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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSE
Exam Name: Implementing an Advanced Server Infrastructure
Exam Code: 70-414
Total Questions: 243 Q&As

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Microsoft MCSE 70-414 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (Q13-Q30)

QUESTION 13
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains four servers on a test network. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
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Server1 uses the storage shown in the following table.
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You perform the following tasks:
On Server2, you create an advanced SMB share named Share2A and an applications SMB share named Share2B.
On Server3, you create an advanced SMB share named Share3. On Server4, you create an applications SMB share named Share4. You add Server3 and Server4 to a new failover cluster named Clus1. On Clus1, you configure the File Server for general use role, you create a quick SMB share named Share5A, and then you create an applications SMB share named Share5B.
You plan to create a failover cluster of two virtual machines hosted on Server1. The clustered virtual machines will use shared .vhdx files.
You need to recommend a location to store the shared .vhdx files.
Where should you recommend placing the virtual hard disk (VHD)?
A. \\Server3\Share3
B. \\Server2\Share2B
C. \\Clus1\Share5B
D. \\Server4\Share4
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network has an Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) infrastructure.
You need to issue a certificate to users to meet the following requirements:
Ensure that the users can encrypt files by using Encrypting File System (EFS). Ensure that all of the users reenroll for their certificate every six months.
Solution: From the properties of the User certificate template, you assign the Allow – Enroll permission to the Authenticated Users group.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
You have a properly configured certification authority in an Active Directory Domain Services domain.
You must implement two-factor authentication and use virtual smart cards to secure user sessions.
You need to implement two-factor authentication for each client device.
What should you install on each client device?
A. a smart card reader
B. a user certificate issued by a certification authority
C. a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chip
D. a local computer certificate issued by a certificate authority
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The network contains a System Center 2012 R2 Data Protection Manager (DPM) deployment.
The domain contains six servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
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You install System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) on the nodes in Cluster2.
You configure VMM to use a database in Cluster1. Server5 is the first node in the cluster.
You need to back up the VMM encryption key.
What should you back up?
A. A full system backup of Server1
B. A full system backup of Server3
C. A backup of the Windows\DigitalLocker folder on Server5
D. A backup of the Windows\DigitalLocker folder on Server1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Your network contains five servers that run Windows Server 2012. You install the Hyper-V server role on the servers. You create an external virtual network switch on each server.
You plan to deploy five virtual machines to each Hyper-V server. Each virtual machine will have a virtual network adapter that is connected to the external virtual network switch and that has a VLAN identifier of 1.
Each virtual machine will run Windows Server 2012. All of the virtual machines will run the identical web application.
You plan to install the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature on each virtual machine and join each virtual machine to an NLB cluster. The cluster will be configured to use unicast only.
You need to ensure that the NLB feature can distribute connections across all of the virtual machines.
What should you do?
A. From the properties of each virtual machine, add a second virtual network adapter. Connect the new virtual network adapters to the external virtual network switch. Configure the new virtual network adapters to use a VLAN identifier of 2.
B. On each Hyper-V server, create a new private virtual network switch. From the properties of each virtual machine, add a second virtual network adapter. Connect the new virtual network adapters to the new private virtual network switches.
C. On each Hyper-V server, create a new external virtual network switch. From the properties of each virtual machine, add a second virtual network adapter. Connect the new virtual network adapters to the new external virtual network switches.
D. From the properties of each virtual machine, enable MAC address spoofing for the existing virtual network adapter.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
Your company works with a partner company that has an Active Directory forest named fabrikam.com. Both forests contain domain controllers that run only Windows Server 2012 R2. 70-414 dumps
The certification authority (CA) infrastructure of both companies is configured as shown in the following table.
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You need to recommend a certificate solution that meets the following requirements:
Server authentication certificates issued from fabrikam.com must be trusted automatically by the computers in contoso.com.
The computers in contoso.com must not trust automatically any other type of certificates issued from the CA hierarchy in fabrikam.com.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that defines intermediate CAs. Import a certificate that has an application policy object identifier (OID) of CA Encryption Certificate.
B. Deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that defines an enterprise trust. Import a certificate that has an application policy object identifier (OID) of Microsoft Trust List Signing.
C. Deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that defines an enterprise trust. Import a certificate that has an application policy object identifier (OID) of CA Encryption Certificate.
D. Deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that defines intermediate CAs. Import a certificate that has an application policy object identifier (OID) of Microsoft Trust List Signing.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Your network contains a server named Hyperl that runs Windows Server 2012. Hyperl is configured as a Hyper-V host and runs System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM).
Hyperl hosts a virtual machine named Guestl. Guestl is configured as a file server that runs Windows Server 2012. Guestl connects to a shared storage device by using the iSCSI Initiator.
You need to back up the files and the folders in the shared storage used by Guestl. The solution must ensure that the backup is successful even if Guestl is in a saved state. What should you do? O
A. From Hyper-V Manager, create a snapshot of Guestl.
B. From Hyperl, configure an iSCSI initiator to the shared storage and perform a backup by using Windows Server Backup.
C. From Guestl, schedule regular backups by using Windows Server Backup.
D. From Microsoft System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM), create a copy of Guestl.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
You have a Hyper-V host named Hyper1 that has Windows Server 2012 installed. Hyper1 hosts 20 virtual machines.
Hyper1 has one physical network adapter.
You need to implement a networking solution that evenly distributes the available bandwidth on Hyper1 to all of the virtual machines.
What should you modify?
A. The settings of the virtual switch
B. The settings of the virtual network adapter
C. The Quality of Service (QoS) Packet Scheduler settings of the physical network adapter
D. The settings of the legacy network adapter
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
You have a server named Host1 that runs Windows Server 2012 and has the Hyper-V server role installed.
Host1 has one physical network adapter. You plan to deploy 15 virtual machines on Host1.
You need to implement a networking solution that ensures that all of the virtual machines use PXE to boot when they connect to Windows Deployment Server (WDS).
What should you do?
A. Install legacy network adapters for each virtual machine.
B. Modify the settings of the virtual switch.
C. Modify the settings of the network adapter for each virtual machine.
D. Install a second physical network adapter.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Your network contains two data centers named DataCenter1 and DataCenter2. The two data centers are connected by using a low latency high-speed WAN link. 70-414 dumps
Each data center contains multiple Hyper-V hosts that run Windows Server 2012. All servers connect to a Storage Area Network (SAN) in their local data center.
You plan to implement 20 virtual machines that will be hosted on the Hyper-V hosts.
You need to recommend a hosting solution for the virtual machines.
The solution must meet the following requirements:
Virtual machines must be available automatically on the network if a single Hyper- V host fails.
Virtual machines must be available automatically on the network if a single data center fails.
What should you recommend?
A. One failover cluster in DataCenter1 and Hyper-V replicas to DataCenter2
B. One failover cluster in DataCenter2 and one DFS Replication group in DataCenter1
C. One failover cluster that spans both data centers and SAN replication between the data centers
D. One failover cluster and one Distributed File System (DFS) Replication group in each data center
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
An organization uses an Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) cluster names RMS1 to protect content for a project. You uninstall AD RMS when the project is complete. You need to ensure that the protected content is still available after AD RMS is uninstalled.
Solution: You run the following Windows PowerShell command:
Set-ItemProperty -Path :\ -Name IsDecommissioned -Value $true 璄nableDecommission
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Your network contains two clusters. The clusters are configured as shown in the following table.
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All of the servers in both of the clusters run Windows Server 2012. You need to plan the application of Windows updates to the nodes in the cluster.
What should you include in the plan? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal.
Select the BEST answer.
A. Cluster-Aware Updating (CAU) self-updating and downloaded updates from Windows Server Update Services (WSUS)
B. Microsoft System Center 2012 Service Manager integrated with Windows Server Update Service (WSUS)
C. A manual application of Windows updates on all of the cluster node
D. Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration Manager integrated with Windows Server Update Service (WSUS)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Your network contains two Hyper-V hosts named Host1 and Host2. Host1 contains a virtual machine named VM1. Host2 contains a virtual machine named VM2. VM1 and VM2 run Windows Server 2012 R2.
You install the Network Load Balancing feature on VM1 and VM2. You need to ensure that the virtual machines are configured to support Network Load Balancing (NLB).
Which virtual machine settings should you configure on VM1 and VM2?
A. DHCP guard
B. MAC address
C. Router guard
D. Port mirroring
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a Microsoft System Center 2012 infrastructure. You deploy a service named Service1 by using a service template. Service1 contains two virtual machines. The virtual machines are configured as shown in the following table.
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You need to recommend a monitoring solution to ensure that an administrator can review the availability information of Service1.
Solution: From Configuration Manager, you create a Collection and a Desired Configuration Management baseline.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
A company has offices in Seattle and Shanghai. You use Hyper-V Server 2012 R2 as the server virtualization platform. Each office has a secured server room where all the servers are located. Eighty percent of the company’s servers are virtual. The company signs a data center services agreement with a vendor that is located in New York. The agreement includes a 1 GB per second link to the collocation facility in New York.
The link between the Seattle and Shanghai offices is slow and unreliable. You must design and implement a cost-effective data recovery solution to replicate virtual servers from Seattle to both the New York and Shanghai locations.
The solution must support the following requirements:
Perform failover replication from Seattle to New York. Perform scheduled replication between as many locations as possible. In case of a disaster, a fast failover should be possible to the replicated servers with minimal changes required to the existing infrastructure.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Use Hyper-V Replica unplanned failovers.
B. Configure the Seattle Hyper-V server as the primary replica server and the Shanghai Hyper-V server as the secondary replica server.
C. Use Hyper-V Replica planned failovers.
D. Configure the Seattle Hyper-V server as the primary replica server and the New York Hyper-V server as the secondary replica server.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 28
Your network contains an Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) cluster named Cluster1.
You plan to change Cluster1 to a new AD RMS cluster named Cluster2.
You need to ensure that all users retrieve the location of the AD RMS templates from Cluster2.
What should you do?
A. Modify the Service Connection Point (SCP).
B. Modify the exclusion policies.
C. Modify the templates file location of the rights policy templates.
D. Create an alias (CNAME) record named Cluster1.contoso.com that points to Cluster2.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains a site named Site1.
All of the client computers in Site1 use static IPv4 addresses on a single subnet. Site1 contains a Storage Area Network (SAN) device and two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012. 70-414 dumps
You plan to implement a DHCP infrastructure that will contain Server1 and Server2. The infrastructure will contain several IP address reservations. You need to recommend a solution for the DHCP infrastructure to ensure that clients can receive IP addresses from a DHCP server if either Server1 or Server2 fails.
What should you recommend? (Each correct answer is a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Configure all of the client computers to use IPv6 addresses, and then configure Server1 and Server2 to run DHCP in stateless mode.
B. Configure Server1 and Server2 as members of a failover cluster, and then configure DHCP as a clustered resource.
C. Configure a DHCP failover relationship that contains Server1 and Server2.
D. Create a scope for each server, and then configure each scope to contain half of the IP addresses.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 30
You administer a group of servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
You must install all updates. You must report on compliance with the update policy on a monthly basis.
You need to configure updates and compliance reporting for new devices.
What should you do?
A. Deploy the Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer. Scan the servers and specify the /apply switch.
B. In Configuration Manager, deploy a new Desired Configuration Management baseline that includes all required updates.
C. Configure a new group policy to install updates monthly. Deploy the group policy to all servers.
D. In Operations Manager, create an override that enables the software updates management pack. Apply the new override to the servers.
Correct Answer: C

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSM
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Exam Code: 070-410
Total Questions: 503 Q&As

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New Microsoft MCSM 070-410 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
You have a server named Server2 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server2 has the Hyper-V server role installed. The disks on Server2 are configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) You create a virtual machine on Server2 named VM1.
You need to ensure that you can configure a pass-through disk for VM1.
What should you do?
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A. Convert Disk 1 to a basic disk.
B. Take Disk 1 offline.
C. Create a partition on Disk 1.
D. Convert Disk 1 to a MBR disk.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. Server1 is connected to two Fibre Channel SANs and is configured as shown in the following table.
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You have a virtual machine named VM1. You need to configure VM1 to connect to SAN1.
What should you do first?
A. Add one HBA
B. Create a Virtual Fibre Channel SAN.
C. Create a Hyper-V virtual switch.
D. Configure network adapter teaming.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You work as a senior administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. All servers on the L2P.com network have Windows Server 2012 installed, and all workstations have Windows 8 installed.
You are running a training exercise for junior administrators. You are currently discussing the Always Offline Mode.
Which of the following is TRUE with regards to the Always Offline Mode? (Choose all that apply.)
A. It allows for swifter access to cached files and redirected folders.
B. To enable Always Offline Mode, you have to satisfy the forest and domain functional-level requirements, as well as schema requirements.
C. It allows for lower bandwidth usage due to users are always working offline.
D. To enable Always Offline Mode, you must have workstations running Windows 7 or Windows Server 2008 R2.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DC1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to configure a central store for the Group Policy Administrative Templates. What should you do on DC1?
A. From Server Manager, create a storage pool.
B. From Windows Explorer, copy the PolicyDefinitions folder to the SYSVOL\contoso.com\policies folder.
C. From Server Manager, add the Group Policy Management feature
D. From Windows Explorer, copy the PolicyDefinitions folder to the NETLOGON share.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You install Windows Server 2012 R2 on a standalone server named Server1. You configure Server1 as a VPN server.
You need to ensure that client computers can establish PPTP connections to Server1. 070-410 dumps Which two firewall rules should you create? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.Choose two.)
A. An inbound rule for protocol 47
B. An outbound rule for protocol 47
C. An inbound rule for TCP port 1723
D. An inbound rule for TCP port 1701
E. An outbound rule for TCP port 1723
F. An outbound rule for TCP port 1701
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The computer accounts for all member servers are located in an organizational unit (OU) named Servers. You link a Group Policy object (GPO) to the Servers OU.
You need to ensure that the domain’s Backup Operators group is a member of the local Backup Operators group on each member server. The solution must not remove any groups from the local Backup Operators groups.
What should you do?
A. Add a restricted group named adatum\Backup Operators. Add Backup Operators to the This group is a member of list.
B. Add a restricted group named adatum\Backup Operators. Add Backup Operators to the Members of this group list.
C. Add a restricted group named Backup Operators. Add adatum\Backup Operators to the This group is a member of list.
D. Add a restricted group named Backup Operators. Add adatum\Backup Operators to the Members of this group list.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. An application named Appl.exe is installed on all client computers. Multiple versions of Appl.exe are installed on different client computers. Appl.exe is digitally signed. You need to ensure that only the latest version of Appl.exe can run on the client computers.
What should you create?
A. An application control policy packaged app rule
B. A software restriction policy certificate rule
C. An application control policy Windows Installer rule
D. An application control policy executable rule
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to ensure that the local Administrator account on all computers is renamed to L_Admin. Which Group Policy settings should you modify?
A. Security Options
B. User Rights Assignment
C. Restricted Groups
D. Preferences
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You have a server that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. The disks on the server are configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) You need to create a storage pool that contains Disk 1 and Disk 2. What should you do first?
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A. Delete volume E
B. Convert Disk 1 and Disk 2 to dynamic disks
C. Convert Disk 1 and Disk 2 to GPT disks
D. Create a volume on Disk 2
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You add a 4-TB disk named Disk 5 to Server1. You need to ensure that you can create a 3-TB volume on Disk 5. What should you do?
A. Create a storage pool.
B. Convert the disk to a dynamic disk.
C. Create a VHD, and then attach the VHD.
D. Convert the disk to a GPT disk.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
You have a server named Server1 that has a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2008 R2. Server1 has the DHCP Server server role and the File Server server role installed. You need to upgrade Server1 to Windows Server 2012 R2 with the graphical user interface (GUI). The solution must meet the following requirements:
Preserve the server roles and their configurations.
Minimize Administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. On Server1, run setup.exe from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server with a GUI.
B. Start Server1 from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server Core Installation. When the installation is complete, add the Server Graphical Shell feature.
C. Start Server1 from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server with a GUI.
D. On Server1, run setup.exe from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server Core Installation. When the installation is complete, add the Server Graphical Shell feature
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to install the Remote Desktop Services server role on Server2 remotely from Server1. 070-410 dumps Which tool should you use?
A. The dsadd.exe command
B. The Server Manager console
C. The Remote Desktop Gateway Manager console
D. The Install-RemoteAccess cmdlet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
You have a server named Server1 that runs a full installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to uninstall the graphical user interface (GUI) on Server1.
You must achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of Administrative effort. What should you do?
A. Reinstall Windows Server 2012 R2 on the server.
B. From Server Manager, uninstall the User Interfaces and Infrastructure feature.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature PowerShell-ISE
D. From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature Desktop-Experience.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4. Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.
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You install Windows Server 2012 R2 on VM2 by using Windows Deployment Services (WDS). You need to ensure that the next time VM2 restarts, you can connect to the WDS server by using PXE.
Which virtual machine setting should you configure for VM2?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Correct Answer: G

QUESTION 15
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.
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In the perimeter network, you install a new server named Server1 that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to join Server1 to the contoso.com domain.
What should you use?
A. The New-ADComputer cmdlet
B. The djoin.exe command
C. The dsadd.exe command
D. The Add-Computer cmdlet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains three domain DC3 loses network connectivity due to a hardware failure. You plan to remove DC3 from the domain. You log on to DC3. You need to identify which service location (SRV) records are registered by DC3. What should you do?
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A. Open the %windir%\system32\config\netlogon.dns file.
B. Run dcdiag /test:dns
C. Open the %windir%\system32\dns\backup\adatum.com.dns file.
D. Run ipconfig /displaydns.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Your network contains an Active Directory forest that contains three domains. A group named Group1 is configured as a domain local distribution group in the forest root domain. You plan to grant Group1 read-only access to a shared folder named Share1. Share1 is located in a child domain.
You need to ensure that the members of Group1 can access Share1.
What should you do first?
A. Convert Group1 to a global distribution group.
B. Convert Group1 to a universal security group.
C. Convert Group1 to a universal distribution group.
D. Convert Group1 to a domain local security group
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 R2. One of the domain controllers is named DCI. The network contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to promote Server1 to a domain controller by using install from media (IFM).
What should you do first?
A. Create a system state backup of DC1.
B. Create IFM media on DC1.
C. Upgrade DC1 to Windows Server 2012 R2.
D. Run the Active Directory Domain Services Configuration Wizard on Server1.
E. Run the Active Directory Domain Services Installation Wizard on DC1.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 100 servers. The servers are contained in a organizational unit (OU) named ServersOU. 070-410 dumps You need to create a group named Group1 on all of the servers in the domain.
You must ensure that Group1 is added only to the servers.
What should you configure?
A. a Local Users and Groups preferences setting in a Group Policy linked to the Domain Controllers OU
B. a Restricted Groups setting in a Group Policy linked to the domain
C. a Local Users and Groups preferences setting in a Group Policy linked to ServersOU
D. a Restricted Groups setting in a Group Policy linked to ServersOU
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains several thousand member servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. All of the computer accounts for the member servers are in an organizational unit (OU) named ServersAccounts.
Servers are restarted only occasionally.
You need to identify which servers were restarted during the last two days.
What should you do?
A. Run dsquery computerand specify the -staiepwdpara meter.
B. Run Get-ADComputerand specify the SearchScope parameter.
C. Run Get-ADComputerand specify the IastLogonproperty.
D. Run dsquery serverand specify the -oparameter
Correct Answer: C

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300-360 dumps

Newest Cisco CCNP Wireless 300-360 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-12)

QUESTION 1
An engineer would like to calibrate the RF environment to improve accuracy.
Which wireless attribute is added to the foor-level calculation by calibrating the foor?
A. attenuation
B. TX power
C. multipath
D. SNR
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
An engineer is performing a predictive wireless design for a Parts Distribution Center which requires data and location services. Which three requirements are inputs to the design? (Choose three.)
A. access points with directional antennas
B. continuous -67 dBm coverage from one access point
C. overlapping -75 dBm coverage from three access points
D. overlapping -67 dBm coverage from two access points
E. access points in IPS mode
F. continuous -72 dBm coverage from one access point
G. accesspointsincornersandalongperimeters
Correct Answer: BCG

QUESTION 3
A customer is deploying a Greenfield 802.11ac network on a foor that will support approximately 300 wireless devices.
Which setting needs to be changed on Prime Infrastructure Planning Tool in order to predict the amount of access points the customer needs to service the new foor?
A. Data Coverage Support Margin
B. Demand Settings
C. Add AP Field
D. 802.11n Protocol Support
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which two options describe best practices that must be completed after a wireless installation is finished? 300-360 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Make sure that there are no spaces between the devices on the rack that the Wireless Lan Controller isinstalled.
B. Consult with the customer to ensure that the IT staff has a complete set of design and installationdocuments.
C. Make sure the customer is aware that they should consider purchasing a support contract immediately afterthe installationis complete.
D. Spend time with the customer to show them the controller GUI and inform them how they can reach the Cisco TAC if they have any problems.
E. Test all the customer’s wireless devices and applications to ensure they are working properly.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 5
An engineer is preparing for an outdoor wireless survey to mesh connect a distant remote building to a connected building.
Which two types of antennas are appropriate for this application? (Choose two.)
A. circular polarized
B. patch
C. dish
D. Yagi
E. omni
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
300-360 dumps
While testing the post-deployment WLAN network you discover that an AP has been placed in a difficult area. The AP cannot be moved easily because of various requirements. The client performance of various Apple and Microsoft operating system-based products does not meet expectations.
Which two options can help mitigate the performance issue? (Choose two.)
A. Add additional APs.
B. Increase the AP power level to maximum.
C. Rotate the AP 90 degrees to change antenna polarity.
D. Replace the AP with an AP and external antenna.
E. Change the AP location to one that is less RF hostile.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 7
An engineer is tuning RRM parameters to improve client connectivity. Which channel band results in the best 802.11n client compatibility?
A. UNII-2
B. UNII-2e
C. UNII-3
D. UNII
E. UNII-1
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8
An engineer is installing a wireless network in an industrial area with extreme temperatures and a significant amount of dust. Which enclosure should be used to protect the APs?
A. ACU
B. ADU
C. NEMA
D. WLSE
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
What are two advantages of conducting an active survey versus a passive survey when verifying RF coverage? (Choose two.)
A. verifies packet loss
B. verifies roaming
C. verifies SNR
D. verifies signal level
E. verifies interferers
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
An engineer is deploying an outdoor Mesh network. Which four major factors should be considered? (Choose four.)
A. power
B. buildings
C. traffic lights
D. satellite dishes
E. line of sight
F. network connectivity
G. power lines
H. mounting
Correct Answer: AEHF

QUESTION 11
A customer has deployed an N+N redundant wireless infrastructure. In this deployment the access points have been salt and peppered between controllers. 300-360 dumps
What configuration would be necessary to cut down on the use of mobility tunnels for voice clients?
A. mobility anchor
B. KIS based CAC
C. media session snooping
D. re-anchor roamed voice clients
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which two steps are associated with the active portion of the audit when a post-installation audit is performed with an auditing tool such as Ekahau? (Choose two.)
A. Check for co-channel interference by standing near an access point on one channel and watching for other access points that are on the same channel.
B. Verify smooth roaming.
C. Check to see if the signal level on other access points that are heard on the same channel is at least 19dBm weaker than the access point that you are next to.
D. Check that all channels are supported by the APs regardless of client capabilities.
E. Verify that the network traffic of physical data rate and packet loss meets user requirements.
Correct Answer: BE

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[2018 New Version] Update Free Latest Cisco CCDP 300-115 Dumps Exam Files And Youtube Demo

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300-115 dumps
QUESTION 1
RSPAN has been configured on a Cisco Catalyst switch; however, traffic is not being replicated to the remote switch. Which type of misconfiguration is a cause?
A. The RSPAN designated VLAN is missing the remote span command.
B. The local and remote RSPAN switches are configured using different session IDs.
C. The local RSPAN switch is replicating only Rx traffic to the remote switch.
D. The local switch is overloaded with the amount of sourced traffic that must be replicated to the remote switch.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which two statements about SPAN source and destination ports during an active session are true? (Choose two.)
A. The source port can be only an Ethernet physical port.
B. The source port can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions.
C. Thedestination port can be destination in multiple SPAN sessions.
D. The destination port does not participate in STP.
E. You can mix individual source ports and source VLANs within a single session.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
A network engineer changed the port speed and duplex setting of an existing EtherChannel bundle that uses the PAgP protocol. Which statement describes what happens to all ports in the bundle?
A. PAgP changes the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle.
B. PAgP drops the ports that do not match the configuration.
C. PAgP does not change the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle until the switch is rebooted.
D. PAgP changes the port speed but notthe duplex for all ports in the bundle.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A network engineer is installing a switch for temporary workers to connect to. The engineer does not want this switch participating in Spanning Tree with the rest of the network; however, end user connectivity is still required. 300-115 dumps Which spanning-tree feature accomplishes this?
A. BPDUblock
B. BPDUfilter
C. BPDUignore
D. BPDUguard
E. BPDUdisable
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
An EtherChannel bundle has been established between a Cisco switch and a corporate web server. The network administrator noticed that only one of the EtherChannel links is being utilized to reach the web server. What should be done on the Cisco switch to allow for better EtherChannel utilization to the corporate web server?
A. Enable Cisco Express Forwarding to allow for more effective traffic sharing over the EtherChannel bundle.
B. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on destination IP addresses.
C. Disable spanning tree on all interfaces that are participating in the EtherChannel bundle.
D. Use link-state tracking to allow for improved load balancing of traffic upon link failure to the server.
E. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on source IP addresses.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 6
Enablement of which feature puts the port into err-disabled state when the port has PortFast enabled and it receives BPDUs?
A. BPDU filtering
B. BackboneFast
C. EtherChannel
D. BPDU guard
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
When a Layer 2 EtherChannel is configured, which statement about placement of the IP address is true?
A. The IP address is placed on the highest numbered member port.
B. The IP address is placed on the port-channel logical interface.
C. The IP address is placed on the lowest numbered member port.
D. The IP address is assigned via DHCP only.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Ferris Plastics, Inc. is a medium sized company, with an enterprise network (access, distribution and core switches) that provides LAN connectivity from user PCs to corporate servers. The distribution switches are configured to use HSRP to provide a high availability solution.
DSW1 -primary device for VLAN 101 VLAN 102 and VLAN 105
DSW2 – primary device for VLAN 103 and VLAN 104
A failure of GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on primary device should cause the primary device to release its status as the primary device, unless GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on backup device has also failed.
Troubleshooting has identified several issues. Currently all interfaces are up. Using the running configurations and show commands, you have been asked to investigate and respond to the following question.
300-115 dumps
What is the priority value of the VLAN 105 HSRP group on DSW2?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which two statements about SPAN source and destination ports during an active session are true? 300-115 dumps (Choose two.)
A. The source port can be only an Ethernet physical port.
B. The source port can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions.
C. The destination port can be destination in multiple SPAN sessions.
D. The destination port does not participate in STP.
E. You can mix individual source ports and source VLANs within a single session.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
Which two options are two results of using the command spanning-tree vlan 50 root primary within a spanning-tree network under global configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Spanning tree determines the priority of the current root for VLAN 50 and reduces the priority of the local switch to a lower value.
B. The priority value for VLAN 50 is set to 4094 on the root while the local switch priority is set to 32768.
C. The spanning-tree timers are reduced to improve the convergence time for VLAN 50.
D. All ports that are configured on the current switch with VLAN 50 transition to designated ports.
E. The switchport that is configured for VLAN 50 is the primary connection to the spanning-tree root switch.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 11
Your customer has asked you to come in and verify the operation of routers R1 and R2 which are configured to use HSRP. They have questions about how these two devices will perform in the event of a device failure.
300-115 dumps
What issue is causing Router R1 and R2 to both be displayed as the HSRP active router for group 2?
A. The HSRP group number mismatch
B. The HSRP group authentication is misconfigured
C. The HSRP Hello packets are blocked
D. The HSRP timers mismatch
E. The HSRP group priorities are different
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
An enterprise network has port security sticky enabled on all access ports. A network administrator moves a PC from one office desk to another. After the PC is moved, the network administrator clears the port security on the new network switch port connecting to the PC, but the port keeps going back into errdisabled mode. Which two factors are possible causes of this issue? (Choose two)
A. Port security sticky exists on the new network switch port
B. Port security sticky is disabled on the new network switch port
C. Port security must be disabled on all access ports
D. Port security is still enabled on the older network switch port
E. Port security sticky is still enabled on the older network switch port
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands ensure that DSW1 becomes root bridge for VLAN 10 and 20? 300-115 dumps (Choose two)
A. spanning-tree mstp 1 priority 0
B. spanning-tree mst 1 root primary
C. spanning-tree mst vlan 10,20 priority root
D. spanning-tree mst 1 priority 4096
E. spanning-tree mst 1 priority 1
F. spanning-tree mstp vlan 10,20 root primary
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 14
Which database is used to determine the validity of an ARP packet based on a valid IP-to- MAC address binding?
A. DHCP snooping database
B. dynamic ARP database
C. dynamic routing database
D. static ARP database
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
A switch is added into the production network to increase port capacity. A network engineer is configuring the switch for DHCP snooping and IP Source Guard, but is unable to configure ip verify source under several of the interfaces.
Which option is the cause of the problem?
A. The local DHCP server is disabled prior to enabling IP Source Guard.
B. The interfaces are configured as Layer 3 using the no switchport command.
C. No VLANs exist on the switch and/or the switch is configured in VTP transparent mode.
D. The switch is configured for sdm prefer routing as the switched database management template.
E. The configured SVIs on the switch have been removed for the associated interfaces.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
What is the default port security violation
A. log
B. shutdown
C. no change
D. error-disable
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
RSPAN has been configured on a Cisco Catalyst switch; however, traffic is not being replicated to the remote switch.
Which type of misconfiguration is a cause?
A. The RSPAN designated VLAN is missing the remote span command.
B. The local and remote RSPAN switches are configured using different session IDs.
C. The local RSPAN switch is replicating only Rx traffic to the remote switch.
D. The local switch isoverloaded with the amount of sourced traffic that must be replicated to the remote switch.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which will identify the master switch in stack wise?
A. lower priority
B. higher priority
C. lower id
D. higher id
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
A Cisco Catalyst switch that is prone to reboots continues to rebuild the DHCP snooping database. 300-115 dumps What is the solution to avoid the snooping database from being rebuilt after everydevice reboot?
A. A DHCP snooping database agent should be configured.
B. Enable DHCP snooping for all VLANs that are associated with the switch.
C. Disable Option 82 for DHCP data insertion.
D. Use IP Source Guard to protect the DHCP binding table entries from being lost upon rebooting.
E. Apply ip dhcp snooping trust on all interfaces with dynamic addresses.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which statement about Layer 2 protocol participation of ports involved m a SPAN session is true?
A. Neither a SPAN source nor SPAN destination participates m any Layer 2 protocols.
B. A SPAN source does not participate n any Layer 2 protocols
C. A SPAN destination does not participate n any Layer 2 protocols
D. Both SPAN source and SPAN destination participate in any Layer 2 protocols
Correct Answer: C

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[2017 New Version] Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-175 Dumps Exam Files And Youtube Free Update

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300-175 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which statement about Layer 2 protocol participation of ports involved m a SPAN session is true?
A. Neither a SPAN source nor SPAN destination participates m any Layer 2 protocols.
B. A SPAN source does not participate n any Layer 2 protocols
C. A SPAN destination does not participate n any Layer 2 protocols
D. Both SPAN source and SPAN destination participate in any Layer 2 protocols
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Afterport security is deployed throughout an enterprise campus, the network team has been overwhelmed with port reset requests. They decide to configure the network to automate the process of re-enabling user ports.
Which command accomplishes this task?
A. switch(config)# errdisable recovery interval 180
B. switch(config)# errdisable recovery cause psecure-violation
C. switch(config)# switchport port-security protect
D. switch(config)# switchport port-security aging type inactivity
E. switch(config)# errdisablerecovery cause security-violation
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which three functions does Dynamic ARP Inspection perform with invalid IP-to MAC address bindings? (Choose there.)
A. accepts
B. deletes
C. discards
D. bypasses
E. intercepts
F. logs
Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 4
Whichfour LACP components are used to determine which hot-standby links become active after an interface failure within an EtherChannel bundle? 300-175 dumps (Choose four.)
A. LACP system priority
B. LACP port priority
C. interface MAC address
D. system ID
E. port number
F. hot-standby link identification number
G. interface bandwidth
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 5
Which command globally enables AAA on a device?
A. aaa new-model
B. aaa authentication
C. aaa authorization
D. aaa accounting
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What is the default interval at which Cisco devices send Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisements?
A. 30 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. 120 seconds
D. 300 seconds
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
RSPAN has been configured on a Cisco Catalyst switch; however, traffic is not being replicated to the remote switch.
Which type of misconfiguration is a cause?
A. The RSPAN designated VLAN is missing the remote span command
B. The local and remote RSPAN switches are configured using different session IDs.
C. The local RSPAN switch is replicating only Rx traffic to the remote switch.
D. The local switch isoverloaded with the amount of sourced traffic that must be replicated to the remote switch.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Enablement of which feature puts the port into err-disabled state when the port has PortFast enabled and it receives BPDUs?
A. BPDU filtering
B. BackboneFast
C. EtherChannel
D. BPDU guard
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
When using EtherChannel misconfiguration guard, 300-175 dumps which technology is used to prevent this type of misconfiguration from affecting the network?
A. STP
B. port security
C. LACP
D. PAgP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
An EtherChannel bundle has been established between a Cisco switch and a corporate web server. The network administrator noticed that only one of the EtherChannel links is being utilized to reach the web server. What should be done on the Cisco switch to allow for better EtherChannel utilization to the corporate web server?
A. Enable Cisco Express Forwarding to allow for more effective traffic sharing over the EtherChannel bundle.
B. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on destination IP addresses.
C. Disable spanning tree on all interfaces that are participating in the EtherChannel bundle.
D. Use link-state tracking to allow for improved load balancing of traffic upon link failure to the server.
E. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on source IP addresses.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 11
A network engineer changed the port speed and duplex setting of an existing EtherChannel bundle that uses the PAgP protocol. Which statement describes what happens to all ports in the bundle?
A. PAgP changes the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle.
B. PAgP drops the ports that do not match the configuration.
C. PAgP does not change the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle until the switch is rebooted.
D. PAgP changes the port speed but notthe duplex for all ports in the bundle.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which two statements about SPAN source and destination ports during an active session are true? (Choose two.)
A. The source port can be only an Ethernet physical port.
B. The source port can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions.
C. Thedestination port can be destination in multiple SPAN sessions.
D. The destination port does not participate in STP.
E. You can mix individual source ports and source VLANs within a single session.
Correct Answer: BD

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Dynamics NAV 2018 ERP Suite With Dash of AI Released by Microsoft

Microsoft has created a variety of different certification systems. Each of these certifications targets a specific IT area of expertise. These certifications help build the IT professional’s proof of knowledge. Microsoft’s small and midsized business customers can now automate more business processes with the AI-enhanced release of Dynamics NAV 2018.

Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2018, an enterprise resource planning (ERP) software for small and medium businesses, is now generally available. James Phillips, corporate vice president for Microsoft Business Applications, announced on December 1 that the software giant has officially released a new version and improved interoperability with Office 365.

Breadth and depth are built on the company’s broad moat of economy. More than 1 billion people use Microsoft office software, and there is no similar program to approach the office’s throne. Its dominance is strong. “An interesting paradox about Microsoft is that you’re basically out of the office, and now they’ve got that you can not get out of it,” Carl Brooks of Services said. 451 Research Provider Analyst.
Microsoft
With the sustained competitive advantage conferred by Office, Microsoft had the flexibility and resources to grow and expand enterprise offerings with a foot already in the door of almost every computer user. Like the rest of Microsoft’s application and cloud service portfolio, Dynamics NAV 2018 is also gaining some new artificial intelligence (AI) capabilities that promise to help automate repetitive and tedious tasks.

Based on the AI features of 2017, the latest version of the software is based on “new off-the-shelf Microsoft Excel report templates (eg spreadsheets, cash flow statements and more), as well as more in-depth use of Phillips’ 12 A blog post on the 1st of January said: “All of this helps simplify business processes.

Microsoft Cognitive Services is a collection of AI-enabled APIs that developers can use to build intelligent applications that can pick out objects in photos, automatically transcribe audio and detect sentiment in video content, among other capabilities. “We’ve also added improvements to the Optical Character Recognition (OCR) capabilities with the Kofax Invoice Capture Service, for process improvement with digitized purchase invoices,” Phillips added.
Microsoft
As the market for AI-enabled commercial software heats up, the upgrade will also come.

In September, Salesforce announced several major enhancements to its Sales Cloud CRM offering, all powered by the company’s Einstein AI software. Among them is an automated forecasting tool that helps CFOs predict future sales with increased accuracy.

During its OpenWorld conference in October, Oracle announced new AI-enabled Adaptive Intelligent Apps for its cloud-based enterprise resource planning, human capital management (HCM), supply chain and customer relationship management (CRM) products.

According to Phillips, this time easier for getting started with dynamic navigation. The latest versions of ERP products include an automated setup guide that simplifies initial configuration and enables customers to integrate their products with Dynamics 365 for Sales (company sales process management and insights gathering application).
Microsoft
In addition to injecting AI into virtually any commercial software and cloud offering, Microsoft has been fanatically embedding analytics into its products. In Dynamics NAV 2018, this effort is reflected in the rebuilt charts and reports generated by the company’s Power BI cloud-based business intelligence and analytics software.

Finally, Dynamics NAV integrates with Microsoft Flow, Microsoft’s mission-automation application. Flow debuted in April 2016, allowing users to take a more hands-on approach to everyday tasks that require multiple applications to complete. Flow connects to other Microsoft services and many third-party software-as-a-service applications to automate tasks that would otherwise require users to handle a few or more applications.

For example, you can use Flow to automatically copy new Salesforce leads to your organization’s CRM system and other tasks that otherwise require users to copy and paste information from one application into another.

Reference: http://www.eweek.com/enterprise-apps/microsoft-releases-dynamics-nav-2018-erp-suite-with-dash-of-ai

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[2017 New Version] Shared New Cisco 210-250 Dumps PDF Training Resources And VCE Youtube Free Try

High quality Cisco CCNA Cyber Ops 210-250 dumps exam practice questions and answers free update. New Cisco CCNA Cyber Ops 210-250 dumps pdf materials and vce youtube demo update free shared. “Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals” is the name of Cisco CCNA Cyber Ops https://www.lead4pass.com/210-250.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Latest Cisco CCNA Cyber Ops 210-250 dumps exam training resources and study guides, pass Cisco 210-250 exam test easily at first try.

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Cyber Ops
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals
Exam Code: 210-250
Total Questions: 80 Q&As
210-250 dumps
QUESTION 1
How is traffic forwarded from the Cisco ASA to the FirePOWER services module for analysis?
A. The SFR is transparent and automatically sees all traffic.
B. A service policy redirects traffic from the Cisco ASA packet-processing path to the SFR
C. The SFR has a dedicated data interface
D. The SFR is a standalone appliance that is inserted inline in the data path
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which FirePOWER services capability supports seamless processing after an adaptive security appliance stateful failover event?
A. midsession pickup
B. TCP intercept
C. SFR stateful failover
D. FireSIGHT central policy distribution
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which three options are important when positioning a next-generation firewall solution? (Choose three.)
A. performance
B. resistance to evasion
C. current install base
D. interoperability
E. stability
F. nonproprietary
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 4
Which enhancement is added to URL filtering that is performed by the FirePOWER services module? 210-250 dumps
A. categories
B. reputation scores
C. regular expressions
D. IP address filters
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which action does Dynamic Content Analysis enable the Web Security Appliance to do?
A. Reclassify miscategorized sites.
B. Determine the most likely category of the website delivering content.
C. Block web content based on the Web Reputation of the serving site.
D. Choose the best AV engine to scan content.
E. Redirect the user to a site that the security administrator chooses.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
NGIPS rulesets are configured using which management application?
A. FireSIGHT Management Center
B. Cisco IDM
C. Cisco IME
D. Cisco ASDM
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Why does L4TM require T1 to be in promiscuous mode?
A. To transmit TCP reset packets
B. To process traffic that is not intended for its MAC address
C. To receive Ethernet broadcasts
D. To bind with other promiscuous mode ports
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
With which hardware option must Cisco ASA models below the 5585-X be sold to support FirePOWER services?
A. SSP module
B. FireSIGHT Management Center
C. SSD
D. FirePOWER services bundle
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
210-250 dumps Which application is required to support adding user information from Microsoft Active Directory to FirePOWER events?
A. Cisco ASA Identity Firewall
B. Microsoft Active Directory Agent
C. Cisco Directory Agent
D. Sourcefire User Agent
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
In the access log, what does an ACL tag beginning with BLOCK_ADMIN indicate?
A. The transaction was blocked because of application or object properties.
B. The malware category is set to blocking mode.
C. The transaction was manually blocked by the administrative user.
D. The destination was manually added to the block list.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which recommendation should be made to increase scalability, performance, and resiliency?
A. Create a Cisco ASA failover pair.
B. Upgrade the current Cisco ASA
C. Upgrade from the FirePOWER software module to the hardware module
D. Deploy Cisco ASA clustering.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
You are helping the customer configure authentication. A new AsyncOS upgrade becomes available; what should you do?
A. Avoid mentioning the upgrade to the customer.
B. Immediately show the customer how to run the CLI command upgrade.
C. Contact customer support and ask them to run the upgrade for you.
D. Schedule a convenient time to upgrade again, backing up the configuration before and after the upgrade.
Correct Answer: D

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[2017 New Version] Latest Lead4pass 210-260 Dumps Cisco Exam Materials And Youtube Shared

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Security
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Exam Code: 210-260
Total Questions: 310 Q&As
lead4pass 210-260 dumps
QUESTION 1
What is the best way to confirm that AAA authentication is working properly?
A. Use the test aaa command.
B. Ping the NAS to confirm connectivity.
C. Use the Cisco-recommended configuration for AAA authentication.
D. Log into and out of the router, and then check the NAS authentication log.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
When an administrator initiates a device wipe command from the ISE, what is the immediate effect?
A. It requests the administrator to choose between erasing all device data or only managed corporate data.
B. It requests the administrator to enter the device PIN or password before proceeding with the operation.
C. It notifies the device user and proceeds with the erase operation.
D. It immediately erases all data on the device.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
What is the FirePOWER impact flag used for?
A. A value that indicates the potential severity of an attack.
B. A value that the administrator assigns to each signature.
C. A value that sets the priority of a signature.
D. A value that measures the application awareness.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which statements about smart tunnels on a Cisco firewall are true? (Choose two.)
A. Smart tunnels can be used by clients that do not have administrator privileges
B. Smart tunnels support all operating systems
C. Smart tunnels offer better performance than port forwarding
D. Smart tunnels require the client to have the application installed locally
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
What is the purpose of the Integrity component of the CIA triad?
A. to ensure that only authorized parties can modify data
B. to determine whether data is relevant
C. to create a process for accessing data
D. to ensure that only authorized parties can view data
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What security feature allows a private IP address to access the Internet by translating it to a public address?
A. NAT
B. hairpinning
C. Trusted Network Detection
D. Certification Authority
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
lead4pass 210-260 dumps
You have configured R1 and R2 as shown, but the routers are unable to establish a site-to- site VPN tunnel. What action can you take to correct the problem?
A. Edit the crypto keys on R1 and R2 to match.
B. Edit the ISAKMP policy sequence numbers on R1 and R2 to match.
C. Set a valid value for the crypto key lifetime on each router.
D. Edit the crypto isakmp key command on each router with the address value of its own interface.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
What is a benefit of a web application firewall?
A. It blocks known vulnerabilities without patching applications.
B. It simplifies troubleshooting.
C. It accelerates web traffic.
D. It supports all networking protocols.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You have implemented a Sourcefire IPS and configured it to block certain addresses utilizing Security Intelligence IP Address Reputation. A user calls and is not able to access a certain IP address. What action can you take to allow the user access to the IP address?
A. Create a whitelist and add the appropriate IP address to allow the traffic.
B. Create a custom blacklist to allow the traffic.
C. Create a user based access control rule to allow the traffic.
D. Create a network based access control rule to allow the traffic.
E. Create a rule to bypass inspection to allow the traffic.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What are the three layers of a hierarchical network design? (Choose three.)
A. access
B. core
C. distribution
D. user
E. server
F. Internet
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 11
What are purposes of the Internet Key Exchange in an IPsec VPN? (Choose two.)
A. The Internet Key Exchange protocol establishes security associations
B. The Internet Key Exchange protocol provides data confidentiality
C. The Internet Key Exchange protocol provides replay detection
D. The Internet Key Exchange protocol is responsible for mutual authentication
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
What is an advantage of implementing a Trusted Platform Module for disk encryption?
A. It provides hardware authentication.
B. It allows the hard disk to be transferred to another device without requiring re- encryption.dis
C. It supports a more complex encryption algorithm than other disk-encryption technologies.
D. It can protect against single points of failure.
Correct Answer: A

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[2017 New Version] Best 200-105 Dumps Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 Materials And Youtube Demo

Latest updated Cisco ICND2 200-105 dumps exam download for Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2. “Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)” is the name of Cisco 200-105 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. High quality Cisco ICND2 https://www.lead4pass.com/200-105.html dumps pdf materials and dumps vce youtube update free demo. Get the best Cisco ICND2 200-105 dumps exam questions and answers free try, pass Cisco 200-105 exam test easily.

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND2
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-105
Total Questions: 204 Q&As
200-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which three challenges can the Cisco ACI integration of Layer 4 to Layer 7 services help a customer solve? (Choose three.)
A. Operational challenge of waiting on specialized administrators to configure individual devices
B. Limited device features
C. Chain of network services that includes multiple vendors
D. Costly and error-prone change control
E. Politics within an IT management organization
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 2
Which two functions are provided by the Cisco Application Policy Infrastructure Controller? (Choose two.)
A. Telemetry data for fabric operations
B. Policy repository
C. Distributed management plane
D. Control plane forwarding
E. Data plane forwarding
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
Your Certkiller trainee, Certkiller, asks you which of the following is a key objective of operations readiness assessment in the plan phase?
A. install and test system components in a nonproduction environment
B. assess the ability of site facilities to accommodate the proposed solution
C. assess the current state of operations and network management infrastructure, including people, processes, and tools, to identify issues and opportunities
D. assess existing network infrastructure and applications to verify its ability to support the proposed system
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
In the implement phase, solution implementation involves which of the following task? 200-105 dumps
A. perform preliminary Site Assessment
B. configure core products
C. execute test cases
D. analyze high-level design and technology requirements of the customer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which statement describes a bridge domain as it relates to the Cisco ACI?
A. Separates tenants
B. A separate routing instance
C. A container for IP subnets
D. A container for end points
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
200-105 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-105 dumps
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit
200-105 dumps
A packet with a source IP address of 192.168.2.4 and a destination IP address of 10.1.1.4 arrives at the AcmeB router. What action does the router take?
A. forwards the received packet out the Serial0/0 interface
B. forwards a packet containing an EIGRP advertisement out the Serial0/1 interface
C. forwards a packet containing an ICMP message out the FastEthemet0/0 interface
D. forwards a packet containing an ARP request out the FastEthemet0/1 interface
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
What is the function of the OpFlex protocol policy element?
A. Stores statistical information
B. Learns and knows every device in the network
C. Resolves policy and configures network hardware/software
D. Captures and stores the user intent in policy
E. Limits device features
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which action extends an EPG outside of the Cisco ACI fabric? 200-105 dumps
A. Enable a routing protocol on the border leaf.
B. Extend the bridge domain to an outside network.
C. Create a Layer 3 port.
D. Manually assign a port to a VLAN and map the VLAN to an EPG
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which three statements about a Cisco ACI Layer 3 connection to an external network are true? (Choose three.)
A. The Cisco ACI fabric is considered a transit network.
B. Routes learned from the outside are redistributed into ISIS.
C. Routes learned from the outside are redistributed into MP-BGP.
D. A leaf switch can peer with an external router.
E. A leaf switch cannot peer with an external router.
F. The Cisco ACI fabric is intended to be a stub network.
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 11
In which two ways can Layer 4 to Layer 7 services be integrated with Cisco ACI? (Choose two.)
A. A Layer 4 to Layer 7 appliance can program the Cisco APIC.
B. The Cisco APIC controls and automatically configures Layer 4 to Layer 7 services via device packages
C. Using traditional VLAN/VRF stitching.
D. The Cisco APIC does not integrate with third-party appliances.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 12
Which statement about when Cisco ACI is integrated with Microsoft Azure pack is true?
A. The application network profile is created in Windows Systems Center and pushed to the Cisco APIC.
B. The application profile is created in Windows Azure Pack Management Portal and pushed to the Cisco APIC.
C. The application network profile is created in the Cisco APIC and pushed to Windows Azure.
D. The application network profile is created in the Cisco APIC and pushed to Systems Center.
Correct Answer: B

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSE
Exam Name: Implementing an Advanced Server Infrastructure
Exam Code: 70-414
Total Questions: 243 Q&As
70-414 dumps
QUESTION 1
You need to recommend a solution for managing updates.The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. A System Center 2012 Configuration Manager management point in the main office and a WSUS downstream server in each office
B. A System Center 2012 Configuration Manager software update point in the main office and a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager distribution point in each office
C. A System Center 2012 Configuration Manager management point in the main office and a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager distribution point in each office
D. A WSUS upstream server in the main office and a WSUS downstream server in each office
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You need to recommend a solution that resolves the current file server issue. The solution must meet the business requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. BranchCache in hosted cache mode
B. BranchCache in distributed cache mode
C. A storage pool
D. Distributed File System (DFS)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You need to create a virtual machine template for the web servers used by the CRM application. 70-414 dumps The solution must meet the virtualization requirements.
What should you use?
A. An .iso image
B. A virtual machine
C. A Windows PowerShell script
D. A virtual hard disk (VHD)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
You need to ensure that Group1 can perform the required tasks. The solution must meet the visualization requirements.
What should you create?
A. A collection
B. A host group
C. An organizational unit (OU)
D. A site
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You need to recommend a solution that meets the technical requirements for DHCP.
What should you include in the recommendation for each office?
A. DHCP failover
B. Network Load Balancing (NLB)
C. DHCP server policies
D. IP Address Management (IPAM)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You need to create a service template for the web servers used by the CRM application.
What should you include in the service template?
A. A VIP template
B. A host profile
C. Guest OS profile
D. A capability profile
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You need to recommend a solution that manages the security events. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
Which configuration should you include in the recommendation?
A. Object access auditing by using a Group Policy object (GPO)
B. Event rules by using System Center 2012 Operations Manager
C. Event forwarding by using Event Viewer
D. Audit Collection Services (ACS) by using System Center 2012
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
You are planning the deployment of System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM). You need to identify which additional System Center 2012 product is required to meet the virtualization requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. App Controller
B. Operations Manager
C. Configuration Manager
D. Service Manager
Correct Answer: B
70-414 dumps
QUESTION 9
You need to recommend a solution for deploying the web servers for the CRM application. The solution must meet the visualization requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Network Load Balancing (NLB) without affinity
B. Failover Clustering with one active node
C. Failover Clustering with two active nodes
D. Network Load Balancing (NLB) with client affinity
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
You are planning the delegation for the virtualization environment. 70-414 dumps The delegation must meet the visualization requirements.
Which user role profile should you select for Group2?
A. Administrators
B. Read-Only Administrator
C. Self-Service User
D. Delegated Administrator
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You need to recommend a solution for updating the virtualization hosts. The solution must meet the visualization requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Cluster-Aware Updating
B. WSUS
C. System Center Updates Publisher 2011
D. System Center 2012 Configuration Manager
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
You need to recommend an automated remediation solution for the ReliableTimeSource registry value.
The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. A System Center 2102 Configuration Manager configuration baseline.
B. A System Center 2012 Operations Manager performance counter rule.
C. A System Center 2012 Configuration Manager maintenance task.
D. A System Center 2012 Operations Manager event rule.
Correct Answer: A

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