol participation of ports involved m a SPAN session is true?
A. Neither a SPAN source nor SPAN destination participates m any Layer 2 protocols.
B. A SPAN source does not participate n any Layer 2 protocols
C. A SPAN destination does not participate n any Layer 2 protocols
D. Both SPAN source and SPAN destination participate in any Layer 2 protocols
Correct Answer: C

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300-175 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which statement about Layer 2 protocol participation of ports involved m a SPAN session is true?
A. Neither a SPAN source nor SPAN destination participates m any Layer 2 protocols.
B. A SPAN source does not participate n any Layer 2 protocols
C. A SPAN destination does not participate n any Layer 2 protocols
D. Both SPAN source and SPAN destination participate in any Layer 2 protocols
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Afterport security is deployed throughout an enterprise campus, the network team has been overwhelmed with port reset requests. They decide to configure the network to automate the process of re-enabling user ports.
Which command accomplishes this task?
A. switch(config)# errdisable recovery interval 180
B. switch(config)# errdisable recovery cause psecure-violation
C. switch(config)# switchport port-security protect
D. switch(config)# switchport port-security aging type inactivity
E. switch(config)# errdisablerecovery cause security-violation
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which three functions does Dynamic ARP Inspection perform with invalid IP-to MAC address bindings? (Choose there.)
A. accepts
B. deletes
C. discards
D. bypasses
E. intercepts
F. logs
Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 4
Whichfour LACP components are used to determine which hot-standby links become active after an interface failure within an EtherChannel bundle? 300-175 dumps (Choose four.)
A. LACP system priority
B. LACP port priority
C. interface MAC address
D. system ID
E. port number
F. hot-standby link identification number
G. interface bandwidth
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 5
Which command globally enables AAA on a device?
A. aaa new-model
B. aaa authentication
C. aaa authorization
D. aaa accounting
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What is the default interval at which Cisco devices send Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisements?
A. 30 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. 120 seconds
D. 300 seconds
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
RSPAN has been configured on a Cisco Catalyst switch; however, traffic is not being replicated to the remote switch.
Which type of misconfiguration is a cause?
A. The RSPAN designated VLAN is missing the remote span command
B. The local and remote RSPAN switches are configured using different session IDs.
C. The local RSPAN switch is replicating only Rx traffic to the remote switch.
D. The local switch isoverloaded with the amount of sourced traffic that must be replicated to the remote switch.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Enablement of which feature puts the port into err-disabled state when the port has PortFast enabled and it receives BPDUs?
A. BPDU filtering
B. BackboneFast
C. EtherChannel
D. BPDU guard
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
When using EtherChannel misconfiguration guard, 300-175 dumps which technology is used to prevent this type of misconfiguration from affecting the network?
A. STP
B. port security
C. LACP
D. PAgP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
An EtherChannel bundle has been established between a Cisco switch and a corporate web server. The network administrator noticed that only one of the EtherChannel links is being utilized to reach the web server. What should be done on the Cisco switch to allow for better EtherChannel utilization to the corporate web server?
A. Enable Cisco Express Forwarding to allow for more effective traffic sharing over the EtherChannel bundle.
B. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on destination IP addresses.
C. Disable spanning tree on all interfaces that are participating in the EtherChannel bundle.
D. Use link-state tracking to allow for improved load balancing of traffic upon link failure to the server.
E. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on source IP addresses.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 11
A network engineer changed the port speed and duplex setting of an existing EtherChannel bundle that uses the PAgP protocol. Which statement describes what happens to all ports in the bundle?
A. PAgP changes the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle.
B. PAgP drops the ports that do not match the configuration.
C. PAgP does not change the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle until the switch is rebooted.
D. PAgP changes the port speed but notthe duplex for all ports in the bundle.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which two statements about SPAN source and destination ports during an active session are true? (Choose two.)
A. The source port can be only an Ethernet physical port.
B. The source port can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions.
C. Thedestination port can be destination in multiple SPAN sessions.
D. The destination port does not participate in STP.
E. You can mix individual source ports and source VLANs within a single session.
Correct Answer: BD

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Cyber Ops
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals
Exam Code: 210-250
Total Questions: 80 Q&As
210-250 dumps
QUESTION 1
How is traffic forwarded from the Cisco ASA to the FirePOWER services module for analysis?
A. The SFR is transparent and automatically sees all traffic.
B. A service policy redirects traffic from the Cisco ASA packet-processing path to the SFR
C. The SFR has a dedicated data interface
D. The SFR is a standalone appliance that is inserted inline in the data path
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which FirePOWER services capability supports seamless processing after an adaptive security appliance stateful failover event?
A. midsession pickup
B. TCP intercept
C. SFR stateful failover
D. FireSIGHT central policy distribution
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which three options are important when positioning a next-generation firewall solution? (Choose three.)
A. performance
B. resistance to evasion
C. current install base
D. interoperability
E. stability
F. nonproprietary
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 4
Which enhancement is added to URL filtering that is performed by the FirePOWER services module? 210-250 dumps
A. categories
B. reputation scores
C. regular expressions
D. IP address filters
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which action does Dynamic Content Analysis enable the Web Security Appliance to do?
A. Reclassify miscategorized sites.
B. Determine the most likely category of the website delivering content.
C. Block web content based on the Web Reputation of the serving site.
D. Choose the best AV engine to scan content.
E. Redirect the user to a site that the security administrator chooses.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
NGIPS rulesets are configured using which management application?
A. FireSIGHT Management Center
B. Cisco IDM
C. Cisco IME
D. Cisco ASDM
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Why does L4TM require T1 to be in promiscuous mode?
A. To transmit TCP reset packets
B. To process traffic that is not intended for its MAC address
C. To receive Ethernet broadcasts
D. To bind with other promiscuous mode ports
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
With which hardware option must Cisco ASA models below the 5585-X be sold to support FirePOWER services?
A. SSP module
B. FireSIGHT Management Center
C. SSD
D. FirePOWER services bundle
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
210-250 dumps Which application is required to support adding user information from Microsoft Active Directory to FirePOWER events?
A. Cisco ASA Identity Firewall
B. Microsoft Active Directory Agent
C. Cisco Directory Agent
D. Sourcefire User Agent
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
In the access log, what does an ACL tag beginning with BLOCK_ADMIN indicate?
A. The transaction was blocked because of application or object properties.
B. The malware category is set to blocking mode.
C. The transaction was manually blocked by the administrative user.
D. The destination was manually added to the block list.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which recommendation should be made to increase scalability, performance, and resiliency?
A. Create a Cisco ASA failover pair.
B. Upgrade the current Cisco ASA
C. Upgrade from the FirePOWER software module to the hardware module
D. Deploy Cisco ASA clustering.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
You are helping the customer configure authentication. A new AsyncOS upgrade becomes available; what should you do?
A. Avoid mentioning the upgrade to the customer.
B. Immediately show the customer how to run the CLI command upgrade.
C. Contact customer support and ask them to run the upgrade for you.
D. Schedule a convenient time to upgrade again, backing up the configuration before and after the upgrade.
Correct Answer: D

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Security
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Exam Code: 210-260
Total Questions: 310 Q&As
lead4pass 210-260 dumps
QUESTION 1
What is the best way to confirm that AAA authentication is working properly?
A. Use the test aaa command.
B. Ping the NAS to confirm connectivity.
C. Use the Cisco-recommended configuration for AAA authentication.
D. Log into and out of the router, and then check the NAS authentication log.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
When an administrator initiates a device wipe command from the ISE, what is the immediate effect?
A. It requests the administrator to choose between erasing all device data or only managed corporate data.
B. It requests the administrator to enter the device PIN or password before proceeding with the operation.
C. It notifies the device user and proceeds with the erase operation.
D. It immediately erases all data on the device.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
What is the FirePOWER impact flag used for?
A. A value that indicates the potential severity of an attack.
B. A value that the administrator assigns to each signature.
C. A value that sets the priority of a signature.
D. A value that measures the application awareness.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which statements about smart tunnels on a Cisco firewall are true? (Choose two.)
A. Smart tunnels can be used by clients that do not have administrator privileges
B. Smart tunnels support all operating systems
C. Smart tunnels offer better performance than port forwarding
D. Smart tunnels require the client to have the application installed locally
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
What is the purpose of the Integrity component of the CIA triad?
A. to ensure that only authorized parties can modify data
B. to determine whether data is relevant
C. to create a process for accessing data
D. to ensure that only authorized parties can view data
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What security feature allows a private IP address to access the Internet by translating it to a public address?
A. NAT
B. hairpinning
C. Trusted Network Detection
D. Certification Authority
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
lead4pass 210-260 dumps
You have configured R1 and R2 as shown, but the routers are unable to establish a site-to- site VPN tunnel. What action can you take to correct the problem?
A. Edit the crypto keys on R1 and R2 to match.
B. Edit the ISAKMP policy sequence numbers on R1 and R2 to match.
C. Set a valid value for the crypto key lifetime on each router.
D. Edit the crypto isakmp key command on each router with the address value of its own interface.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
What is a benefit of a web application firewall?
A. It blocks known vulnerabilities without patching applications.
B. It simplifies troubleshooting.
C. It accelerates web traffic.
D. It supports all networking protocols.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You have implemented a Sourcefire IPS and configured it to block certain addresses utilizing Security Intelligence IP Address Reputation. A user calls and is not able to access a certain IP address. What action can you take to allow the user access to the IP address?
A. Create a whitelist and add the appropriate IP address to allow the traffic.
B. Create a custom blacklist to allow the traffic.
C. Create a user based access control rule to allow the traffic.
D. Create a network based access control rule to allow the traffic.
E. Create a rule to bypass inspection to allow the traffic.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What are the three layers of a hierarchical network design? (Choose three.)
A. access
B. core
C. distribution
D. user
E. server
F. Internet
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 11
What are purposes of the Internet Key Exchange in an IPsec VPN? (Choose two.)
A. The Internet Key Exchange protocol establishes security associations
B. The Internet Key Exchange protocol provides data confidentiality
C. The Internet Key Exchange protocol provides replay detection
D. The Internet Key Exchange protocol is responsible for mutual authentication
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
What is an advantage of implementing a Trusted Platform Module for disk encryption?
A. It provides hardware authentication.
B. It allows the hard disk to be transferred to another device without requiring re- encryption.dis
C. It supports a more complex encryption algorithm than other disk-encryption technologies.
D. It can protect against single points of failure.
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND2
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-105
Total Questions: 204 Q&As
200-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which three challenges can the Cisco ACI integration of Layer 4 to Layer 7 services help a customer solve? (Choose three.)
A. Operational challenge of waiting on specialized administrators to configure individual devices
B. Limited device features
C. Chain of network services that includes multiple vendors
D. Costly and error-prone change control
E. Politics within an IT management organization
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 2
Which two functions are provided by the Cisco Application Policy Infrastructure Controller? (Choose two.)
A. Telemetry data for fabric operations
B. Policy repository
C. Distributed management plane
D. Control plane forwarding
E. Data plane forwarding
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
Your Certkiller trainee, Certkiller, asks you which of the following is a key objective of operations readiness assessment in the plan phase?
A. install and test system components in a nonproduction environment
B. assess the ability of site facilities to accommodate the proposed solution
C. assess the current state of operations and network management infrastructure, including people, processes, and tools, to identify issues and opportunities
D. assess existing network infrastructure and applications to verify its ability to support the proposed system
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
In the implement phase, solution implementation involves which of the following task? 200-105 dumps
A. perform preliminary Site Assessment
B. configure core products
C. execute test cases
D. analyze high-level design and technology requirements of the customer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which statement describes a bridge domain as it relates to the Cisco ACI?
A. Separates tenants
B. A separate routing instance
C. A container for IP subnets
D. A container for end points
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
200-105 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-105 dumps
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit
200-105 dumps
A packet with a source IP address of 192.168.2.4 and a destination IP address of 10.1.1.4 arrives at the AcmeB router. What action does the router take?
A. forwards the received packet out the Serial0/0 interface
B. forwards a packet containing an EIGRP advertisement out the Serial0/1 interface
C. forwards a packet containing an ICMP message out the FastEthemet0/0 interface
D. forwards a packet containing an ARP request out the FastEthemet0/1 interface
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
What is the function of the OpFlex protocol policy element?
A. Stores statistical information
B. Learns and knows every device in the network
C. Resolves policy and configures network hardware/software
D. Captures and stores the user intent in policy
E. Limits device features
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which action extends an EPG outside of the Cisco ACI fabric? 200-105 dumps
A. Enable a routing protocol on the border leaf.
B. Extend the bridge domain to an outside network.
C. Create a Layer 3 port.
D. Manually assign a port to a VLAN and map the VLAN to an EPG
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which three statements about a Cisco ACI Layer 3 connection to an external network are true? (Choose three.)
A. The Cisco ACI fabric is considered a transit network.
B. Routes learned from the outside are redistributed into ISIS.
C. Routes learned from the outside are redistributed into MP-BGP.
D. A leaf switch can peer with an external router.
E. A leaf switch cannot peer with an external router.
F. The Cisco ACI fabric is intended to be a stub network.
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 11
In which two ways can Layer 4 to Layer 7 services be integrated with Cisco ACI? (Choose two.)
A. A Layer 4 to Layer 7 appliance can program the Cisco APIC.
B. The Cisco APIC controls and automatically configures Layer 4 to Layer 7 services via device packages
C. Using traditional VLAN/VRF stitching.
D. The Cisco APIC does not integrate with third-party appliances.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 12
Which statement about when Cisco ACI is integrated with Microsoft Azure pack is true?
A. The application network profile is created in Windows Systems Center and pushed to the Cisco APIC.
B. The application profile is created in Windows Azure Pack Management Portal and pushed to the Cisco APIC.
C. The application network profile is created in the Cisco APIC and pushed to Windows Azure.
D. The application network profile is created in the Cisco APIC and pushed to Systems Center.
Correct Answer: B

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[2017 New Version] Update Free Latest 300-135 Dumps Cisco Exam Questions And Answers | Youtube

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP Routing and Switching
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Exam Code: 300-135
Total Questions: 118 Q&As
300-135 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which two statements about the Cisco Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) are true? (Select two)
A. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) profile manager feature can create and manage only one profile for the wireless client adapter.
B. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can support only one wireless client adapter installed and used at a time.
C. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can be used to establish the association between the client adapter and the access point, manage authentication to the wireless network, and enable encryption.
D. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) and the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager can be used at the same time to configure the wireless client adapter.
Correct Answer: B,C

QUESTION 2
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. 300-135 dumps What is the next thing that should be checked?
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which three features are benefits of using GRE tunnels in conjunction with IPsec for building site-to-site VPNs? (Choose three.)
A. allows dynamic routing over the tunnel
B. supports multi-protocol (non-IP) traffic over the tunnel
C. reduces IPsec headers overhead since tunnel mode is used
D. simplifies the ACL used in the crypto map
E. uses Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI) to simplify the IPsec VPN configuration
Correct Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION 4
What is the result if you configure two devices with the ntp server command?
A. Nothing will happen until one of the devices is configured with the prefer parameter.
B. The NTP protocol will determine which server is most reliable and will synchronize to that server.
C. The device with the highest priority will become the active server and the other device will become the backup server.
D. The device with the lowest MAC address will become the active server and the other device will become the backup server.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Exhibit:
300-135 dumps
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RouterA, IP address 10.1.2.1, and RouterB, IP address 10.1.2.2. Given the debug output on RouterA, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched autonomous system numbers.
B. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
C. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched authentication parameters.
D. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms.
E. RouterA will form an adjacency with RouterB.
F. RouterA will not form an adjacency with RouterB.
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 6
Which three management categories are contained in the FCAPS network maintenance model? 300-135 dumps (Choose three.)
A. Config
B. Fault
C. Storage
D. Accounting
E. Redundancy
F. Telecommunications
Correct Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION 7
The following command is issued on a Cisco Router:
Router(configuration)#logging console warnings
Which alerts will be seen on the console?
A. Warnings only
B. debugging, informational, notifications, warnings
C. warnings, errors, critical, alerts, emergencies
D. notifications, warnings, errors
E. warnings, errors, critical, alerts
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
What is the result of configuring the logging console warning command?
A. Messages with a severity level of 4 and higher will be logged to all available TTY lines.
B. Only warning messages will be logged on the console.
C. Warning, error, critical, and informational messages will be logged on the console.
D. Warning, critical, alert, and emergency messages will be logged on the console.
E. The logging console warning command needs to be followed in the configuration with logging buffered byte size to specify the message buffer size for the console.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which statement is true about an IPsec/GRE tunnel?
A. The GRE tunnel source and destination addresses are specified within the IPsec transform set.
B. An IPsec/GRE tunnel must use IPsec tunnel mode.
C. GRE encapsulation occurs before the IPsec encryption process.
D. Crypto map ACL is not needed to match which traffic will be protected.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You want to enhance the security within the Company LAN and prevent VLAN hopping. What two steps can be taken to help prevent this? (Select two)
A. Enable BPD guard
B. Disable CDP on ports where it is not necessary
C. Place unused ports in a common unrouted VLAN
D. Prevent automatic trunk configuration
E. Implement port security
Correct Answer: C,D

QUESTION 11
Refer to the shown below. 300-135 dumps
%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up
%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up
What statement is correct regarding the output shown in the graphic?
A. These two log messages will not have a severity level. They are not errors but are just informational messages.
B. The first log message is categorized as a warning message.
C. These messages regarding interface status are normal output and will always be displayed when you exit config mode.
D. The first log message is an error message with a severity level of 3.
E. The second message would be shown if the logging console warning command had been issued.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
EIGRP is being used as the routing protocol on the Company network. While troubleshooting some network connectivity issues, you notice a large number of EIGRP SIA (Stuck in Active) messages. What causes these SIA routes? (Select two)
A. The neighboring router stops receiving ACK packets from this router.
B. The neighboring router starts receiving route updates from this router.
C. The neighboring router is too busy to answer the query (generally caused by high CPU utilization).
D. The neighboring router is having memory problems and cannot allocate the memory to process the query or build the reply packet.
Correct Answer: C,D

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QUESTION 1
Which technology must be installed on the client computer to enable users to launch applications from a Clientless SSL VPN?
A. Java
B. QuickTime plug-in
C. Silverlight
D. Flash
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which command simplifies the task of converting an SSL VPN to an IKEv2 VPN on a Cisco ASA appliance that has an invalid IKEv2 configuration? 300-309 pdf
A. migrate remote-access ssl overwrite
B. migrate remote-access ikev2
C. migrate l2l
D. migrate remote-access ssl
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
When you troubleshoot Cisco AnyConnect, which step does Cisco recommend before you open a TAC case?
A. Show applet Lifecycle exceptions.
B. Disable cookies.
C. Enable the WebVPN cache.
D. Collect a DART bundle.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
300-209 dumps
The network administrator is adding a new spoke, but the tunnel is not passing traffic. 300-209 dumps What could cause this issue?
A. DMVPN is a point-to-point tunnel, so there can be only one spoke.
B. There is no EIGRP configuration, and therefore the second tunnel is not working.
C. The NHRP authentication is failing.
D. The transform set must be in transport mode, which is a requirement for DMVPN.
E. The NHRP network ID is incorrect.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which two types of authentication are supported when you use Cisco ASDM to configure site-to-site IKEv2 with IPv6? (Choose two.)
A. preshared key
B. webAuth
C. digital certificates
D. XAUTH
E. EAP
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
An internet-based VPN solution is being considered to replace an existing private WAN connecting remote offices. A multimedia application is used that relies on multicast for communication. Which two VPN solutions meet the application’s network requirement? (Choose two.)
A. FlexVPN
B. DMVPN
C. Group Encrypted Transport VPN
D. Crypto-map based Site-to-Site IPsec VPNs
E. AnyConnect VPN
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 7
Which application does the Application Access feature of Clientless VPN support?
A. TFTP
B. VoIP
C. Telnet
D. active FTP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which algorithm is replaced by elliptic curve cryptography in Cisco NGE? 300-209 dumps
A. 3DES
B. AES
C. DES
D. RSA
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which two GDOI encryption keys are used within a GET VPN network? 300-309 pdf (Choose two.)
A. key encryption key
B. group encryption key
C. user encryption key
D. traffic encryption key
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 10
Which command identifies an AnyConnect profile that was uploaded to the router flash?
A. crypto vpn anyconnect profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml
B. svc import profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml
C. anyconnect profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml
D. webvpn import profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
To change the title panel on the logon page of the Cisco IOS WebVPN portal, which file must you configure?
A. Cisco IOS WebVPN customization template
B. Cisco IOS WebVPN customization general
C. web-access-hlp.inc
D. app-access-hlp.inc
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A user is unable to establish an AnyConnect VPN connection to an ASA. 300-209 dumps When using the Real-Time Log viewer within ASDM to troubleshoot the issue, which two filter options would the administrator choose to show only syslog messages relevant to the VPN connection? (Choose two.)
A. Client’s public IP address
B. Client’s operating system
C. Client’s default gateway IP address
D. Client’s username
E. ASA’s public IP address
Correct Answer: AD

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QUESTION 1
Which statements are TRUE regarding Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses? (Choose three.)
A. An IPv6 address is divided into eight 16-bit groups.
B. A double colon (::) can only be used once in a single IPv6 address.
C. IPv6 addresses are 196 bits in length.
D. Leading zeros cannot be omitted in an IPv6 address.
E. Groups with a value of 0 can be represented with a single 0 in IPv6 address.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 2
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
What is one requirement for interfaces to run IPv6? 100-105 pdf
A. An IPv6 address must be configured on the interface.
B. An IPv4 address must be configured.
C. Stateless autoconfiguration must be enabled after enabling IPv6 on the interface.
D. IPv6 must be enabled with the ipv6 enable command in global configuration mode.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
HostX is transferring a file to the FTP server. 100-105 dumps Point A represents the frame as it goes toward the Toronto router. What will the Layer 2 destination address be at this point?
A. abcd.1123.0045
B. 192.168.7.17
C. aabb.5555.2222
D. 192.168.1.1
E. abcd.2246.0035
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 5
Which transport layer protocol provides best-effort delivery service with no acknowledgment receipt required?
A. HTTP
B. IP
C. TCP
D. Telnet
E. UDP
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 6
A workstation has just resolved a browser URL to the IP address of a server. What protocol will the workstation now use to determine the destination MAC address to be placed into frames directed toward the server?
A. HTTP
B. DNS
C. DHCP
D. RARP
E. ARP
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 7
Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? 100-105 pdf (Choose two.)
A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method.
D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data.
E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
F. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each other prior to transmitting data.
Correct Answer: B,E

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
The output is from a router in a large enterprise. From the output, determine the role of the router.
A. A Core router.
B. The HQ Internet gateway router.
C. The WAN router at the central site.
D. Remote stub router at a remote site.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers? 100-105 dumps
A. Internet layer
B. transport layer
C. application layer
D. network access layer
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
What must occur before a workstation can exchange HTTP packets with a web server?
A. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
B. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
C. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
D. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
E. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
F. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
Correct Answer: D

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[2017 New Version] Download Free Latest Cisco 200-125 Dumps PDF Practice Questions And Youtube (Q11-20)

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Question 11
You are in interface configuration mode of a Cisco router, and you want to assign an IP address of 172.16.1.1 /24 to the interfacE. 200-125 pdf Which of the following is the command you should enter?
A. Router1(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 /24
B. Router1(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 0.0.0.255
C. Router1(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.0
D. Router1(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 classful
Answer: C

Question 12
A Layer 2 Ethernet switch with 12 ports, where all ports belong to the same VLAN, has how many collision domains and how many broadcast domains?
A. 12 collision domains and 12 broadcast domains
B. 1 collision domain and 1 broadcast domain
C. 12 collision domains and 1 broadcast domain
D. 1 collision domain and 12 broadcast domains
Answer: C

Question 13
In the diagram below, Client A is sending a packet to Host 1. As the frame is coming into the Fa 0/0 interface on router R2, what is the destination MAC address in the frame’s header?  200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
A. Host 1’s MAC address
B. Client A’s MAC address
C. Router R1’s Fa 0/0 MAC address
D. Router R2’s Fa 0/0 MAC address
E. Router R2’s Fa 0/1 MAC address
Answer: D

Question 14
A traditional Ethernet switch operates at which layer of the OSI Model?
A. Transport
B. Data Link
C. Network
D. Physical
E. Session
Answer: B

Question 15
Which three of the following are components of a network secured using IEEE 802.1x? (Choose 3.)
A. Encryption Server
B. Supplicant
C. Authorization Server
D. Key Manager
E. Authenticator
F. Authentication Server
Answer: BEF

Question 16
What protocol allows multiple hosts to dynamically obtain IP addresses from a server?200-125 dumps
A. DNS
B. DHCP
C. WINS
D. ARP
E. ICMP
Answer: B

Question 17
You are connected to the console line of RouterA. From there, you connect to RouterB via Telnet. Without terminating the Telnet session, what key sequence could you enter to return to the RouterA prompt?
A. <CTRL-SHIFT-6> x
B. <CTRL-Break>
C. <CTRL-ALT-DELETE>
D. <CTRL-ALT-x>
Answer: A

Question 18
Which of the follow protocols is used to determine the MAC address for a known IP address? 200-125 pdf
A. DNS
B. DHCP
C. WINS
D. ARP
E. ICMP
Answer: D

Question 19
RIPv2 advertisements are sent to what multicast IP address?
A. 224.0.0.5
B. 224.0.0.6
C. 224.0.0.9
D. 224.0.0.10
Answer: C

Question 20
What file transfer protocol uses a connectionless Layer 4 transport protocol and does not required user authentication?200-125 dumps
A. TFTP
B. SFTP
C. FTP
D. SSH
E. Telnet
Answer: A

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