Latest Juniper JN0-643 Dumps Exam Free Update With High Pass Rate

New question on multicast similar to the all PIM routers but the answers did contain subnet masks and different answers. Otherwise very good dump with almost 100% correct answers, much better than any other https://www.lead4pass.com/jn0-643.html dumps Please be careful that there are some questions changed. You need to read them carefully.

QUESTION 1
Referring to the JN0-643 dumps exhibit, which three actions would summarize these routes to a BGP peer? (Choose three.)
A. Create a policy that accepts the more specific contributing routes.
B. Create a route to 10.200.16.0/21 with a next hop of 172.16.36.1 under the [edit routing- options static] hierarchy.
C. Create a policy that rejects the more specific contributing routes.
D. Create a policy to accept aggregate routes.
E. Create a 10.200.16.0/22 route under the [edit routing-options aggregate] hierarchy.
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 2
jn0-643
Click the Exhibit button.
AS4 is using the JN0-643 exam default path to get to AS1. This path is not modified by any of the ASs shown in the exhibit. AS1 wants to influence this path so that traffic from AS4 comes through AS3.
Where do you apply the policy shown in the exhibit?
A. AS1
B. AS2
C. AS3
D. AS4
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Your company asks you to configure multicast routing on a Junos device. They tell you that the router at IP address 192.168.1.4 is the root of the shared multicast delivery tree.
Which command allows you to configure the Junos device as a non-RP router for PIM?
A. set protocols pim rp local family inet disable
B. set protocols pim rp local address 192.168.1.4
C. set protocols pim rp static address 192.168.1.4
D. set protocols pim rp auto-rp announce
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
jn0-643
Click the Exhibit button.
You are the administrator for the network shown in the exhibit. R1 receives the 196.15.4.0/24 route from routers R2, R3, and R4. Local preference values have not been modified in this network. You are asked to ensure that R1 prefers the path through AS 3149 for traffic destined to 196.15.4.0/24.
Which two methods will accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. Configure a lower local preference on R3.
B. Configure as-path-prepend on R2 and R4.
C. Configure local-as on R3.
D. Configure always-compare-med on R1.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
Referring to the output shown in the JN0-643 vce exhibit, which three statements are true about the PIM implementation on R1? (Choose three.)
A. R1 is receiving multicast traffic over the RPT.
B. R1 is receiving multicast traffic over the SPT.
C. Interface ge-0/0/10 provides the shortest path to the source.
D. The multicast stream flows from 10.100.10.10 to 172.18.57.5.
E. Interface ge-0/0/6 provides the shortest path to the source.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 6
jn0-643
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, the JN0-643 pdf RPT from R3 towards R2 is established.
What happens if the multicast source connected to R1 starts sending multicast traffic towards R1?
A. R1 encapsulates the multicast packets into a PIM register multicast packet.
B. R1 encapsulates the multicast packets into PIM join unicast messages.
C. R1 forwards the multicast packets on the (S,G) tree towards the RP.
D. R1 tunnels the multicast packets in PIM register messages towards the RP.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two statements are true about MSDP mesh groups? (Choose two.)
A. The MSDP mesh group was originally designed to limit SA flooding.
B. SA messages received from a mesh group member flood these messages to all peers that are not members of this mesh group.
C. SA messages received from a peer not in any mesh group do not flood to all peers.
D. SA messages received from a peer not in any mesh group perform a peer-RPF check and, if successful, flood to all peers (except the advertising router).
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
Which multicast group is used for all PIM routers?
A. 224.0.0.22
B. 224.0.0.13
C. 224.0.0.1
D. 224.0.0.2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
When enabling MVRP for dynamic VLAN registration JN0-643, which three timers would be configured on an interface? (Choose three.)
A. hello-interval
B. join-timer
C. leave-timer
D. max-age
E. leaveall-timer
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 10
Which two statements are correct about L2PT? (Choose two.)
A. L2PT requires 802.1Q tunneling enablement to effectively tunnel L2 protocols.
B. 802.1Q tunnels all L2 protocols by default.
C. L2PT encapsulates L2 PDUs by enabling the ingress switch to rewrite the PDUs’ source MAC addresses before forwarding them onto the service provider network.
D. You cannot enable L2PT and VLAN translation on the same VLAN.
Correct Answer: AD

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2017 Latest Oracle 1Z0-052 Dumps Exams Practice Questions And Youtube

Vendor: Oracle
Exam Code: 1Z0-052 dumps
Exam Name: Oracle Database 11g: Administrator I
Version: Demo

Question No : 1
You notice that the performance of the database has degraded because of frequent checkpoints.
Which two actions resolve the issue? (Choose two.)
A. Disable automatic checkpoint tuning
B. Check the size of the redo log file size and increase the size if it is small
C. Set the FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET parameter as per the advice given by the MTTR Advisor
D. Decrease the number of redo log members if there are more than one redo log members available in each redo log group
Answer: B,C

1z0-052

Question No : 2
Identify the memory component from which memory may be 1z0-052 allocated for: Session memory for the shared serverBuffers for I/O slavesOracle Database Recovery Manager (RMAN) backup and restore operations
A. Large Pool
B. Redo Log Buffer
C. Database Buffer Cache
D. Program Global Area (PGA)
Answer: A

Question No : 3
You executed the following command to 1z0-052 pdf create a tablespace called SALES_DATA:
SQL> CREATE TABLESPACE sales_data
DATAFILE SIZE 100M
SEGMENT SPACE MANAGEMENT AUTO;
Which two statements are true about the SALES_DATA tablespace? (Choose two)
A. The database automatically determines the extent-sizing policy for the tablespace.
B. The segments are automatically shrunk when the contents are removed from them.
C. The allocation of extents within the tablespace is managed through the dictionary tables.
D. The space utilization description of the data blocks in segments is recorded in bitmap blocks.
E. The space utilization description of the data blocks in segments is managed through free lists.
Answer: A,D

Question No : 4
In which of the scenario 1z0-052 will the DBA perform recovery? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The alert log file is corrupted
B. A tablespace is accidentally dropped
C. One of the redo log members is corrupted
D. A database user terminates the session abnormally
E. The hard disk on which the data files is stored is corrupted
Answer: B,E

Question No : 5
You want to enable archiving on your database. Presently, the database is running in NOARCHIVELOG mode.
Given below are the steps to accomplish the task in random order:
1. Shut down the instance.
2. Execute the ALTER DATABASE ARCHIVELOG command.
3. Start up the instance and mount the database.
4. Set the DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST initialization parameter to $ORACLE_HOME/dest_1.
5. Open the database.
Which is the correct sequence of steps for accomplishing the task?
A. 4, 1, 3, 2, 5
B. 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
C. 1, 3, 2, 5; 4 not required
D. 4, 1, 5, 2; 3 not required
E. 1, 3, 4, 5; 2 not required
Answer: C

Question No : 6
In your database instance, the 1z0-052 vce STATISTICS_LEVEL initialization parameter is set to BASIC.
What is the impact of this setting?
A. Optimizer statistics are collected automatically.
B. Only timed operating system (OS) statistics and plan execution statistics are collected.
C. The snapshots for the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) are not generated automatically.
D. Snapshots cannot be collected manually by using the DBMS_WORKLOAD_REPOSITORY package.
E. The Oracle server dynamically generates the necessary statistics on tables as part of query optimization.
Answer: C

Question No : 7
You have recently collected statistics on certain objects of 1z0-052 a schema in your database. But you observe suboptimal execution plans for the queries on these objects after two days of statistics collection. The optimizer statistics retention period is set to its default value.
Which action would help to use the previous set of statistics on the objects?
A. Restore statistics from statistics history.
B. Reduce the optimizer statistics retention period by 2 days.
C. Set the OPTIMIZER_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to TRUE.
D. Reduce the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) retention period by 2 days.
Answer: A

Question No : 8
Which three statements 1z0-052 regarding the server parameter file (SPFILE) are true? (Choose three.)
A. An SPFILE is a binary file
B. An SPFILE cannot reside on a client
C. An SPFILE cannot contain static parameters
D. An SPFILE can store changes persistently across instance restarts
E. An SPFILE can be read by the database server, but it is not written to by the server
F. An SPFILE must be created manually, before creating a database, even if you use the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) to create the database
Answer: A,B,D

Question No : 9
Your test database is configured to run in NOARCHIVELOG mode. One of the 1z0-052 exam data files in the USERS tablespace is lost due to a media failure. You notice that all the online redo logs have been overwritten since the last backup.
What would you do to recover the data file?
A. Take the USERS tablespace offline and re-create the lost data file
B. Shutdown the instance, restore the data file from the last consistent backup and restart the database instance
C. Shutdown the instance, restores all the database files from the last consistent backup and restart the database instance
D. Take the USERS tablespace offline, restore all the data files of the USERS tablespace from the last consistent backup and make the tablespace online
Answer: C

Question No : 10
The instance abnormally terminates 1z0-052 because of a power outage.
Which statement is true about redo log files during instance recovery?
A. Inactive and current redo log files are required to accomplish recovery
B. Online and archived redo files are required to accomplish instance recovery
C. All redo log entries after the last checkpoint are applied from redo log files to data files
D. All redo log entries recorded in the current log file until the checkpoint position are applied to data files
Answer: C

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Latest Microsoft Certification MB2-708 PDF Exam Practice Free Try – Youtube

Vendor: Microsoft
Exam Code: MB2-708
Exam Name: Microsoft Dynamics CRM Installation
Version: Demo

I passed CCDP with 986/1000. I only see DIANE dump for exam. 100% still valid. Two new Microsoft https://www.lead4pass.com/MB2-708.html exam questions. That questions you can find forum. Passed the exam 933/1000. today all the question from this dump,i got 3 sem problems 2 were from this dump and one from OSPF with 6 routers connected with WAN and ethernet .i did not get any question from ipv6,RIPv1 ,RIPv2.

MB2-708

QUESTION 1
You are deploying Dynamics CRM 2015. You configure the following settings:
Server Profile
Incoming Email
Outgoing Email
Users will not use Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook.
You need to identify a method to MB2-708 exam implement synchronization for appointments, contacts, and tasks.
What should you use?
A. Forward Mailbox
B. Smart Matching
C. Server-Side Synchronization
D. Email Router
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You recently upgraded a deployment of Dynamics CRM to Dynamics CRM 2015. All client computers have the following configurations:
Windows 7
Internet Explorer 10
Microsoft Outlook 2007
Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5.1
Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013 for Outlook
You need to upgrade all of the Microsoft MB2-708 Dynamics CRM for Outlook installations to Dynamics CRM 2015.
What should you upgrade before you install Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook?
A. Windows 7
B. Outlook 2007
C. Internet Explorer 10
D. .NET Framework 3.5.1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that has 50 users.
A user named User1 has Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook installed.
User1 plans to manage another Dynamics CRM 2015 organization from Microsoft MB2-708 Outlook.
You need to add the second organization to Outlook.
What should you do?
A. Run the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook Configuration Wizard.
B. Add a Connected Service to the Office Account of User1.
C. Modify the URL of the Discovery Web Service server role.
D. Reinstall Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You plan to deploy Dynamics CRM 2015 for a customer.
The customer requires that the Email Router component be used.
You need to identify to the MB2-708 customer which email solutions are supported by the Email Router.
Which three email solutions should you identity? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
B. Exchange ActiveSync
C. A Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) server for outgoing email
D. Microsoft Exchange Online
E. A Post Office Protocol 3 (POP3) server for incoming email
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 5
You are using the Dynamics CRM 2013 Email Router to transfer email to a Dynamics CRM 2015 server.
Users report that email is tracked, but tasks, appointments, and contacts are not tracked.
You need to ensure that the MB2-708 vce tasks, appointments, and contacts are tracked.
What should you do?
A. Modify the file system permissions for the users.
B. Deploy Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook.
C. Upgrade the Email Router.
D. Modify the configuration of the Email Router.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that contains one organization. You need to create a copy of the organization within the same deployment. What should you do first?
A. Disable the organization.
B. Back up the organization database.
C. Restore the organization database.
D. Disable the server.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which statement correctly describes the Microsoft Dynamics CRM for MB2-708 Outlook client application?
A. The Dynamics CRM 2013 French language pack can be upgraded to the Dynamics CRM 2015 English language pack.
B. Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook can be used in online mode when connected to Dynamics CRM 2011.
C. Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook can be used in offline mode or online mode when connected to Dynamics CRM 2013.
D. Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013 for Outlook can be used in online mode when connected to Dynamics CRM 2015.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You install Microsoft MB2-708 Dynamics CRM for Outlook on 50 client computers.
You need to configure Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook to use the URL for the Discovery Web Service.
What should you do?
A. Run setupclient.exe and specify the /A parameter.
B. Run microsoft.crm.application.outlook-configwizard.exe and specify the/xo parameter.
C. Run microsoftcrm.application.outlook-configwizard.exe and specify the/i parameter.
D. Run setupclient.exe and specify /targetdir parameter.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015.
A manager at your company uses Microsoft MB2-708 dumps Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook.
The manager stores a large amount of offline data, but the new data is NOT available offline. You need to ensure that the new data added to Dynamics CRM 2015 is available to the manager offline.
What should you do?
A. Upgrade to Microsoft SQL Server Express 2014.
B. Defragment the hard disk drive of the manager’s computer.
C. Modify the Offline Synchronization Filters for Outlook.
D. Modify the Outlook Synchronization Filters.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You need to create a relationship between email and records by using information that is stored in the email message header, such as the MB2-708 sender and the recipient.
What should you use?
A. The tracking token
B. The Email Router
C. Server-side synchronization
D. Smart matching
Correct Answer: A

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PMI

2017 Latest PMI-001 PDF PMI Certification Online Free Download

QUESTION 1
Assumptions are factors that, for PMI pmi-001 pdf planning purposes, are considered to be ______.
A. True, real, or certain
B. True, real, or uncertain
C. Real
D. Verbal
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
PMBOK describes assumptions as “factors that, for planning purposes, are considered to be true, real, or certain.”

pmi-001

QUESTION 2
Which one of the following comes first in the pmi-001 project plan?
A. Scope Statement
B. Quality Plan
C. WBS
D. Development Plan
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Scope statement comes first in the project plan. Scope statement is the pmi-001 exam written statement of project. It contains: Project objectives, Project justification, Project deliverables.

QUESTION 3
You are project manager of a project. During the process of selecting the sellers, you reject one vendor because it doesn’t have the pmi-001 manufacturing capability. This is an example of which selection tool?
A. Weighting system
B. Screening system
C. Seller rating system
D. Expert judgment
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
A screening system rejects sellers that does not meet minimum requirements for the project.

QUESTION 4
______________ provides details about how the pmi-001 project scope may be changed.
A. Control Scope system
B. VeiirV Scope
C. Scope Charter
D. Scope Management plan
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation:
The scope management plan provides details about how the project scope may be changed.

QUESTION 5
Which of the following technique to identify the underlying cause of a problem and take steps to prevent further occurrence?
A. Root cause analysis
B. Quality audits
C. Project audits
D. Risk audits
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Root cause analysis: A technique to identify the pmi-001 underlying cause of a problem and take steps to prevent further occurrence.

QUESTION 6
Which of the following provides the least accurate in estimating?
A. Rough order of magnitude
B. Budget estimate
C. WBS estimate
D. Definitive estimate
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The rough order of magnitude is the pmi-001 dumps least accurate approach, as it may vary from -25 percent to +75 percent.

QUESTION 7
Who has the responsibility for informing the final deliverable to all stakeholders?
A. Project Manager
B. Sponsor
C. Team Lead
D. Management
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Project Manager has the responsibility for informing the final deliverable to all stakeholders.

QUESTION 8
What is a corrective action?
A. An action that brings future pmi-001 project events Into alignment with the project plan
B. An action to correct something in the project
C. An action to prevent something in the project
D. Corrective action is not related to project
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Corrective action: An action that brings future project events into alignment with the project plan.

QUESTION 9
A contract cannot contain _____________.
A. Illegal activities
B. deadline for the completion of the work
C. Penalties and fines for disclosure of intellectual rights
D. Al1 of the above
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
A contract cannot contain illegal activities. A pmi-001 vce contract can contain other options available.

QUESTION 10
A complete set of indexed pmi-001 project records is called __________.
A. Project archives
B. Index
C. sow
D. Project History
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
A complete set of indexed project records for archiving by the appropriate parties.

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Latest CompTIA SY0-401 Exam Practice Questions And Answers Free Download

Vendor: CompTIA
Exam Code: SY0-401 exam
Exam Name: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam
Version: Demo

sy0-401

QUESTION 1
A security administrator is notified that users attached to a particular switch are having intermittent connectivity issues. Upon further research, the administrator finds evidence of an ARP spoofing attack. Which of the following could be SY0-401 utilized to provide protection from this type of attack?
A. Configure MAC filtering on the switch.
B. Configure loop protection on the switch.
C. Configure flood guards on the switch.
D. Configure 802.1x authentication on the switch.
Correct Answer: C Explanation

QUESTION 2
Ann is a member of the SY0-401 vce Sales group. She needs to collaborate with Joe, a member of the IT group, to edit a file. Currently, the file has the following permissions: Ann: read/write
Sales Group: read
IT Group: no access
If a discretionary access control list is in place for the files owned by Ann, which of the following would be the BEST way to share the file with Joe?
A. Add Joe to the Sales group.
B. Have the system administrator give Joe full access to the file.
C. Give Joe the appropriate access to the file directly.
D. Remove Joe from the IT group and add him to the Sales group.
Correct Answer: C Explanation

QUESTION 3
A company would like to take electronic orders from a partner; however, they are concerned that a non-authorized person may send an order. The legal department asks if there is a solution that SY0-401 provides non-repudiation. Which of the following would meet the requirements of this scenario?
A. Encryption
B. Digital signatures
C. Steganography
D. Hashing
E. Perfect forward secrecy
Correct Answer: B Explanation

QUESTION 4
The Chief Security Officer (CSO) is contacted by a first responder. The SY0-401 pdf CSO assigns a handler. Which of the following is occurring?
A. Unannounced audit response
B. Incident response process
C. Business continuity planning
D. Unified threat management
E. Disaster recovery process
Correct Answer: B Explanation

QUESTION 5
An organization must implement controls to protect the confidentiality of its most sensitive data. The company is currently using a central storage system and group based access control for its sensitive information. Which of the following controls can further secure the data in the central storage system?
A. Data encryption
B. Patching the system
C. Digital signatures
D. File hashing
Correct Answer: A Explanation

QUESTION 6
A network administrator, Joe, arrives at SY0-401 his new job to find that none of the users have changed their network passwords since they were initially hired. Joe wants to have everyone change their passwords immediately. Which of the following policies should be enforced to initiate a password change?
A. Password expiration
B. Password reuse
C. Password recovery
D. Password disablement
Correct Answer: A Explanation

QUESTION 7
Ann, a security administrator at a call center, has been experiencing problems with users intentionally installing unapproved and occasionally malicious software on their computers. Due to the SY0-401 dumps nature of their jobs, Ann cannot change their permissions. Which of the following would BEST alleviate her concerns?
A. Deploy a HIDS suite on the users’ computers to prevent application installation.
B. Maintain the baseline posture at the highest OS patch level.
C. Enable the pop-up blockers on the users’ browsers to prevent malware.
D. Create an approved application list and block anything not on it.
Correct Answer: D Explanation

QUESTION 8
Which of the SY0-401 following should be used to authenticate and log connections from wireless users connecting with EAP-TLS?
A. Kerberos
B. LDAP
C. SAML
D. RADIUS
Correct Answer: D Explanation

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Download Free Cisco 200-125 Exam PDF Practice Questions And Answers

Download Free Cisco https://www.lead4pass.com/200-125.html  Exam PDF Practice Questions And Answers

QUESTION 1
A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?
A. application
B. presentation
C. session
D. transport
E. internet
F. data link
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation:
FTP belongs to Application layer and it is also the highest layer of the OSI model.

200-125

QUESTION 2
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier 200-125 exam sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation:
Modern Ethernet networks built with switches and full-duplex connections no longer utilize CSMA/CD. CSMA/CD is only used in obsolete shared media Ethernet (which uses repeater or hub).

QUESTION 3
A receiving host computes the 200-125 checksum on a frame and determines that the frame is damaged. The frame is then discarded. At which OSI layer did this happen?
A. session
B. transport
C. network
D. data link
E. physical
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation:
The Data Link layer provides the physical transmission of the data and handles error notification, network topology, and flow control. The Data Link layer formats the message into pieces, each called a data frame, and adds a 200-125 vce customized header containing the hardware destination and source address. Protocols Data Unit (PDU) on Datalink layer is called frame. According to this question the frame is damaged and discarded which will happen at the Data Link layer.

QUESTION 4
Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data 200-125 encapsulation process? (Choose two.)
A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.
B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.
C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses and protocol-related control information.
D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.
E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.
Correct Answer: AC Explanation

Explanation:
The Application Layer (Layer 7) refers to communications services to applications and is the interface between the network and the application. Examples include. Telnet, HTTP, FTP, Internet browsers, NFS, SMTP gateways, SNMP, X.400 mail, and FTAM.
The Presentation 200-125 dumps Layer (Layer 6) defining data formats, such as ASCII text, EBCDIC text, binary, BCD, and JPEG. Encryption also is defined as a presentation layer service. Examples include. JPEG, ASCII, EBCDIC, TIFF, GIF, PICT, encryption, MPEG, and MIDI.
The Session Layer (Layer 5) defines how to start, control, and end communication sessions. This includes the control and management of multiple bidirectional messages so that the application can be notified if only some of a series of messages are completed. This allows the presentation layer to have a seamless view of an incoming stream of data. The presentation layer can be presented with data if all flows occur in some cases. Examples include. RPC, SQL, NFS, NetBios names, AppleTalk ASP, and DECnet SCP.

The Transport Layer (Layer 4) defines several functions, including the choice of protocols. The most important Layer 4 functions are error recovery and flow control. The 200-125 transport layer may provide for retransmission, i.e., error recovery, and may use flow control to prevent unnecessary congestion by attempting to send data at a rate that the network can accommodate, or it might not, depending on the choice of protocols. Multiplexing of incoming data for different flows to applications on the same host is also performed. Reordering of the incoming data stream when packets arrive out of order is included. Examples include. TCP, UDP, and SPX.

The Network Layer (Layer 3) defines end-to-end delivery of packets and defines logical addressing to accomplish this. It also defines how routing works and how routes are learned; and how to fragment a packet into smaller packets to 200-125 accommodate media with smaller maximum transmission unit sizes. Examples include. IP, IPX, AppleTalk DDP, and ICMP. Both IP and IPX define logical addressing, routing, the learning of routing information, and end-to-end delivery rules. The IP and IPX protocols most closely match the OSI network layer (Layer 3) and are called Layer 3 protocols because their functions most closely match OSI’s Layer 3.
The Data Link Layer (Layer 2) is concerned with getting data across one particular link or medium. The data link protocols define delivery across an individual link. These protocols 200-125 pdf are necessarily concerned with the type of media in use. Examples includE. IEEE 802.3/802.2, HDLC, Frame Relay, PPP, FDDI, ATM, and IEEE 802.5/802.2.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/200-125-ccna.html

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2017 Latest LPi 117-101 Exam Test Practise Questions And Answers

It is a best choice to accelerate your career as a professional in the Information Technology industry. We are proud of our reputation of helping people clear the Lpi 117-101 exam Level 1 Exam 101(with rpm) LPIC-1 test in their very first attempts. Our success rates in the past two years have been absolutely impressive, thanks to our happy customers who are now able to propel their careers in the fast lane. Fly LPi 117-101 dumps is the number one choice among IT professionals, especially the ones who are looking to climb up the hierarchy levels faster in their respective organizations.

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QUESTION 1
On a default Linux system, what file system type 117-101 vce does the dump command act upon?
A. Ext2
B. UFS
C. JFS
D. XFS
E. ReiserFS
Correct Answer: A Explanation

QUESTION 2
Your machine has two 117-101 working NIC’s with proper addresses. You want to split your network into two new subnets. What single command will accomplish this?
A. ifconfig
B. route
C. default
D. netstat
E. None of the choices
Correct Answer: A Explanation

QUESTION 3
Which file system should 117-101 pdf never be backed up, and therefore never have to be restored?
A. ufs
B. usr
C. tmp
D. home
E. swap
Correct Answer: E Explanation

QUESTION 4
Which directory tree is ordinarily the least likely to be backup or restore?
A. /tmp
B. /var
C. /proc
D. /usr
E. /usr
Correct Answer: C Explanation

QUESTION 5
What command will verify the 117-101 syntax of a hosts.allow and hosts.deny file combination?
A. tcpdchk
B. verify –tcp
C. ipswitch
D. tcpdump
E. tcpdmatch
Correct Answer: A Explanation

QUESTION 6
How can you enable onscreen (non-printing) numbers in a vi session?
A. :set num
B. :se nu
C. :set -o number
D. :set +o num
E. None of the choices
Correct Answer: B Explanation

Kevin Durant had 26 points, nine rebounds and seven assists, and Golden State turned an ugly start into an easy finish in a 117-101 victory over the Brooklyn Nets on Thursday night. Each objective is assigned a weighting value. The weights indicate the relative importance of each objective on the exam. Objectives 117-101 with higher weights will be covered in the exam with more questions.

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Reference: https://www.lpi.org/our-certifications/exam-101-objectives

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300-208 Exam Test Practise Questions And Answers Free Download

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300-208

QUESTION 1
Wireless client supplicants attempting to authenticate to a wireless network 300-208 pdf are generating excessive log messages. Which three WLC authentication settings should be disabled? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS Server Timeout
B. RADIUS Aggressive-Failover
C. Idle Timer
D. Session Timeout
E. Client Exclusion
F. Roaming
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 2
Which two authentication 300-208 stores are supported to design a wireless network using PEAP EAP- MSCHAPv2 as the authentication method? (Choose two.)
A. Microsoft Active Directory
B. ACS
C. LDAP
D. RSA Secure-ID
E. Certificate Server
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 33
What is another 300-208 term for 802.11i wireless network security?
A. 802.1x
B. WEP
C. TKIP
D. WPA
E. WPA2
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 34
Which two EAP types require server side certificates? (Choose two.)
A. EAP-TLS
B. PEAP
C. EAP-MD5
D. LEAP
E. EAP-FAST
F. MSCHAPv2
Correct Answer: AB

The Implementing Cisco Secure Access Solutions (300-208) exam tests whether a network security engineer knows the components and architecture of secure access by utilizing 802.1X and Cisco 300-208 dumps TrustSec. This 90-minute exam consists of 300-208 questions. It tests on Cisco Identity Services Engine architecture, solution, and components as an overall network threat mitigation and endpoint control solutions.  It also includes the fundamental concepts of bring your own device using posture and profiling services of ISE. Candidates can 300-208 prepare for this exam by taking the Implementing Cisco Secure Access Solutions course.

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Cisco 700-505 Real Exam Questions Help you Pass Cisco 700-505 Test

Apple launched its largest ever tablet in September 2015. The came https://www.lead4pass.com/700-505.html with a huge 12.9-inch screen, supported the Apple Pencil stylus and packed a powerful processor – it was a big change to the iPad game. We were big fans, giving it 4.5-stars in our full Tech Radar review, praising the slate for its impressive front-facing speakers and great display among other things.

The display size is currently a little up in the 700-505 dumps air, with both 10.9-inches and 10.5-inches having been reported. Either would represent a new size for iPad and either would bridge the gap between the huge 12.9-inch model and the regular 9.7-inch.

700-505

Then there was the replacement which came with a smaller screen, new 700-505 True Tone technology and all of the features we’d already seen on the original iPad Pro.

The iPad Pro 2 launch is an exciting prospect – but we may have 700-505 to wait a bit longer. Apple made a splash in September 2015 when it unveiled its first giant tablet: a device known at the time only as the iPad Pro and rocking a blockbuster 12.9-inch screen, quad speakers and a super-quick processor chip.

The following March a smaller and frankly better 9.7-inch version of the iPad Pro came out, creating mild naming complications (we now call them the iPad Pro 12.9 and iPad Pro 9.7 respectively) and 700-505 pdf kindling a degree of regret in the hearts of early adopters.

But we are now looking ahead to the future of the iPad Pro line. When will Apple release the new iPad Pro 2 for 2017, and what new features and design changes will this product incorporate? Will there be separate 9.7-inch and 12.9-inch editions of the iPad Pro 2 – will there even be a 7.9-inch model, a sort of iPad Pro mini, or a new 10.5-inch iPad Pro 2?

Another rumour about the Pad Pro 2 says Apple is working on adding better support into iOS for the Apple Pencil, the optional stylus which works with only select apps on the iPad Pro models. Apple 700-505 vce might add the enhanced support when it launches the new iPads in 2017 as an update to iOS 10. However, it may wait and introduce them in iOS 11.

The improvements are unclear, but it could be possible to use the Pencil to annotate in many more stock apps including Mail, Messages, Safari and others. The Pencil should work with the upcoming 10.5in iPad Pro and this would leave only the iPad mini with no stylus support.

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Hot Cisco 210-065 Practice Test, Cisco 210-065 exam questions and answers

In October, after more than 500 days without an update, Apple unveiled the new MacBook Pro with a slimmer design and louder speakers. The laptop garnered mostly favorable 210-065 dumps reviews from the technology press but grumbles from creative types, a key constituency, who said the device under-performed rival products.

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Interviews with people familiar with Apple’s inner workings reveal that the Mac is getting far less attention than it once did. They say the Mac team has lost clout with the famed industrial design group led by Jony Ive 210-065 pdf and the company’s software team. They also describe a lack of clear direction from senior management, departures of key people working on Mac hardware and technical challenges that have delayed the roll-out of new computers.

In the run-up to the MacBook Pro’s planned debut this year, the new battery failed a key test, according to a person familiar with the situation. Rather than delay the launch and risk missing the crucial holiday shopping season, Apple decided to revert to an older design. The change required roping in engineers from other teams to finish the job, meaning work on other Macs languished, the 210-065 dumps person said. The new laptop didn’t represent a game-changing leap in battery performance, and a software bug misrepresented hours of power remaining. Apple has since removed the meter from the top right-hand corner of the screen.

In the Mac’s heyday, people working on new models could expect a lot of attention from Ive’s team. Once a week his people would meet with Mac engineers to 210-065 vce discuss ongoing projects. Mac engineers brought prototypes to Ive’s studio for review, while his lieutenants would visit the Mac labs to look at early concepts. Those visits have become less frequent since the company began focusing more on more-valuable products like the iPhone and iPad, and the change became even more obvious after the design team’s leadership was shuffled last year, according to a person familiar with the situation.

One of the people who helps build these meticulous lists is Tonymacx86, whose website consistently draws several hundred thousand active members and as many as 10 million page views per month (and potentially more around the 210-065 time of Apple events or MacOS updates).

Though a trusted guide to many, Tonymacx86 prefers to stay anonymous to avoid overzealous fans and detractors alike.

It used to be a lot harder to build a Hackintosh, but thanks to special software made by https://www.lead4pass.com/210-065.html the community, even moderately computer-savvy people can do it.

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