[2017 New Version] Download Free Latest Cisco 200-125 Dumps PDF Practice Questions And Youtube (Q11-20)

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Question 11
You are in interface configuration mode of a Cisco router, and you want to assign an IP address of 172.16.1.1 /24 to the interfacE. 200-125 pdf Which of the following is the command you should enter?
A. Router1(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 /24
B. Router1(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 0.0.0.255
C. Router1(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.0
D. Router1(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 classful
Answer: C

Question 12
A Layer 2 Ethernet switch with 12 ports, where all ports belong to the same VLAN, has how many collision domains and how many broadcast domains?
A. 12 collision domains and 12 broadcast domains
B. 1 collision domain and 1 broadcast domain
C. 12 collision domains and 1 broadcast domain
D. 1 collision domain and 12 broadcast domains
Answer: C

Question 13
In the diagram below, Client A is sending a packet to Host 1. As the frame is coming into the Fa 0/0 interface on router R2, what is the destination MAC address in the frame’s header?  200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
A. Host 1’s MAC address
B. Client A’s MAC address
C. Router R1’s Fa 0/0 MAC address
D. Router R2’s Fa 0/0 MAC address
E. Router R2’s Fa 0/1 MAC address
Answer: D

Question 14
A traditional Ethernet switch operates at which layer of the OSI Model?
A. Transport
B. Data Link
C. Network
D. Physical
E. Session
Answer: B

Question 15
Which three of the following are components of a network secured using IEEE 802.1x? (Choose 3.)
A. Encryption Server
B. Supplicant
C. Authorization Server
D. Key Manager
E. Authenticator
F. Authentication Server
Answer: BEF

Question 16
What protocol allows multiple hosts to dynamically obtain IP addresses from a server?200-125 dumps
A. DNS
B. DHCP
C. WINS
D. ARP
E. ICMP
Answer: B

Question 17
You are connected to the console line of RouterA. From there, you connect to RouterB via Telnet. Without terminating the Telnet session, what key sequence could you enter to return to the RouterA prompt?
A. <CTRL-SHIFT-6> x
B. <CTRL-Break>
C. <CTRL-ALT-DELETE>
D. <CTRL-ALT-x>
Answer: A

Question 18
Which of the follow protocols is used to determine the MAC address for a known IP address? 200-125 pdf
A. DNS
B. DHCP
C. WINS
D. ARP
E. ICMP
Answer: D

Question 19
RIPv2 advertisements are sent to what multicast IP address?
A. 224.0.0.5
B. 224.0.0.6
C. 224.0.0.9
D. 224.0.0.10
Answer: C

Question 20
What file transfer protocol uses a connectionless Layer 4 transport protocol and does not required user authentication?200-125 dumps
A. TFTP
B. SFTP
C. FTP
D. SSH
E. Telnet
Answer: A

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[2017 New Version] High Quality Latest Cisco 810-403 Dumps PDF Questions And Youtube Free Download

Latest Cisco 810-403 dumps exam questions and answers online free download, the best and most updated Cisco Business Value Specialist 810-403 dumps pdf training materials and study guide free try. http://www.gotocert.com/810-403.html dumps pdf practice files. Cisco Business Value Specialist 810-403 dumps exam is the industry leader in information technology, pass 810-403 exam test easily at first attempt.

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QUESTION 1
CSFs define what an organization should be good at. Which two options are characteristics of CSFs? (Choose two.)
A. CSFs are quantitative in nature and focus stakeholder relationships
B. CSFs describe an element that is needed by an organization or project to reach its goal
C. CSFs help link business initiatives or processes with selling, designing, developing, and adopting solutions and services
D. CSFs should receive special and continual attention from management in order to help the organization be effective
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
In a cloud implementation scenario, what does the sales professional must take into consideration regarding the revenue of a business outcomes selling?
A. Revenue from this model could increase in 25%.
B. Revenue from this model is immediate.
C. Revenue from this model is realized over a longer period of time.
D. Revenue from this model is three times bigger than in the traditional product selling.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
According to Cisco and related to customers, which is the one and only outstanding reason and justification for business outcome-based sales approach? 810-403 pdf
A. Executives are interested in satisfying customers’ needs and requirements.
B. Managers and supervisors are committed to close the quality of service gap.
C. Stakeholders are interested in being considered when developing and assessing business outcomes.
D. Customers are interested in solutions and services that result in measurable outcomes.
Correct Answer: D
810-403 dumpsQUESTION 4                                   810-403 dumps
RACI model aids can be used to understand specific aspects of stakeholders’ involvement in businesses.
What does RACI stand for?
A. Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed
B. Reconciler, Accountable, Consulted, Independent
C. Responsible, Assertive, Consulted, Informed
D. Reconciler, Assertive, Consulted, Informed
E. Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Influenced
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Cisco solutions and services are related to every kind of outcomes. Which is the goal of business outcomes?
A. To enable CXOs or Line of Business leaders to grow revenues, lower operating costs and achieve strategic business objectives
B. To help customers establish new technology or evolve current functionality
C. To help customers operate, manage and optimize technology environment more effectively
D. To take advantage of new technology to increase business relevance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which two options are part of customer relationship management? (Choose two.)
A. Developing market research.
B. Moving the customer towards positive decisions about IT investments and initiatives
C. Classifying customer segments.
D. Identifying key stakeholders.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
Which options are two benefits of understanding the customer’s business model? (Choose two.) 810-403 dumps
A. Understanding the customer’s business model changes the way you interact with your customer.
B. Understanding the customer’s business model provides control and assessment of project challenges.
C. Understanding the customer’s business model helps track progress through outcomes.
D. Understanding the customer’s business model is used to address the sales force mindset.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
Which four aspects are considered by the Business Model Canvas? (Choose four.)
A. Finances
B. Business structure
C. Sales people
D. Business development teams
E. Business value proposition
F. Strategic Analysis
Correct Answer: ABCE

QUESTION 9
What should sales professionals do to ensure that business outcomes support what the customer brings to the market? 810-403 pdf
A. Make a list of the CSFs and KPIs of the organization.
B. Interview the different stakeholders and confirm with them.
C. Understand the customer’s services portfolio.
D. Understand the customer’s value proposition.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which one of the following solutions enables business outcomes in the financial industry?
A. Multilayer Switching
B. Remote Expert
C. Plant Floor Control Network
D. Internet of EverythingE. Medianet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
What is ROI?
A. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing present value from a technology solution by the cost of that technology solution.
B. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing total investment from a technology solution by the cost of that technology solution.
C. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing net return from a technology solution by the margin of that technology solution.
D. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing net return from a technology solution by the cost of that technology solution.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which are two reasons customers look for Cisco and its partners’ solutions and services? (Choose two.) 810-403 dumps
A. to explore how technology innovation yields new revenue and lowers costs
B. to help make a retailer aware of a restocking need while more quickly relying on human interaction
C. to help business more effectively deploy, absorb, and adopt technologies
D. to enable customers to complete marketing research as part of their investment funds
E. to help business reduce the total cost of ownership for IT
Correct Answer: AC

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[2017 New Version] 100% Pass With Latest Cisco 810-502 Dumps PDF Files And Study Guide

The latest Cisco 810-502 brain dumps, quickly and easily pass Cisco exam with 810-502 vce dumps, download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free. http://www.passitexams.com/810-502.html Cisco 810-502 dumps Online Exams is the industry leader in information technology, and getting certified by them is a guaranteed way to succeed with IT careers
810-502
QUESTION 1
CSFs define what an organization should be good at. Which two options are characteristics of CSFs? (Choose two.)
A. CSFs are quantitative in nature and focus stakeholder relationships
B. CSFs describe an element that is needed by an organization or project to reach its goal
C. CSFs help link business initiatives or processes with selling, designing, developing, and adopting solutions and services
D. CSFs should receive special and continual attention from management in order to help the organization be effective
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
What is ROI?
A. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing present value from a technology solution by the cost of that technology solution.
B. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing total investment from a technology solution by the cost of that technology solution.
C. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing net return from a technology solution by the margin of that technology solution.
D. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing net return from a technology solution by the cost of that technology solution.
Correct Answer: D
810-502
QUESTION 3        810-502 dumps
Which options are two benefits of understanding the customer’s business model? (Choose two.)
A. Understanding the customer’s business model changes the way you interact with your customer.
B. Understanding the customer’s business model provides control and assessment of project challenges.
C. Understanding the customer’s business model helps track progress through outcomes.
D. Understanding the customer’s business model is used to address the sales force mindset.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
Which four aspects are considered by the Business Model Canvas? (Choose four.)
A. Finances
B. Business structure
C. Sales people
D. Business development teams
E. Business value proposition
F. Strategic Analysis
Correct Answer: ABCE

QUESTION 5
What should sales professionals do to ensure that business outcomes support what the customer brings to the market?
A. Make a list of the CSFs and KPIs of the organization.
B. Interview the different stakeholders and confirm with them.
C. Understand the customer’s services portfolio.
D. Understand the customer’s value proposition.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which one of the following solutions enables business outcomes in the financial industry?
A. Multilayer Switching
B. Remote Expert
C. Plant Floor Control Network
D. Internet of EverythingE. Medianet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
According to Cisco and related to customers, which is the one and only outstanding reason and justification for business outcome-based sales approach?
A. Executives are interested in satisfying customers’ needs and requirements.
B. Managers and supervisors are committed to close the quality of service gap.
C. Stakeholders are interested in being considered when developing and assessing business outcomes.
D. Customers are interested in solutions and services that result in measurable outcomes.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
RACI model aids can be used to understand specific aspects of stakeholders’ involvement in businesses.
What does RACI stand for?
A. Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed
B. Reconciler, Accountable, Consulted, Independent
C. Responsible, Assertive, Consulted, Informed
D. Reconciler, Assertive, Consulted, Informed
E. Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Influenced
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Cisco solutions and services are related to every kind of outcomes. Which is the goal of business outcomes?
A. To enable CXOs or Line of Business leaders to grow revenues, lower operating costs and achieve strategic business objectives
B. To help customers establish new technology or evolve current functionality
C. To help customers operate, manage and optimize technology environment more effectively
D. To take advantage of new technology to increase business relevance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which two options are part of customer relationship management? (Choose two.) 810-502 dumps
A. Developing market research.
B. Moving the customer towards positive decisions about IT investments and initiatives
C. Classifying customer segments.
D. Identifying key stakeholders.
Correct Answer: BD

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[2017 New Version] Latest Cisco 300-101 Dumps Exam Training Materials And Youtube Free Demo

Trust the best-selling Official Cert Guide series from Cisco 300-101 dumps exam Press to help you learn, prepare, and practice for exam success. Cisco CCDP 300-101 exam training resources which are the best for clearing 300-101 test, and to get certified by Cisco CCDP.

QUESTION 1
Which traffic characteristic is the reason that UDP traffic that carries voice and video is assigned to the queue only on a link that is at least 768 kbps?
A. typically is not fragmented
B. typically is fragmented
C. causes windowing
D. causes excessive delays for video traffic
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which option is invalid when configuring Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding?
A. allow self ping to router
B. allow default route
C. allow based on ACL match
D. source reachable via both
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
300-101
The DHCP client is unable to receive a DHCP address from the DHCP server. 300-101 Consider the following output:
hostname RouterB
!
interface fastethernet 0/0
ip address 172.31.1.1 255.255.255.0
interface serial 0/0
ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.252
!
ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.2
Which configuration is required on the Router B fastethernet 0/0 port in order to allow the DHCP client to successfully receive an IP address from the DHCP server?
A. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.16.1.2
B. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.16.1.1
C. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.31.1.1
D. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 255.255.255.255
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Refer to the following configuration command.
router(config)# ip nat inside source static tcp 172.16.10.8 8080 172.16.10.8 80
Which statement about the command is true?
A. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP port address of 172.16.10.8:80 is translated to 172.16.10.8:8080.
B. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP port address of 172.16.10.8:8080 is translated to 172.16.10.8:80.
C. The router accepts only a TCP connection from port 8080 and port 80 on IP address 172.16.10.8
D. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP address of 172.16.10.8 is redirected to port 8080 or port 80.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What type of IPv6 packet will indicate traffic from single host and single node?
A. multicast
B. unicast
C. broadcast
D. anycast
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
A network engineer receives reports about poor voice quality issues at a remote site. 300-101 The network engineer does a packet capture and sees out-of-order packets being delivered. Which option can cause the VOIP quality to suffer?
A. traffic over backup redundant links
B. misconfigured voice vlan
C. speed duplex link issues
D. load balancing over redundant links
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which three IP SLA performance metrics can you use to monitor enterprise-class networks? (Choose three.)
A. Packet loss
B. Delay
C. bandwidth
D. Connectivity
E. Reliability
F. traps
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 8
What is the administrative distance for EBGP?
A. 200
B. 30
C. 70
D. 20
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
A network engineer is configuring the router for NetFlow data exporting. What is required in order for NDE to begin exporting data?
A. Source
B. Flow mask
C. Destination
D. Interface type
E. Traffic type
F. NetFlow version
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A network administrator creates a static route that points directly to a multi-access interface, instead of the next-hop IP address. The administrator notices that Cisco Express Forwarding ARP requests are being sent to all destinations. Which issue might this configuration create?
A. Low bandwidth usage
B. High memory usage
C. Cisco Express Forwarding routing loop
D. High bandwidth usage
E. IP route interference
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Cisco 7925G phones are experiencing intermittent connectivity issues. The wireless survey reveals that the facility has no current coverage holes. The radios on the 2.4GHz channel have all been statically set to power level 1. Which two reasons could explain why the phones are having issues on this wireless network? (Choose two.)
A. The phones are experiencing excessive co-channel interference.
B. The phones only operate on the 2.4 GHz band when the power level is above 25 mW.
C. The phones are not transmitting at the same power levels as the access points.
D. The phones are experiencing delays of less than 30 ms within their coverage cell.
E. The phones are receiving greater than -67 dBm RSSI on the 2.4 GHz band.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
When conducting a wireless survey at a customer facility, signal attenuation in an area that is surrounded by thick glass walls is noted as 2dB. When configuring Cisco Prime Infrastructure, which obstacle should be placed in a map editor to represent the impact the glass wall will have on the RF signal in the facility?
A. heavy door
B. thick wall
C. glass
D. light wall
Correct Answer: D
300-360 dumps
QUESTION 3
As part of a wireless site survey in a hospital, an engineer needs to identify potential Layer 1 interferers. In which three areas is the engineer most likely expect to find sources of 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz RF noise? (Choose three.) 300-360 dumps
A. emergency room
B. magnetic resonance imaging
C. laboratory
D. X-ray radiography
E. Gamma Knife radiation treatment
F. kitchen
Correct Answer: ACF

QUESTION 4
An engineer is configuring an autonomous AP for RADIUS authentication. What three pieces of information must be known to configure the AP? (Choose three.)
A. BVI IP address
B. group name
C. RADIUS IP address
D. PAC encryption key
E. username and password
F. shared secret
Correct Answer: ACF

QUESTION 5
An engineer is performing a predictive wireless design for a Parts Distribution Center, which requires data and location services. Which three requirements are inputs to the design? (Choose three.)
A. access points with directional antennas
B. continuous -67 dBm coverage from one access point
C. overlapping -75 dBm coverage from three access points
D. overlapping -67 dBm coverage from two access points
E. access points in IPS mode
F. continuous -72 dBm coverage from one access point
G. access points in corners and along perimeters
Correct Answer: BCG

QUESTION 6
Which two steps are associated with the active portion of the audit when a post-installation audit is performed with an auditing tool such as Ekahau? (Choose two.)
A. Check for co-channel interference by standing near an access point on one channel and watching for other access points that are on the same channel.
B. Verify smooth roaming.
C. Check to see if the signal level on other access points that are heard on the same channel is at least 19 dBm weaker than the access point that you are next to.
D. Check that all channels are supported by the APs, regardless of client capabilities.
E. Verify that the network traffic of physical data rate and packet loss meets user requirements.
Correct Answer: BE

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400-351 VCE | 2017 Latest Cisco 400-351 VCE Exam Questions And Answers

Question No : 1
You are implementing a WLC at a remote site and want to make sure that you are able to sync up with the Cisco WCS at the central site. Which two statements about this process are true? (Choose two.)       The best Cisco 400-351 vce exam study guide and practice materials
A. If the WLC is behind a firewall, you must make sure that UDP ports 161 and 162 are open.
B. The Cisco WCS server does not need direct IP connectivity to the WLC.
C. Cisco WCS will not be able to communicate with the WLC if the WLC is behind a NAT device.
D. If the WLC is behind a NAT device, the WLC’s dynamic AP-manager interface must be configured with the external NAT IP address.
Answer: A,C

Question No : 2
While troubleshooting a failed central web authentication configuration on cisco WLC you discover that the Cisco WLC policy manager state is showing RUN For new client and not CENTRAL_WEB_AUTH what is most likely the issue.?
A. The WLAN Layer 2 security should be sent to WPA+WPA2
B. The WLAN NAC state should be set to RADIUS NAC
C. The web login page under the cisco WLC security should be set to external (redirect to external server)
D. The WLAN layer 3 security should be set to web page policy with condition web redirect.
Answer: B

Question No : 3
400-351
Refer to the exhibit which syslog logging facility and severity level is enabled on this AP ?
A. logging trap severity 6, logging syslog facility local7
B. logging trap severity 3,logging syslog facility sys 10
C. logging trap severity 5,logging syslog facility local14
D. logging trap severity 7, logging syslog facility local 7
E. Logging trap severity 9,logging syslog facility kernel
Answer: D

Question No : 4
Which two options are valid mobility roles in which a controller can operate in during a client mobility session? (Choose two.)
A. local
B. auto anchor
C. export anchor
D. mobility announcer
Answer: A,C

Question No : 5
Which statement about wireless LAN security in a Cisco 400-351 vce Unified Wireless Network VoWLAN deployment is false?
A. EAP-FAST, if available, is the recommended EAP type for use in VoWLAN deployments.
B. Although LEAP is considered secure for VoWLAN handsets when correctly deployed, it is recommended that a different EAP method (FAST, PEAP, TLS) is used, if available.
C. Dynamic WEP mitigates the security weaknesses in static WEP, making it a viable option that can be relied upon to secure a VoWLAN deployment.
D. When using EAP authentication, the EAP-Request timeout value should be adjusted based only on the advice of the VoWLAN handset vendor.
E. When using WPA Personal, strong keys should be used to avoid a dictionary attack.
Answer: D

Question No : 6
Which port does cisco JSE use by default to send RADIUS CoA messages to the Cisco WLC?
A. UDP 3799
B. UDP 1813
C. UDP 1700
D. TCP 1812
Answer: C

Question No : 7
When creating a guest account on Cisco identity Services Engine .Which option in the sponsor portal allows for the guest credentials to be used for RADIUS authentication without requiring the guest user to log into the guest portal?
A. Set the Guest role to Guest
B. Set the Guest role to Activated guest
C. Set the Time Profile to Radius 1Day
D. Check the box to send email not send email notification id the guest user name is based on the email address.
Answer: B

Question No : 8
Your customer has a Cisco unified Wireless Network running AireOS 8.0 and wants to learn about the FlexConnect mode that is available on his APs which two statementsare true?(choose two)   400-351 vce
A. When an AP is changed from localmode to FlexConnect mode a reboot is required.
B. A newly connected AP can be booted in FlexConnect mode
C. When an AP IS changed from local mode to FlexConnect mode a reboot IS not required.
D. Cisco Centralized Key Management require the use of FlexConnect group
Answer: C,D

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How To Pass 210-065 Exam With Latest Cisco 210-065 Exam Practice Questions

Question No : 1
Management wants to modify Cisco TMS to allow users to configure the Cisco 210-065 exam call behavior with their associated devices and dial from a single ID. Which feature needs to be enabled and configured?
A. Smart Scheduler
B. Low-touch Provisioning
C. FindMe
D. CMR Provisioning
Answer: C

Question No : 2
A technician is tasked with performing a room readiness assessment in preparation for an immersive video endpoint. What are three Cisco best practices regarding lighting recommendations for the room? (Choose three.)
A. The bulb temperature should be between 4000 and 4100K.
B. Key lighting should be between 200 and 400 Lux with the endpoint powered on.
C. Shoulder lighting should not exceed two times the facial lighting values with the endpoint off.
D. Use direct lighting fixtures.
E. Within the camera field of view, the lighting for all parts of the room should not fluctuate more than 100 Lux.
F. Avoid using dimming light control systems.
Answer: A,C,E

Question No : 3
Refer to the exhibit
210-065
Which configuration item shown in the exhibit should be used to assign the 210-065 pdf internal and external video communication server address for this group of users?
A. User Settings > Video Address pattern
B. Administrative Tools > User Settings
C. Configuration Template > Edit Template
D. User Import > Configuration
Answer: C

Question No : 4
Which four features are provided by Cisco TelePresence Management Suite? (Choose four.)
A. Scheduling of video conference calls
B. Built-in-bridge functionality for multiparty video conferences
C. SIP-H.323 protocol interworking
D. Centralized management of conference resources
E. SMTP email event notification
F. Endpoint configuration backup and restore
G. Cisco TelePresence endpoint automated redundancy
H. Automated resource optimization
Answer: A,D,E,F

Question No : 5
Which two protocols can be used with the Cisco TelePresence Content Server to allow users to share content from their laptops? (Choose two.)
A. BFCP
B. H.239
C. PCoIP
D. Switched Presentation
E. SCCP
F. RDP
Answer: A,B

Question No : 6
A network engineer wants to automate the monitoring of Cisco 210-065 vce TelePresence TX systems.
Which step should the engineer take first?
A. Configure Cisco TMS on the codec.
B. Configure Medianet on the codec.
C. Configure NTP on the codec.
D. Configure Multiway on the codec.
E. Configure SNMP on the codec.
Answer: E

Question No : 7
Which four features are supported by Cisco TelePresence Server for all hardware models in remotely managed mode? (Choose four.)
A. auto-attendant
B. ClearPath
C. Cluster sizes of more than 5 servers
D. Cascading
E. Active presence for all devices
F. Support for Conductor
G. Native scheduling capabilities
Answer: B,D,E,F

Question No : 8
Which three features does Cisco VCS provide? (Choose three.)
A. native Cisco SCCP telephony integration
B. SIP-H.323 interworking functionality
C. native scheduling
D. SIP trunk integration with Cisco Unified Communications Manager
E. third-party standards-based H.323 and SIP device registration
F. reverse proxy functionality
Answer: B,D,E

Question No : 9
An engineer is creating a system backup on a Cisco 210-065 dumps VCS. Which two options describe characteristics of Cisco VCS backups? (Choose two.)
A. The backup can be sent to the remote SFTP server.
B. The backup can be encrypted with a password.
C. The backup can be sent to additional servers in the cluster.
D. The backup is valid for 30 days.
E. The backup is stored in Cisco TMS.
F. The backup is only downloadable locally.
Answer: B,F

Question No : 10
A Cisco TelePresence VCS displays this alarm: “Root password is set to default.” How can this security warning be addressed?
A. Use the Cisco TelePresence VCS web user interface, choose Administration > User Settings, and change the root password.
B. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Administrator and issue the command xconfig root set passwd.
C. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Root, issue the command set password, and enter the new password when prompted.
D. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Root, issue the command passwd, and enter the new password when prompted.
E. Use the Cisco TelePresence VCS web user interface, choose Administration > System Settings, and change the root password.
Answer: D

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Pass Salesforce ADM-211 Exam With Latest ADM-211 Practice Exam Questions

QUESTION 1
AW Computing needs to track the Salesforce ADM-211 practice exam manufacturer and model for specific computers and laptops. How can the system administrator ensure that manufacturer selected influences the values available for model.
A. Create a multi-select picklist field that includes both manufacturers and models.
B. Create a lookup field from the manufacturer object to the model object
C. Create a manufacturer field as a controlling picklist and the model as a dependent picklist
D. Create a manufacturer field as the dependent picklist and the model as the controlling picklist.
Correct Answer: C
ADM-211
QUESTION 2
Which of the following are true about formula fields?
A. They are read-only
B. They will not display on record edit pages
C. They will not display on record detail pages
D. They are not searchable
E. They will not display on reports
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 3
Which of the ADM-211 following objects support business processes?
A. Cases
B. Opportunities
C. Campaigns
D. Knowledge
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
The system administrator has been asked to create a way to track Shipments of products to customers. Shipments should be closely tied to the Opportunity record and there may be more than one shipment record per Opportunity and the ADM-211 Opportunity should be required (i.e. Users cannot save a Shipment record without associating it to an Opportunity). The system administrator should create.
A. A cross object formula displaying Opportunity ID on the Shipment record
B. A Master – Detail relationship on the Shipment object to the Opportunity object
C. A lookup relationship on the Opportunity object to the Shipment object
D. A lookup relationship with a lookup filter from Opportunity to Shipment
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You will need a security token to access Salesforce via (choose all that apply)
A. Import Wizard
B. Data Loader
C. Salesforce for Outlook
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
What should a system administrator consider before importing a set of records into Salesforce.
A. The import file should include a record owner for each record
B. Validation rules are not triggered when importing data using the import wizard
C. Data should be de-duplicated in the import file prior to import
D. Currency field values will default to the personal currency of the record owner
Correct Answer: AC
ADM-211
QUESTION 7
Which of the following can be used to ADM-211 create a back up of data from Salesforce?
A. Weekly Data Export
B. Data Loader
C. Import Wizard
D. Reports
E. Dashboards
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 8
Which statement about custom summary formulas is true?
A. Reports can be grouped by a custom summary formula result
B. Custom summary formulas can reference a formula field within a report
C. Custom summary formulas can reference another custom summary formula
D. Custom summary formulas can be used in a report built from a custom report type
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
A Dashboard is a visual representation of data from ADM-211 multiple reports and (choose all that apply)
A. Is comprised of up to 20 components
B. Displays data from standard reports
C. Has a running user to determine what data is visible
D. Displays data as of the last time the dashboard was refreshed
E. Always shows up to date data
F. Can be scheduled to be refreshed and emailed automatically
Correct Answer: ACDF

QUESTION 10
The support team has asked the System Administrator to automate the notification of a customer’s support plan ending – they would like for the ADM-211 Customer Support Rep to receive an email 30 days before the Support Plan Expires (Support Plan Expiration Date is on the Account record). What will the system administrator do?
A. Create a workflow rule with a time-based trigger to fire 30 days before the Support Plan Expiration Date and use an email action to notify the assigned Support Rep
B. Create a workflow rule with an immediate action to email the Support rep but with a due date of 30 days before the Support Expiration Date
C. Create an Apex trigger to fire 30 days before Support Plan Expiration Date and use an email action to notify the assigned Support Rep
D. This cannot be done
Correct Answer: A

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Latest Juniper JN0-643 Dumps Exam Free Update With High Pass Rate

New question on multicast similar to the all PIM routers but the answers did contain subnet masks and different answers. Otherwise very good dump with almost 100% correct answers, much better than any other dumps http://www.passitexams.com/JN0-643.html Please be careful that there are some questions changed. You need to read them carefully.

QUESTION 1
Referring to the JN0-643 dumps exhibit, which three actions would summarize these routes to a BGP peer? (Choose three.)
A. Create a policy that accepts the more specific contributing routes.
B. Create a route to 10.200.16.0/21 with a next hop of 172.16.36.1 under the [edit routing- options static] hierarchy.
C. Create a policy that rejects the more specific contributing routes.
D. Create a policy to accept aggregate routes.
E. Create a 10.200.16.0/22 route under the [edit routing-options aggregate] hierarchy.
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 2
jn0-643
Click the Exhibit button.
AS4 is using the JN0-643 exam default path to get to AS1. This path is not modified by any of the ASs shown in the exhibit. AS1 wants to influence this path so that traffic from AS4 comes through AS3.
Where do you apply the policy shown in the exhibit?
A. AS1
B. AS2
C. AS3
D. AS4
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Your company asks you to configure multicast routing on a Junos device. They tell you that the router at IP address 192.168.1.4 is the root of the shared multicast delivery tree.
Which command allows you to configure the Junos device as a non-RP router for PIM?
A. set protocols pim rp local family inet disable
B. set protocols pim rp local address 192.168.1.4
C. set protocols pim rp static address 192.168.1.4
D. set protocols pim rp auto-rp announce
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
jn0-643
Click the Exhibit button.
You are the administrator for the network shown in the exhibit. R1 receives the 196.15.4.0/24 route from routers R2, R3, and R4. Local preference values have not been modified in this network. You are asked to ensure that R1 prefers the path through AS 3149 for traffic destined to 196.15.4.0/24.
Which two methods will accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. Configure a lower local preference on R3.
B. Configure as-path-prepend on R2 and R4.
C. Configure local-as on R3.
D. Configure always-compare-med on R1.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
Referring to the output shown in the JN0-643 vce exhibit, which three statements are true about the PIM implementation on R1? (Choose three.)
A. R1 is receiving multicast traffic over the RPT.
B. R1 is receiving multicast traffic over the SPT.
C. Interface ge-0/0/10 provides the shortest path to the source.
D. The multicast stream flows from 10.100.10.10 to 172.18.57.5.
E. Interface ge-0/0/6 provides the shortest path to the source.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 6
jn0-643
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, the JN0-643 pdf RPT from R3 towards R2 is established.
What happens if the multicast source connected to R1 starts sending multicast traffic towards R1?
A. R1 encapsulates the multicast packets into a PIM register multicast packet.
B. R1 encapsulates the multicast packets into PIM join unicast messages.
C. R1 forwards the multicast packets on the (S,G) tree towards the RP.
D. R1 tunnels the multicast packets in PIM register messages towards the RP.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two statements are true about MSDP mesh groups? (Choose two.)
A. The MSDP mesh group was originally designed to limit SA flooding.
B. SA messages received from a mesh group member flood these messages to all peers that are not members of this mesh group.
C. SA messages received from a peer not in any mesh group do not flood to all peers.
D. SA messages received from a peer not in any mesh group perform a peer-RPF check and, if successful, flood to all peers (except the advertising router).
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
Which multicast group is used for all PIM routers?
A. 224.0.0.22
B. 224.0.0.13
C. 224.0.0.1
D. 224.0.0.2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
When enabling MVRP for dynamic VLAN registration JN0-643, which three timers would be configured on an interface? (Choose three.)
A. hello-interval
B. join-timer
C. leave-timer
D. max-age
E. leaveall-timer
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 10
Which two statements are correct about L2PT? (Choose two.)
A. L2PT requires 802.1Q tunneling enablement to effectively tunnel L2 protocols.
B. 802.1Q tunnels all L2 protocols by default.
C. L2PT encapsulates L2 PDUs by enabling the ingress switch to rewrite the PDUs’ source MAC addresses before forwarding them onto the service provider network.
D. You cannot enable L2PT and VLAN translation on the same VLAN.
Correct Answer: AD

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2017 Latest Oracle 1Z0-052 Dumps Exams Practice Questions And Youtube

Vendor: Oracle
Exam Code: 1Z0-052 dumps
Exam Name: Oracle Database 11g: Administrator I
Version: Demo

Question No : 1
You notice that the performance of the database has degraded because of frequent checkpoints.
Which two actions resolve the issue? (Choose two.)
A. Disable automatic checkpoint tuning
B. Check the size of the redo log file size and increase the size if it is small
C. Set the FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET parameter as per the advice given by the MTTR Advisor
D. Decrease the number of redo log members if there are more than one redo log members available in each redo log group
Answer: B,C

1z0-052

Question No : 2
Identify the memory component from which memory may be 1z0-052 allocated for: Session memory for the shared serverBuffers for I/O slavesOracle Database Recovery Manager (RMAN) backup and restore operations
A. Large Pool
B. Redo Log Buffer
C. Database Buffer Cache
D. Program Global Area (PGA)
Answer: A

Question No : 3
You executed the following command to 1z0-052 pdf create a tablespace called SALES_DATA:
SQL> CREATE TABLESPACE sales_data
DATAFILE SIZE 100M
SEGMENT SPACE MANAGEMENT AUTO;
Which two statements are true about the SALES_DATA tablespace? (Choose two)
A. The database automatically determines the extent-sizing policy for the tablespace.
B. The segments are automatically shrunk when the contents are removed from them.
C. The allocation of extents within the tablespace is managed through the dictionary tables.
D. The space utilization description of the data blocks in segments is recorded in bitmap blocks.
E. The space utilization description of the data blocks in segments is managed through free lists.
Answer: A,D

Question No : 4
In which of the scenario 1z0-052 will the DBA perform recovery? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The alert log file is corrupted
B. A tablespace is accidentally dropped
C. One of the redo log members is corrupted
D. A database user terminates the session abnormally
E. The hard disk on which the data files is stored is corrupted
Answer: B,E

Question No : 5
You want to enable archiving on your database. Presently, the database is running in NOARCHIVELOG mode.
Given below are the steps to accomplish the task in random order:
1. Shut down the instance.
2. Execute the ALTER DATABASE ARCHIVELOG command.
3. Start up the instance and mount the database.
4. Set the DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST initialization parameter to $ORACLE_HOME/dest_1.
5. Open the database.
Which is the correct sequence of steps for accomplishing the task?
A. 4, 1, 3, 2, 5
B. 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
C. 1, 3, 2, 5; 4 not required
D. 4, 1, 5, 2; 3 not required
E. 1, 3, 4, 5; 2 not required
Answer: C

Question No : 6
In your database instance, the 1z0-052 vce STATISTICS_LEVEL initialization parameter is set to BASIC.
What is the impact of this setting?
A. Optimizer statistics are collected automatically.
B. Only timed operating system (OS) statistics and plan execution statistics are collected.
C. The snapshots for the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) are not generated automatically.
D. Snapshots cannot be collected manually by using the DBMS_WORKLOAD_REPOSITORY package.
E. The Oracle server dynamically generates the necessary statistics on tables as part of query optimization.
Answer: C

Question No : 7
You have recently collected statistics on certain objects of 1z0-052 a schema in your database. But you observe suboptimal execution plans for the queries on these objects after two days of statistics collection. The optimizer statistics retention period is set to its default value.
Which action would help to use the previous set of statistics on the objects?
A. Restore statistics from statistics history.
B. Reduce the optimizer statistics retention period by 2 days.
C. Set the OPTIMIZER_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to TRUE.
D. Reduce the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) retention period by 2 days.
Answer: A

Question No : 8
Which three statements 1z0-052 regarding the server parameter file (SPFILE) are true? (Choose three.)
A. An SPFILE is a binary file
B. An SPFILE cannot reside on a client
C. An SPFILE cannot contain static parameters
D. An SPFILE can store changes persistently across instance restarts
E. An SPFILE can be read by the database server, but it is not written to by the server
F. An SPFILE must be created manually, before creating a database, even if you use the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) to create the database
Answer: A,B,D

Question No : 9
Your test database is configured to run in NOARCHIVELOG mode. One of the 1z0-052 exam data files in the USERS tablespace is lost due to a media failure. You notice that all the online redo logs have been overwritten since the last backup.
What would you do to recover the data file?
A. Take the USERS tablespace offline and re-create the lost data file
B. Shutdown the instance, restore the data file from the last consistent backup and restart the database instance
C. Shutdown the instance, restores all the database files from the last consistent backup and restart the database instance
D. Take the USERS tablespace offline, restore all the data files of the USERS tablespace from the last consistent backup and make the tablespace online
Answer: C

Question No : 10
The instance abnormally terminates 1z0-052 because of a power outage.
Which statement is true about redo log files during instance recovery?
A. Inactive and current redo log files are required to accomplish recovery
B. Online and archived redo files are required to accomplish instance recovery
C. All redo log entries after the last checkpoint are applied from redo log files to data files
D. All redo log entries recorded in the current log file until the checkpoint position are applied to data files
Answer: C

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